Networking 20% Flashcards

(51 cards)

1
Q

A technician is installing a network interface card in a desktop computer. Which of the following connectors should the technician use to connect the card to the computer’s motherboard?
A. PCIe

B. AGP

C. USB

D. IDE

A

A. PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express)

Explanation: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is the most common and modern slot used for expansion cards, such as network interface cards (NICs), graphics cards, and storage controllers. PCIe slots come in different sizes (x1, x4, x8, x16) and provide high-speed data transfer between the card and the motherboard. Most recent desktop computers have PCIe slots, making it the right choice for installing a NIC.

Incorrect choices:

B. AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port): AGP is an old slot used mainly for graphics cards. It has been replaced by PCIe in modern systems and isn’t suitable for NICs.

C. USB (Universal Serial Bus): USB ports are for external devices like keyboards, mice, and storage devices. While some network devices use USB, internal NICs don’t connect via USB.

D. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics): IDE is an outdated interface used for connecting storage devices like hard drives and CD/DVD drives. It’s not used for expansion cards like NICs.

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2
Q

Which of the following is used to define a range of IP addresses available to assign using DHCP?

A. Scope

B. Address

C. Lease

D. Reservation

A

A. Scope

Explanation: In DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), a “scope” is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server assigns to devices on the network. When a device requests an IP, the DHCP server picks one from this scope and assigns it for a set time (lease period). Scopes can also include additional settings like subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.

Incorrect choices:

B. Address: An address refers to a single IP, not the entire range (scope) that the DHCP server uses to assign IPs.

C. Lease: A lease is the time period a device is allowed to use an assigned IP, not the range of IPs.

D. Reservation: A reservation ensures a device always gets the same IP based on its MAC address but doesn’t define the full range of available IPs like a scope does.

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3
Q

Which of the following should the label on a network jack faceplate refer to?

A. MAC address

B. Patch panel port

C. Switch port in use

D. VLAN identification

A

B. Patch panel port

Explanation: The label on a network jack faceplate helps identify the corresponding port on the patch panel where the network cable is terminated. This makes it easy for network administrators to track the physical location of network connections, aiding in troubleshooting and maintenance tasks by quickly matching network jacks to their connections on the patch panel.

Incorrect choices:

A. MAC address: MAC addresses are unique to network devices (e.g., NICs) but are not relevant to the labeling of network jacks on faceplates.

C. Switch port in use: The switch port is part of network configuration documentation but isn’t typically labeled directly on the network jack faceplate.

D. VLAN identification: VLANs are logical network segments managed in switch settings, not something that would be physically labeled on network jack faceplates.

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4
Q

An administrator is using an RJ45 connector to terminate a network cable. Which of the following cables is the administrator terminating?

A. Optical

B. Serial

C. Cat 6

D. USB

A

C. Cat 6 cable

Explanation: RJ45 connectors are primarily used for Ethernet cables, including Cat 6 cables, which are designed for high-speed data transmission in network infrastructure. Terminating a Cat 6 cable with an RJ45 connector enables devices like computers, routers, and switches to connect to a local area network (LAN).

Incorrect choices:

A. Optical: Optical cables use light for data transmission and terminate with connectors like SC, LC, or ST—not RJ45.

B. Serial: Serial cables transmit data using DB9 or DB25 connectors, not RJ45, and are used for different communication purposes.

D. USB: USB cables terminate with USB connectors (Type-A, Type-B, or Type-C), not RJ45, and are used for peripherals like printers and keyboards.

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5
Q

Numerous vendors implemented a feature in routers and access points that allows for automatically moving wireless clients between 2.4GHz and 5.0GHz frequencies based on user density and the distance from the wireless equipment. Which of the following describes this feature?

A. Channel selection

B. Near-field communication

C. Propagation

D. Band steering

A

D. Band steering

Explanation: Band steering is a wireless networking feature that optimizes network performance by directing client devices to the most appropriate frequency band (2.4GHz or 5.0GHz). It helps balance network load by pushing compatible devices to the 5.0GHz band, which typically offers better performance, leaving the 2.4GHz band for devices that can only use that frequency. This results in improved overall efficiency and reduced congestion on the 2.4GHz band.

Incorrect choices:

A. Channel selection: This refers to choosing the best channel within a frequency band to reduce interference. It optimizes performance within a band but doesn’t manage client distribution across different frequency bands.

B. Near-field communication (NFC): NFC is a short-range wireless technology used for close-proximity interactions, such as contactless payments. It is unrelated to frequency band management in Wi-Fi networks.

