NET+ Questions Flashcards
(303 cards)
1
Q
Which Server Application uses two well known port numbers during a typical transaction?
A
FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
2
Q
Which protocol shuts down redundant links until they are needed to prevent network switching loops?
A
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
3
Q
What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11n?
A
175 feet & 600Mbps
4
Q
What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11ac?
A
115 feet & 3.5 gbps
5
Q
What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11g?
A
150feet & 54Mbps
6
Q
What is the max distance and transmit speed for 802.11a?
A
75feet & 54Mbps
7
Q
What Byte Header does UDP use?
A
8byte header
8
Q
Name two network topologies used by WLans
A
Infrastructure & Ad hoc
9
Q
Which layer of OSI does the IP (Internet Protocol) operate? Is it connected or connectionless?
A
Network; connectionless
10
Q
what traffice shaping techniques can be used to prevent networks from being overwhelmed by data transmissions?
A
Rate Limiting and Bandwidth Throttling
11
Q
What device ONLY operates at the OSI’s physical layer?
A
Hub
12
Q
Which two well known ports are the default values used to configure a POP3 email Client?
A
110 & 25
13
Q
Switches and bridges perform their basic functions at which layer of the OSI model?
A
Data Link
14
Q
What are the first Byte values or a Class D network?
A
224-239
15
Q
What is a Class D network reserved for?
A
multicast addresses
16
Q
What is the range of well known port numbers used by TCP and UDP?
A
1 through 1023
17
Q
What feature allows a IDS (Intrusion detection system) to monitor all traffic on a SWITCHED network?
A
Port Mirroring
18
Q
What 4 message types are exchanged by a DHCP client and server during a successful IP address allocation transaction?
A
DHCP Discover
DHCP Offer
DHCP Request
then is met with
DHCP ACK(Acknowledge)
(Renew,release, and inform are not used during address allocation and are only used for unsuccessful transactions)
19
Q
The TCP/IP protocols that can provide either a connectionless or connection oriented services to applications operate at which layer of the OSI?
A
Transport Layer
20
Q
What is the network that connects a client device to an access point on a wireless LAN?
A
BSS (Basic Service Set)
21
Q
What is a Basic Service Set (BSS)?
A
A BSS is a set of stations (Client devices and access points)
22
Q
What is a AP (Access Point)?
A
An access point is the center point of a BSS and serves as a bridge between wireless clients and a wired network.
23
Q
What is a BSSID?
A
a unique identifier for each BSS.
24
Q
What is ESS(Extended Service Set)?
A
One or more interconnected BSS which allows wireless clients to roam between BSSs
25
What is SSID(service set identifier) and what is its use?
it is the name of the wireless LAN which is used to identify and differentiate it from other wireless LANs in the area.
26
When using both an internal and external DNS server, which two devices should only be registered with the external DNS?
Internet Web Servers and Incoming Email Servers
OR
Records that only contain resources that must be accessed via the internet such as web servers or public email servers
27
What 4 technologies are used for a PAN (personal area network)?
Bluetooth, Z-wave, RFID, NFC
28
What is the function of a TCP or UDP port number?
The port Number is used by both the sender and receiver to identify the application that generated the information in the datagram
29
What protocols use the term "DATAGRAM" to describe the data transfer unit it creates?
UDP & IP
30
What protocol uses the term 'Frame and Segment'?
TCP (ethernet and Transmission control protocol)
31
Which layer in the OSI is responsible for signals that transmit over the network medium?
Physical - responsible for transmission and reception of signals over the network medium
32
The protocol that adds a 'Header and Footer' to the information passed down from an upper layer then creates a frame operates at which layer of the OSI model?
Data Link Layer
33
What terms refer to an area of an ENTERPRISE network that is seperated by firewalls and contains servers that must be accessible both from the internet and from the internal network?
Perimeter Network and DMZ
34
The Star Topology is NOT used by which ethernet physical layer option?
10Base2
35
What is 10Base2
Coaxial Cable in a BUS topology
36
What do 10baseT, 10basetx and 1000baseT have in common? what topology are they used for?
They all use a Twisted Pair cable and are used in a star Topology
37
Which protocols operate at the application layer of the OSI?
SNMP and HTTP
38
What does SNMP stand for and what layer of OSI does it operate?
Simple Network Management protocol
Network Layer
39
What does HTTP Stand for?