C. Propagation: This describes how wireless signals move through a medium, such as air. It influences signal range and strength but does not manage which frequency band devices should connect to.

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6
Q

Which of the following protocols is the most appropriate to use for inventory tracking in a small warehouse?

A. Near-field communication

B. Radio-frequency identification

C. Bluetooth

D. 802.11

A

B. Radio-frequency identification (RFID)

Explanation: RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) technology uses radio waves to wirelessly identify and track objects or individuals. It is widely used for inventory tracking in warehouses because it allows for the quick and accurate identification of items without the need for line-of-sight scanning. RFID readers, placed strategically around the warehouse, can detect RFID tags on items, providing real-time tracking and more efficient inventory management.

Incorrect choices:

A. Near-field communication (NFC): NFC is used for short-range communication within a few centimeters, making it unsuitable for large-scale inventory tracking in warehouses.

C. Bluetooth: Bluetooth is limited to short distances and is less scalable for large warehouse environments compared to RFID.

D. 802.11 (Wi-Fi): Wi-Fi provides wireless networking but is not designed specifically for inventory tracking like RFID.

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7
Q

An administrator wants to replace a fiber-optic cable. Which of the following should the administrator most likely use?

A. LC

B. Bayonet Neill Concelman

C. RJ45

D. DB9

A

A. LC

Explanation: LC (Lucent Connector) is a small, high-performance fiber-optic connector commonly used with both single-mode and multimode fiber-optic cables. Its compact size and easy-to-use design make it ideal for high-speed data transmission in networking environments such as data centers and telecommunications networks.

Incorrect choices:

B. Bayonet Neill Concelman (BNC): BNC connectors are for coaxial cables, not fiber-optic cables.

C. RJ45: RJ45 connectors are used for Ethernet (copper-based) cables, not fiber-optic cables.

D. DB9: DB9 connectors are used for serial communications, not fiber-optic applications.

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8
Q

Which of the following allows a switch to be divided into separate logical networks?

a. VLAN

b. SSL

c. VPN

d. NAT

e. RADIUS

A

a. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

Explanation: VLANs allow a switch to be divided into separate logical networks, enabling network segmentation. This segmentation improves security and traffic management by isolating broadcast domains within the same physical switch. Each VLAN can function as a distinct network, even if the devices are physically connected to the same switch.

Incorrect choices:

B. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer): SSL is a protocol for establishing secure communications over a computer network, not for dividing networks.

C. VPN (Virtual Private Network): VPNs create secure connections over public networks but do not divide switches into logical networks.

D. NAT (Network Address Translation): NAT translates private IP addresses to a public IP address, allowing multiple devices on a local network to share a single public IP. It does not create separate logical networks within a switch.

E. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service): RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting for users accessing a network, but it does not segment or divide networks.

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9
Q

A technician needs to configure a printer for network communications. Which of the following must the technician configure? (Choose three.)

A. PCL

B. Dots per inch

C. Gateway

D. Subnet mask

E. MAC address

F. IMEI

G. IP address

H. Drivers

A

c. Gateway
d. Subnet mask
g. IP address

Correct Options:

c. Gateway: The gateway connects the printer to external networks, enabling communication beyond the local network.

d. Subnet mask: The subnet mask helps the printer identify its network segment and communicate with devices within that segment.

g. IP address: The IP address uniquely identifies the printer on the network, allowing it to communicate with other devices.

Incorrect Options:

a. PCL: PCL is a page description language for formatting print jobs, not related to network configuration.

b. Dots per inch (DPI): DPI measures print resolution, affecting print quality, not network communications.

e. MAC address: The MAC address identifies network interfaces but typically doesn’t need to be configured for basic printer setup.

f. IMEI: IMEI is specific to mobile devices and not applicable to printers.

h. Drivers: Drivers enable printing from computers but are not involved in configuring the printer’s network settings.

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10
Q

A technician is replacing all RJ45 cables in a customer environment. Which of the following are the BEST tools to execute the task? (Choose two.)

A. Optical fiber tester

B. Scissors

C. Cable tester

D. Crimper

E. Coaxial cable

F. Screwdriver

A

c. Cable tester

d. Crimper

Correct Options:

c. Cable tester: This tool verifies the integrity of RJ45 cables, ensuring proper termination and identifying wiring faults.

d. Crimper: Used for attaching RJ45 connectors to Ethernet cables, the crimper is essential for proper cable termination.