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
40
The maximum channel width using wireless networking equipment based on iEEE 802.11 standard is _________?
160 MHz
41
Which component is identified by the port number in a transport layer protocol header?
An application
42
What layers of the OSI model have dedicated hardware devices associated with them?
Physical, Network, and Data Link
43
Which DNS resource recored resolves a hostname into an IPV6 address?
AAAA
44
Why would a relay agent be needed to enable a DHCP server to assign IP addresses to clients on another Network?
DHCP address assignment process relies on broadcast transmissions and because clients cannot initiate an address assignment by contacting a DHCP server on another network directly
45
What is a default gateway?
the TCP/IP parameter that is configured on an end system and specifies the internet protocol (IP) address of a local router providing access to other networks
46
iEEE 802.11g only uses what frequency band?
2.4GHz band
47
iEEE 802.11b only uses what frequency band?
2.4GHz band
48
iEEE 802.11n can use what frequency band?
both 2.4 and 5.0 GHz band
49
iEEE 802.11a only uses what frequency band?
5.0GHz band
50
iEEE 802.11ac only uses what frequency band?
5.0GHz band
51
Which protocol exchanges directory service information?
LDAP (Lightwieght Directory Access Protocol)
52
Which protocol operates at the network layer of the OSI but does not encapsulate data that an upper layer protocol generates for transmission over the network?
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
53
What is ICMP(Internet Control Message Protocol)?
A network layer protocol used by network devices to diagnose network communication issues. It sends operational and error messages
54
What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class A Network?
255.0.0.0. Class A only uses the first octet as the network identifier
55
What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class B Network?
255.255.0.0.
56
What is the default subnet mask for an IPv4 Class C Network?
255.255.255.0.
57
Mac Address contain ___ Hexadecimals and only have alphanumerical values of ___ to ___
6 Byte
A-F
58
In the US, which cellular communication tech is virtually obsolete? What Frequency band did it use?
TDMA (Time Division Multiple Access
2G
59
What systems do major US cell carriers now use?
CDMA (Code Division Mutliple Access) and GSM (Global System for Mobile communication
60
The protocol that delivers data to its ultimate destination on an internetwork can be found can be found on which layer of the OSI?
Network Layer
61
What is the process by which dynamic routing protocols update other routers with routing table information?
Convergence
62
What is the process by which routers propagate information from their routing tables to other routers on the network using dynamic routing protocols called?
Convergence
63
What ports do DHCP servers use?
Port 67 and 68
64
What port does TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) use?
Port 69
65
Which Layer of OSI specifies logical addresses for end system communication and route datagrams across a network?
Network Layer
66
Which cloud service model allows you to select the operating system of your choice?
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
67
At which layer of the OSI does network address translation (NAT) operate?
Network Layer
68
What is a CNAME?
Canonical Name- is a resource record that specifies an alternative host name for a system already registered in the DNS
69
Which DNS resource record implements email security mechanisms including Sender Policy Framework and Domain Key Identified Mail?
TXT
70
What is TXT and what is it used for?
A DNS resource record tool. A text string is stored in a TXT resource and can be used in a variety of applications.
A list of authorized email hosts is inserted into the TXT record by Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and a public key is inserted by Domain Key Identified Email
71
What is MX and what is it used for?
Mail Exchange record. A mail exchange record specifies the mail server that the domain should use
72
What is NOT used by SPF and DKIM
MX, PTR, CNAME
73
what is PTR?
Pointer Records. It contains both hostnames and ip addresses but theyre used for reverse name resolution, or resolving ip addresses into host names
74
What protocol is NOT used to allocate IP Address assignments to clients on a network?
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)
75
What protocols ARE used to allocate IP Address assignments to clients on a network?
RARP, BOOTP, DHCP
76
What is RARP?
Reverse Address Resolution Process
77
what does BOOTP stand for and what is it used for?
Bootstrap Protocol, used to allocate ip address assignments to clients on a network
78
What is the TCP exchange that establishes a connection before any data is transmitted?
Three-way Handshake
79
Which devices function as the cabling nexus which forms the figurative center of a star on an Ethernet network using the Star Topology?
Hub and Switch
80
What standard calls for the use of CSMA/CA mechanism?
iEEE 802.11
81
What standard calls for the use of CSMA/CD mechanism?
iEEE 802.3
82
Which protocol provides a connection oriented service with guaranteed delivery at the transport layer of the OSI?