Incorrect Options:

a. Optical fiber tester: This tester is designed for optical fiber cables and is not applicable to RJ45 copper cables.

b. Scissors: While scissors can cut cables, they lack precision for terminating or testing RJ45 connections.

e. Coaxial cable: Coaxial cables are used for different applications (e.g., television) and are not relevant for Ethernet connections like RJ45 cables.

f. Screwdriver: A general tool that may be useful for securing equipment but not specifically for terminating or testing RJ45 cables.

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11
Q

Which of the following standard ports should be open to allow a successful RDP connection?

A. 53

B. 443

C. 445

D. 3389

A

d. 3389

The reasoning is that 3389 is the port number that corresponds to the RDP protocol.

Incorrect Options:

Port 53 is used for DNS

Port 443 is used for HTTPS

Port 445 is used for SMB

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12
Q

Which of the following mobile phone technologies would allow the user to complete transactions?

A. GSM

B. MFA

C. PRL

D. NFC

A

D. NFC (Near Field Communication)

NFC technology allows for secure, contactless communication between devices like smartphones and payment terminals. This enables users to complete transactions by simply tapping their phone against the payment terminal, eliminating the need for physical credit or debit cards.

Incorrect Options:

A. GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications): GSM is for mobile voice and data communication, not for contactless transactions.

B. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication): MFA is a security method requiring multiple verification steps, not specifically a technology for mobile transactions.

C. PRL (Preferred Roaming List): PRL guides a device on network connections when roaming but is unrelated to completing purchases.

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13
Q

A home user has purchased a subscription for a service that blocks malicious sites by preventing them from resolving correctly.

Which of the following settings MOST likely needs to be changed on the user’s router to enable this functionality?

A. DNS server

B. Port forwarding

C. Perimeter network

D. Universal PnP

E. DHCP server

A

a. DNS server

Correct Answer:

DNS (Domain Name System): DNS translates domain names into IP addresses. By changing the router’s DNS settings to a service that blocks malicious sites, the router can prevent access to those sites by not resolving their domain names.

Incorrect Options:

B. Port forwarding: This technique redirects specific ports to allow external access to services on a private network, but it does not block malicious sites.

C. Perimeter network: This is a security measure used to protect servers from external threats, not relevant for home users looking to block malicious sites.

D. Universal Plug and Play (UPnP): UPnP allows automatic device communication on a network, but it does not help in blocking access to malicious websites.

E. DHCP server: While DHCP assigns IP addresses and configurations, altering its settings does not directly block malicious sites.

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14
Q

A technician set up a new access point and has noticed significant latency on the selected channel. Which of the following tools can assist with locating the BEST channel to use?

Wi-Fi analyzer

Netstat

Net use

Traceroute

Network tap

A

a. Wi-Fi analyzer

Correct Answer:

Wi-Fi Analyzer: This tool scans and analyzes surrounding Wi-Fi networks, assessing signal strength, channel utilization, and interference. It helps identify the least congested channels for optimizing the performance of a new access point.

Incorrect Options:

B. Netstat: A command-line tool for displaying network connections and statistics, but not for analyzing Wi-Fi channels or diagnosing latency issues.

C. Net use: A command-line tool for connecting or disconnecting from shared resources like network drives, not relevant to Wi-Fi optimization.

D. Traceroute: A tool for tracing packet routes between devices, useful for routing diagnostics but not for finding optimal Wi-Fi channels.

E. Network Tap: A physical device for monitoring network traffic, which does not assist in selecting the best Wi-Fi channel.

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15
Q

A technician needs to recommend an internet connection for a customer who travels around the world and wants to have connectivity while visiting remote camping locations. Some of the locations the customer visits have limited or unreliable cellular service.

Which of the following connection types should the technician recommend?

Satellite

DSL

Fiber

Hotspot

A

a. Satellite

Correct Answer:

Satellite Internet: This is the best option for remote areas where traditional wired connections like DSL or Fiber are unavailable, and cellular service is limited. It uses communication satellites to provide internet access in locations where other options are not feasible.

Incorrect Options:

B. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line): Requires a physical telephone line and is usually limited to areas with existing infrastructure, which may not be present in remote camping locations.

C. Fiber: Provides fast and reliable internet but requires extensive infrastructure, making it unlikely to be available in remote areas.

D. Hotspot: Depends on cellular data, which may be unreliable in remote areas with limited coverage, and hotspot signals might not reach all camping locations.

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16
Q

Which of the following networking devices will MOST likely need to be installed in between the ISP and the LAN in a SOHO environment?

A. Switch

B. Firewall

C. Cable modem

D. Router

E. Access point

A

D. Router

Explanation: A router is a networking device that connects multiple networks together, such as the Internet (provided by the ISP) and the Local Area Network (LAN) within the SOHO environment. It performs the task of routing data packets between these networks, allowing devices within the LAN to communicate with devices on the Internet. Additionally, routers provide network address translation (NAT), which allows multiple devices within the LAN to share a single public IP address provided by the ISP.

Incorrect Answer:

A. Switch: Connects devices within LAN, not ISP.

B. Firewall: Monitors and controls network traffic, typically within LAN.

C. Cable modem: Connects to ISP, not typically between ISP and LAN.

E. Access point: Provides wireless connectivity within LAN, not between ISP and LAN.

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17
Q

A technician is working on a desktop PC and wants to verify its NIC is functional.
Which of the following should the technician use?

A. Cable tester

B. Loopback plug

C. Toner probe

D. Network tap

A

B. Loopback plug

Explanation: A loopback plug is a device that allows the testing of network interface functionality by simulating the transmission and reception of data within the same device. When a loopback plug is connected to a network interface, it sends data out through one port and receives it back through another, allowing the technician to verify the NIC’s functionality.

Incorrect Answers:

A. Cable tester: Tests cable integrity, not NIC functionality.

C. Toner probe: Identifies cables, not for NIC testing.

D. Network tap: Monitors network traffic, not for NIC testing.

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18
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a classroom projector that shuts down after fifteen minutes of use.

Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue?

A. Replace the video input cable.

B. Change the bulb.

C. Clean the air filter.

D. Swap the power cord.

A

C. Clean the air filter.

Explanation: Projectors often have internal air filters to prevent dust and debris from accumulating inside the device, which can cause overheating and shutdowns. If the air filter becomes clogged with dust, it can restrict airflow, leading to overheating and automatic shutdowns. By cleaning the air filter, the technician can improve airflow and prevent overheating, thus resolving the issue of the projector shutting down.

Incorrect Answer:

A. Replace the video input cable: Unlikely to address overheating issue.

B. Change the bulb: Not likely the cause of the shutdown.

D. Swap the power cord: Unlikely to resolve overheating problem.

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19
Q

Which of the following provides a client device with an IP address?

A. DNS

B. DHCP

C. IPSec

D. SMB

A

B. DHCP

Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses to client devices within a network. When a client device connects to a network, it sends a DHCP request, and a DHCP server responds by assigning it an IP address along with other network configuration parameters such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses. This dynamic allocation of IP addresses simplifies network administration and ensures efficient use of available IP addresses within the network.

A. DNS (Domain Name System): Translates domain names into IP addresses but does not assign IP addresses to client devices.

B. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol): Automatically assigns IP addresses to client devices within a network.

C. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security): Provides security for IP communications but does not assign IP addresses.

D. SMB (Server Message Block): Network file sharing protocol, not involved in IP address assignment.

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20
Q

Which of the following describes the main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards?

A. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A.

B. The green and the orange cables are interchanged.

C. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables.

D. The standards use different cable connectors.

A

B. The green and the orange cables are interchanged.

T568A and T568B are wiring standards for Ethernet cables, differing only in the order of green and orange wire pairs in the RJ45 connector.

Incorrect choices:

A. T568B has a higher data rate than T568A: Both standards support the same data rates; they don’t impact speed.

C. T568A is for blue cables, and T568B is for green: Cable color isn’t tied to these standards; the color-coding applies to wire arrangement only.

D. They use different connectors: Both use RJ45 connectors; the difference is only in wire order, not the connector type.

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21
Q

Which of the following wireless technologies has the MOST range and wireless throughput?

A. 802.11ac

B. 802.11ax

C. 802.11b/g/n

D. 802.11g

A

B. 802.11ax

802.11ax, or Wi-Fi 6, provides the best range and wireless throughput among the options. It improves upon 802.11ac with higher data rates, increased network capacity, and better performance in crowded environments, utilizing technologies like MU-MIMO and OFDMA.

Incorrect choices:

A. 802.11ac:
While Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac) offers high throughput, it doesn’t match the range or throughput improvements of 802.11ax.

C. 802.11b/g/n:
These older standards provide lower data rates and less range compared to 802.11ax.

D. 802.11g:
This older standard offers better rates than 802.11b but still falls short of the range and throughput of 802.11ax.

22
Q

A network technician has been tasked with creating a patch cable. The RJ45 connectors will not stay attached to the cable.

Which of the following tools is needed to fix this issue?