TCP
83
Which topology requires termination resistors be installed at two locations?
BUS
84
Why does a BUS topology require two terminated resistors to be installed?
To eliminate signals as they reach the end of the coaxial cable. To prevent them from reflecting back in the other direction and stop them from interfering with newly transmitted signals
85
What is a routing protocol that does not rely on hop counts tp measure the efficiency of routes?
Link State Protocol
86
ALL UTP-based gigabyte ethernet networks use a ____ Topology
Star
87
ALL coaxial based ethernet networks (including Thin Ethernet) use a ___ Topology
BUS
88
From TOP to BOTTOM what is the correct order of the OSI Model?
1.Application
2.Presentation
3.Session
4.Transport
5.Network
6.Data Link
7.Physical
89
What enables two computers to communicate using an iEEE 802.11 LAN using and Ad hoc Topology?
They communicate directly with eachother via their Wireless network adpaters. No router, internet, access poitn, or special antenna are needed at all.
90
What iEEE wireless LAN standard uses DSSS (Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum) signal modulation technique?
802.11b
91
What is a circuit swtiched network connection?
Landline voice phone call
92
What organization assigns well-known port numbers used in Transport Layer protocol headers?
IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
93
On an IEEE 802.11b/g/n wireless network running at 2.4Ghz with multiple access points, why is it a good plan to use channels 1,6, and 11 with no two adjacent access points configured to used the same channel?
Channels 1,6,&11 are the only three channels with frequencies that do not overlap
94
What TCP/IP protocol cannot support subnetting because it does not include the subnet mask within its route update messages?
RIPv1
95
What TCP/IP protocols support subnetting/ have a subnet mask within its route update message?
RIPv2, OSPF, and BGP
96
What does OSPF stand for?
Open shortest path first
97
What does BGP stand for?
Border Gateway Protocol
98
What is the native file sharing protocol used on all Microsoft windows operating systems?
Server Message Block (SMB)
99
Which topology provides the greatest number of redundant paths through the network?
Mesh
100
Which device physically connects computers in the same VLAN?
A Switch
101
In protocols operating at which layer of the OSI is flow control implemented?
Transport
102
An entrance point to the protocol stack for applications is provided in which layer of the OSI model?
Application
103
On a DHCP server, which element can you create to specify the appropriate IP addresses the server should assign to clients?
Scope
104
Are collisions on an Ethernet network normal?
YES
105
Which type of transmissions do DHCP clients rely on to locate and initiate contact with the DHCP server on the local network?
Broadcast
106
in the Fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
www.paris.mydomain.org, which words represent the topmost layer in the DNS namespace hierarchy?
org (The last dot abbreviation represents the topmost layer)
107
John has been hired to design the network of a company. The client wants the network to be configured with 10 sub-nets, each with 14 hosts. The company has an assigned class C network address of 192.168.30.0. Is this configuration possible? If so, how many sub-nets and hosts can john create on the network?
Yes, By using 4 sub-net bits Ed can create up to 16 sub-nets. He can then use the remaining 4 host bits to create 14 hosts on each sub-net.
108
What includes the methods that prioritize network traffic to prevent applications from suffering faults caused by network congestion?
Qos (Quality of Service)
109
What is port forwarding?
a routing method that redirects traffic intended for one IP address and port number to another.
110
Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams between autonomous systems?
EGP (Exterior gateway protocol)
111
OSPF and RIP are both _______ gateway protocols
Interior
112
Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams between autonomous systems?
EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)
113
Which type of routing protocol routes datagrams WITHIN an antonymous system?
IGP (interior gateway protocol)
114
What two protocols are an example of interior gateway protocols? (IGP)
OSPF(Open shortest path first) and RIP (Routing information protocol)
115
Which device would you configure to function as a DHCP server?
A wireless router
116
Which well known port is used by HTTPS(Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) by default?
443
117
Which organization developed the OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model?
ISO (International organization for standardization)
118
In order to supply clients with a default gateway address, which configuration should they choose on the DHCP server?
Router
119
What is the DNS client mechanism that generates name resolution queries and sends them to the DNS Server?
Resolver
120
Which DHCP address allocation method allows the server to reclaim IP addresses that clients no longer use?