A. Cable tester

B. Crimper

C. Punchdown tool

D. Loopback plug

A

B. Crimper

A crimper is the correct tool for securely attaching RJ45 connectors to Ethernet cables. If connectors are coming loose, they likely haven’t been properly crimped. Using a crimper ensures the connectors are tightly secured.

Here’s why other options are less relevant:

Cable tester: Tests cable integrity but doesn’t attach or secure connectors.

Punchdown tool: Used for terminating cables on punchdown blocks, not for attaching RJ45 connectors.

Loopback plug: Tests network ports but isn’t used for attaching connectors to cables.

23
Q

A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput. Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?

Cat 5

Cat 5e

Cat 6

Cat 6a

A

C. Cat 6

Cat 6 (Category 6) cables support Gigabit Ethernet (up to 1Gbps) and can handle 10Gbps Ethernet over shorter distances. While Cat 6a cables are generally recommended for reliable 10Gbps performance over longer distances due to their enhanced specifications, Cat 6 cables remain suitable for shorter runs within the standard’s limits.

Now, let’s briefly review why the other options are incorrect:

A. Cat 5: Cat 5 cables are not designed for 10Gbps Ethernet and are limited to Fast Ethernet (up to 100Mbps) or Gigabit Ethernet (up to 1Gbps).

B. Cat 5e: Cat 5e cables can support Gigabit Ethernet but may not reliably handle 10Gbps due to bandwidth limitations.

D. Cat 6a: While Cat 6a cables are better for 10Gbps over longer distances, Cat 6 cables can also meet the minimum requirements for 10Gbps, particularly for shorter distances.

24
Q

A technician is implementing a SOHO wireless solution with three access points.

Which of the following actions would avoid high latency?

A. Enabling and configuring a 5GHz antenna

B. Configuring separate IP ranges

C. Enabling multiple SSIDs

D. Configuring all devices with different channels

A

D. Configuring all devices with different channels

To reduce high latency in a SOHO wireless setup with multiple access points, it’s crucial to minimize interference by configuring each access point with different channels. This prevents overlap and ensures smoother communication for wireless clients.

Here’s why the other options are incorrect:

A. Enabling and configuring a 5GHz antenna: While it can improve performance, it won’t resolve latency issues caused by overlapping channels.

B. Configuring separate IP ranges: This helps manage resources but doesn’t address wireless latency directly.

C. Enabling multiple SSIDs: This allows for network flexibility but doesn’t affect latency unless interference is managed.