Dynamic
121
Which organization assigns well-known port numbers used in transport layer protocol headers?
IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority)
122
What is a protocol that inserts a 32-bit field in the Ethernet Frame to identify VLANs?
IEEE 802.1Q
123
The private IP address range from ______ to _____. The designated private IP addresses range from _____ to ____
10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
and
192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
124
Which topology uses a wireless access point (AP) to allow wireless devices to access resources on a wired network?
Infrastructure
124
Which two elements are used to identify devices in a particular VLAN?
Hardware Addresses and Switch Port Numbers
125
Which protocol can only be used on the LOCAL subnet?
ARP (Address resolution protocol)
126
Which technology enables IP addresses that a DHCP server assigns to clients to be automatically added to the DNS namespace?
Dynamic DNS
127
What is a hierarchical switching architecture in which remote switches handle the majority of network traffic and a host switch is only utilized for traffic between remote locations? *Commonly used for departmental switching.
Distributed Switching
128
Which topology does a wireless access point enable computers equipped with wireless network interface adapters to function in?
Infrastructure
129
Which 2 IEEE wireless LAN standards define devices with a maximum aggregate channel width of 20MHz?
802.11a and 802.11g
130
What is the allowed Ephemeral port number value range?
49152-50134
131
What are the reserved ports that specific manufacturers register for their applications to?
1024-49151
132
What must you create on a DHCP server to assign the same IP address to a computer?
Reservation
133
What is it called when a permanent IP address is assigned to a specific MAC address on a DHCP server?
Reservation
134
The installation of a new light fixture accidentally severs one of the LAN cables running through the dropped ceiling space. The severed cable would cause the greatest amount of disturbance to the network with which topology?
Bus
135
Which two routing protocols can be used on a TCP/IP with segments at different speeds, making hop counts an inaccurate measure of route efficiency?
OSPF (Open shortest path first) &
EIGRP (Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol
136
The medium, network interfaces, connecting hardware, and signaling methods used on a network are defined by which layer of the OSI model?
Physical
137
A single RIP broadcast can contain no more than ____ routes.
25
*RIP must generate additional packets if there are more than 25 routes in the computers routing table*
138
____ must generate additional packets if there are more than 25 routes in the computers routing table
RIP
139
Which TCP header must you look for to determine whether the receiving host has successfully received the sending host's data?
ACK
140
The protocols on a typical network use MAC addresses to identify other computers on the network at which layer of the OSI model?
Data link
141
Which two layers of the OSI apply to cabling and topology elements?
Physical and Data Link
142
Which DNS resource record is used for reverse name resolution only?
PTR 179
143
Which two protocols are used for IP address allocation?
DHCP and BOOTP
144
Which protocol is used by computers on a TCP/IP network to resolve NAMES into IP addresses?
DNS (DomainNAMEservice)
145
Which protocol carries information gathered by agents to a central management console?
SNMP (Simple network management protocol)
146
Which layer of the OSI model controls dialogue between two communicating end systems?
Session
147
An ethernet network interface adapter provides functions that span two layers of the OSI model, what are the two layers?
Physical and Data Link layer
148
Which protocol does NOT operate on the network layer of the OSI model?
IMAP
149
What mail protocol operates at the application layer of the OSI model?
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)
150
What statement best describes the sub-netting process on a TCP/IP network?
You borrow bits from the host identifier to create a subnet identifier
151
Which protocol provides connectionless delivery service at the transport layer of the OSI model?
UDP (User datagram protocol)
152
The majority of new ethernet networks installed today use which of the following network topologies?
Hierarchical Star
153
Which two layers of the OSI model do not have protocols in the TCP/IP suite exclusively dedicated to them?
Presentation and Session
154
What is the range of IPv4 address assigned to DHCP clients that cannot access a DHCP server by APIPA?
169.254.0.0-169.254.255.255
155
Which cabling topology did the first ethernet networks use?
Bus
156
Which class' IPv4 address is assigned to DHCP clients that cannot contact a DHCP server by APIPA?
Class B. Uses first 2 octects
157
Which TCP/IP routing protocol uses the number of hops between the source and the destination to measure the efficiency of routes?
RIP (Routing information protocol)
158
What is the primary application layer of protocol that web browsers use to communicate with web servers?
HTTP
159
What is the coding language used to create web content?
HTML
160
The IP address of the authoritative DNS servers for a particular zone are specififed by which domain system resource record type?
NS (Name Server)
161
The offloading of excess traffic from private to public cloud resources to maintain satisfactory performance levels is known as _________...
Cloud BURSTING
162
Which two network topologies will never experience interference from a 2.4Ghz wireless telephone?
IEEE 802.11ac and 802.11a
163
What is CIDR(Classless Inter-Domain Routing)'s ability to create subnets using any number IP address bits, rather using 8 bit blocks?
VLSM (Variable-Length Subnet Masking)
164
Which two layers of the OSI model are associated with network switching?
Data Link and Network
165
What is the range for the first octet of a Class A address?
1-126
166
What is the range for the first octet of a Class B address?
128-191
167
What is the range for the first octet of a Class C address?
192-223
168
What is the range for the first octet of a Class D address?
223-239
169
Which network layer protocol locates routers, DNS servers, and other nodes on an IPv6 network by using ICMPv6?
NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)
170
What layer of the OSI model does NDP operate?
Network Layer
171
Which two protocols geneterate messages carried directly within internet protocol (IP) datagrams without intervening the Transport Layer protocol?
IGMP and ICMP
172
What is IGMP?
Internet Group Management Protocol
173
what is ICMP?
Internet Control Message Protocol
174
When two stations transmist at the same time, which CSMA/CD event occurs immediately on an ethernet network after the collision?
The two stations stop transmitting
175
Which 3 IP address allocation methods does DHCP support?
Manual, Dynamic, and automatic
176
Which tool integrates DHCP and DNS so that each is aware of the changes made by the other?
IPAM
177
What is IPAM?
IP address management
178
A client on a TCP/IP network wants to establish a session with a server. What is the correct order of TCP session establishment messages?
SYN, SYN/(then) ACK,ACK
179
What is a dual stack?
A computer with two sets of networking protocols
180
Which layer of the OSI model uses EBCDIC on the sending system to convert a text file encoded into ASCII code when the receiving system requires?
Presentation layer
181
The address 127.0.0.1 is found in which IPv4 class?
None. it is classless
182
What is the address 127.0.0.1 designated for?
Local Loopback
183
Which DHCP option does NOT allow the client to transmit IP datagrams that circulate endlessly around the network?
Default IP TTL
184
What is TTL?
Time To Live. determines the maximum amount of seconds or hops an ip datagrams is allowed before being removed from the network by a router
185
Which service allows computers on a private IPv4 network to access the internet using a registered IP address?
NAT
186
What happens when a DNS server receives an iterative name resolution query?
The DNS server responds immediately to query with the best information it has in its records/cache or, failing that, with an error message stating that it could not resolve the requested name
187
What is a Class E address used for?
Experimental
188
Which IPv6 address type has the same function as an IPv4 APIPA address?
Link Local
189
Which of the following layers of the OSI model translates and formats information?
Presentation
190
Anna has created a new Windows Server 2016 virtual machine that uses remote controls from a cloud service provider on the internet. Which cloud architectures is she using?
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
Public Cloud
191
Which device should be used to join two UTP installations into one LAN using the fiber optic run across space with a minimum cost?
Media Converter
192
Which cable type is configured in a star topology, uses eight copper conductors arranged in four pairs, and uses a RJ-45 connector?
Twisted Pair, or UTP or STP
193
What is the difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch?
Virtual switches have an unlimited number of ports, physical switches have a specified number
194
Which devices are used to place calls on a VoIP (voice over IP) installation?
Terminal and Gateway
195
What is a standard UTP termination?
T568A/B
196
What kind of termination is used to create a cross over cable?
T568B->T568A
197
Which cable type and connector attach a television set to a cable television (CATV) network? (Cable TV)
A coaxial cable and a F-Type connector
198
What are the functions provided by a unified threat management(UTM) appliance?
VPN, Antivirus, Firewall
199
Which remote access technology converts digital signals that a computer generates to analog signals carried over standard telephone wires?
Modem-to-Modem
200
What signaling do ISDN,DSL, and cable broadband use?
Digital signaling from end to end
201
Which device adds features like deep pack inspection(DPI) and an intrusion prevention system(IPS) to expand on the capabilities of the traditional firewall?
NGFW (Next Generation Firewall
202
What is the method by which a firewall examines port numbers in transport layer protocol headers?
Service Dependent Filtering
203
Which technology enables virtual private network clients to connect directly to each other and to the VPN server at the home site?
DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN)
204
What is a multiport repeater?
HUB
205
How many T-1 connections are equivalent to a T-3 leased line connection?
28 (T-3 connection channels are 28x24=672 channels, overall transfer rate of 44.73Mbps)
206
How many channels does a T-1 connection consist of?
24 Channels
207
Packet forwarding is associated with what network device?
Router
208
Which type of switch immediately forwards frames after looking at only the destination address?
Cut-Through
209
Which twisted pair cable type is rated for both a 10mbps data rate and a 100Mbps data rate?
Cat 3
210
Which cable type is used for THICK ethernet network segments?
RG-8
211
Which cable type is used for THIN ethernet segments?
RG-58
212
What is a leased line subscription that consists of only part of a T-1?
Fractional T-1
213
Which device is a VPN concentrator an advanced type of?
Router (VPN conectrator is a type of router)
214
Electrical devices with no electronic intelligence are considered dumb. Which network device is considered dumb?
Hubs
215
True or false:
STP compiles a database containing the IP addresses of connected devices.
FALSE
216
Which type of device is a load balancer?
Router
217
What is the function of the network medium?
The network medium provides the physical connection between networked computers
218
True or False:
A VPN concentrator is a mechanism for distributing incoming network traffic among multiple servers.
False
219
What is a collision domain?
A group of devices connected so that when two devices transmit at exactly the same time, a data collision occurs
220
Which device provides the interface between a LAN and a WAN?
CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)
221
Which two devices enable user on the private networks to access the internet by substituting a registered IP address for their private IP addresses?
NAT Router and Proxy Server
222
True or false, 110 blocks are used for telephone cable installations, not for data networking
false
223
Which two remote access connection technologies support simultaneous transmission of voice and data traffic over the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN)?
DSL and ISDN
224
What two types of WAN connections use Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet(PPPoE)?
DSL and Cable broadband
225
What is a multiport Bridge also called?
A Switch
226
What is the maximum data transfer rate on a storage area network (SAN)?
128Gbps
227
Which WAN technology uses Analog signaling?
PSTN (Public Switched Telephone Network)
228
What is the function of a demarcation point or demarc?
The place where an outside service enters the building
(The point where the responsibility of the network admin ends. ISP is responsible for issues past the demarc)
229
True or False:
The PPPoE connection process consists of two stages: negotiation and establishment
False
230
True or False:
PPPoE requires a server on the Ethernet Network that functions as the middleman between the LAN and the Internet service provider's network .
True
231
Which technology can maintain an account database employed by multiple remote access servers to authenticate remote users?
Radius Server
232
Which two coaxial cable types are still in general use?
RG-6 and RG-59
233
You can split a large switched LAN into multiple broadcast domains by creating VLANs in the switches and ________
installing routers on the network
234
What is a Modem?
A device that converts analog signals to digital signals and back again
235
What is not a type of bridge in a local area networking?
Routing
236
What does CIFS stand for?
Common Internet Files
237
What does NFS stand for?
Network File System
238
What does RDMA stand for?
Remote Direct Memory Access
239
What is RDMA (Remote Direct Memory Access) used for?
Provides High speed network data transfers
240
What application layer protocols are used by NAS (Network Attached Storage) devices to SERVE shared files to clients on the network?
CIFS, NFS, HTTP
241
What can a firewall that supports stateful packet inspection do?
scan transort layer header fields for evidence of SYN floods
242
What is the maximum transmission speed that a T4 line offers?
274.176 Mbps
243
What connector types are associated with Ethernet network?
RJ45,BNC, and N-Type
244
A N-Type connector is associated with what type of network?
Ethernet network
245
a F-Type connector is associated with what type of installtion?
Cable tv installtion
246
Which OSI layer protocols are included in a fibre channel packet?
None. Fibre has unique standards that does not correspond to OSI
247
What 3 protocols are included in an iSCSI packet?
Ethernet, TCP, IP
248
At which layer of the OSI reference model do proxy servers operate?
Application Layer
249
Which WAN (wide are network) technology is both a packet-switched and a circuit-switched service?
ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
250
What does ATM stand for?
asynchronous transfer mode
251
What type of device is required at the customer site to allow both voice and data traffic to be transmitted across the same DSL connection?
a splitter
252
_____ are ____ layer devices that connect network devices in a star topology.
Hubs, physical
253
What is not a type of bridge in local area networking?
Routing
254
Which wide area network (WAN) technology is also called 2B+D?
ISDN&BRI
Integrated Services Digital Network & Basic Rate Interference
255
What are 3 Fiber Optical Cable Connectors?
ST, LC, and MTRJ
256
Which protocol uses jumbo frames to increase performance levels on storage area networks?
Ethernet
257
A circuit switched connection that does not use packets or cells is known as a?
T-1
258
Which WAN service uses uniformly sized, 53 byte packets called cells?
ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
259
What two constructs provide the same function for communication?
VoIP gateway and SIP trunk
260
What is the process by which the STP on a switch evaluates the paths through the network and places each port in the forwarding or blocking state?
Convergence
261
Which PPP authentication protocol allows users to utilize smartcards, finger prints, scanners, usernames, and passwords to authenticate?
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
262
Class __ Hubs perform signal translation
one
263
Class __ Hubs do not perform signal translation
two
264
What are class 3 and 4 hubs used for?
Nothing, they dont exist
265
Which protocol allows computers on a home network to create individual connections to remote services via a broadband router?
PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet)
266
What two terms refer to the area between two firewalls where web and email servers are found?
DMZ, and Perimeter Network
267
Which device enables administrators of enterprise wireless networks to manage multiple access points from a central location?
Wireless Controller
268
Which device provides authentication services for multiple remote access servers?
RADIUS Server
269
What does CAPWAP stand for?
Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points protocol
270
What does LWAPP stand for?
Lightweight Access Point Protocol
271
Which two protocols use wireless controllers to communicate with the access points on a WLAN?
LWAPP and CAPWAP
272
Which twisted pair cable types can be used to construct a 10gBase-T network with 100-meter segments?
Cat6a and Cat7
273
What two types of services are offered by Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
BRI and PRI
274
What does BRI stand for?
Basic Rate Interface
275
What does PRI stand for?
Primary Rate Interface
276
How many separate channels are provided by a T-3 lease line connection?
672 channels
277
How many separate channels are provided by a t-1 line connection?
24
278
How many t-1 connections would equal a single t-3 connection?
28
279
What two types of circuits offer frame relay services?
PVC and SVC
280
What does SVC stand for?
Switched Virtual Circuit
281
What does PVC stand for?
Permanent Virtual Circuit
282
Which virtual networking component has media access control (MAC) address assigned to them on an unmanaged network?
Virtual NICs (Network Interface Card)
283
True or False:
NAS provides File-level storage access, whereas SAN provides block-level storage access.
True
284
True or False:
NAS devices typically provide a file system, whereas SAN devices do not.
True
285
You can create VLANs on which virtual networking component?
Virtual Switch
286
True or False:
Bridges and switches are data link layer devices that use media access control (MAC) address to forward frames.
True
287
True or False:
Each port on a bridge or switch defines a separate broadcast domain.
False
288
Which storage area network (SAN) technology that supercomputers primarily use to provide a high speed, low latency connection between processors and storage systems?
Infini-Band
289
What does DOCSIS stand for?
Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification
290
A specification called DOCSIS applies to which internet connection type?
Cable Broadband
291
Which 3 layers of the OSI model does a Multilayer Switch operate at?
Physical, Datalink, and network
292
Which 1-Gigabit Ethernet specification calls for the use of copper cable?
10GBase-CX4
293
What problems are prevented when using STP?
Bridging loops and Late collisions
294
What issue does Bridging loops create?
packets that circulate endlessly around the network
295
What is a broadcast storm?
The result of bridging loops. or
When a bridging loop occurs it floods the network with endless circulating packets.
296
What is the European equivalent of the Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) standard in the US?
SDH Synchronous Digitial Hierarchy
297
What is the function of a switch?
a multiport bridge
298
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the Jumbo Frame capability?
Data Link
299
What DSL technology is based on line conditions to adjust its transmission speed?
RADSL
300
What does RADSL stand for?
Rate Adaptive Digital Subscriber Line
301
What are the layers of the Fibre Channel standard?
FC-0 - FC-4
302
What two elements are used to identify devices in a particular VLAN?
Hardware Addresses and Switch Port Numbers