25
Which of the following network devices would an administrator use to distribute traffic evenly throughout multiple nodes? A. Load balancer B. Bridge C. Proxy server D. Switch E. Firewall
A. Load balancer ## Footnote A load balancer is designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers, optimizing resource utilization, improving responsiveness, and enhancing reliability and scalability. Here’s why the other options are incorrect: B. Bridge: A bridge connects network segments and forwards traffic based on MAC addresses, but it does not distribute traffic or balance loads. C. Proxy server: A proxy server forwards client requests to servers and responses back, optimizing traffic but not specifically designed for load balancing. D. Switch: A switch connects devices within a LAN and forwards data packets based on MAC addresses, but it does not handle load balancing. E. Firewall: A firewall monitors and controls network traffic for security purposes, but it does not perform load balancing functions.
26
Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network? A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. B. Switches compress data, while hubs send uncompressed data. C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network, while hubs receive data and do not route. D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form.
A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. ## Footnote The key difference between hubs and switches lies in their data handling: Switches: Create individual collision domains for each port, sending data only to the intended recipient. This reduces congestion and improves performance. Hubs: Broadcast incoming data to all connected devices, leading to inefficient bandwidth use and potential congestion. Here’s why the other options are incorrect: B. Switches compress data, while hubs do not: Neither device compresses data; both focus on forwarding. C. Switches route data to all computers, while hubs do not: Switches forward data based on MAC addresses; hubs broadcast to all devices. D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send original data: Neither device manipulates data; both operate at Layer 2, focusing on forwarding packets based on MAC addresses.
27
A technician is monitoring all outbound traffic in a SOHO. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution to monitor the traffic? Spectrum analyzer Network tap Loopback plug Toner probe
B. Network tap ## Footnote A network tap is the most cost-effective way to monitor outbound traffic in a SOHO environment. It’s a passive device that copies data as it flows, allowing for real-time traffic analysis without affecting the original data. Incorrect Options: A. Spectrum analyzer: Primarily used to analyze wireless signals and interference, not for monitoring network traffic. C. Loopback plug: Tests network connectivity but doesn’t monitor outbound traffic. D. Toner probe: Used to trace cables; it doesn’t monitor traffic.
28
A systems administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system's host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enable? 23 25 80 161
B. 25 ## Footnote SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses port 25 by default for sending email between servers. To allow SMTP traffic through a firewall, a systems administrator should enable port 25. Incorrect Options: A. Port 23: Used for Telnet, which is for remote terminal access, not email. C. Port 80: Used for HTTP, handling web traffic, not email. D. Port 161: Used for SNMP, focused on network management, not email.
29
Which of the following is an unsecure remote access protocol? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. SFTP D. Telnet
d. Telnet ## Footnote Telnet is an insecure protocol for remote access because it transmits data, including login credentials, in plain text, making it vulnerable to interception by malicious users. Why Other Options Are Secure: a. SSH (Secure Shell): Uses encryption to secure communication, making it suitable for secure remote access. b. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure): Encrypts data between a web server and browser using SSL/TLS, ensuring confidentiality and data integrity. c. SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol): Securely transfers files over SSH, providing encrypted file management as a secure alternative to FTP.
30
Which of the following are default ports for HTTP and HTTPS traffic? (Choose two.) A. 23 B. 25 C. 80 D. 143 E. 389 F. 443
C. 80 (HTTP) F. 443 (HTTPS) ## Footnote Explanation: HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) uses port 80 by default for web page data transmission, while HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) uses port 443. HTTPS encrypts data between the web server and browser for secure communication. Why Other Options Are Incorrect: A. 23: Used by the Telnet protocol for remote access, not related to HTTP or HTTPS. B. 25: Utilized by SMTP for sending emails, not associated with HTTP or HTTPS. D. 143: Used by IMAP for retrieving emails, not related to HTTP or HTTPS. E. 389: Used by LDAP for directory services access, not associated with HTTP or HTTPS.
31
A user reports limited or no connectivity on a laptop. A technician runs ipconfig /all with the following result: IPv4 connectivity...limited or none IPv4 address...169.254.254.1 subnet mask...255.255.0.0 default gateway... Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. DHCP failure B. ARP cache C. DNS resolution D. Duplicate IP address
A. DHCP failure ## Footnote When a device receives an IP address in the 169.254.x.x range with a 255.255.0.0 subnet mask, it means it couldn’t get an IP address from a DHCP server. This range is used by Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) to allow local connectivity when DHCP fails. Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: B. ARP cache: ARP issues map IPs to MAC addresses and don’t cause the device to assign a 169.254.x.x IP. C. DNS resolution: DNS issues affect domain name access but don’t lead to a 169.254.x.x address, which indicates a DHCP problem. D. Duplicate IP address: This would cause an IP conflict error, not a 169.254.x.x address assignment.
32
A technician configured a new SOHO router for a small business. The ISP gave the technician an IP address on the router's WAN port. Which of the following addresses did the technician MOST likely configure on the router? A. 10.1.50.30 B. 19.45.7.28 C. 169.254.168.10 D. 172.22.40.6
B. 19.45.7.28 ## Footnote The IP address 19.45.7.28 is a public IP, making it appropriate for a WAN connection provided by an ISP. Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: A. 10.1.50.30: This is a private IP (RFC 1918) typically used for LANs, not for WAN connections. C. 169.254.168.10: This APIPA address is self-assigned when DHCP fails, not used for WAN connections. D. 172.22.40.6: Another private IP range (RFC 1918) for LANs, unsuitable for WAN connections.
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An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in house. Which of the following cables should the company buy? A. Coaxial B. Plenum C. Cat 5e D. Fiber
A. Coaxial ## Footnote F-type connectors are commonly used with coaxial cables, which carry high-frequency signals for applications like cable TV and internet. Why Other Options Are Incorrect: B. Plenum: Plenum cables are used in air ducts for fire safety, not with F-type connectors. C. Cat 5e: Cat 5e cables are for Ethernet and use RJ-45 connectors, not F-type. D. Fiber: Fiber optic cables use connectors like SC, LC, or ST and are designed for data transmission using light, not F-type connectors.
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Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect one or more devices to the internet in a SOHO? A. Hub B. Ethernet gateway C. Wireless access point D. Router
D. Router ## Footnote In a SOHO environment, a router is typically used to connect devices to the internet. Routers forward data between the local network (LAN) and the internet (WAN) from the ISP. Other options explained: A. Hub: Connects multiple devices in a LAN but doesn’t support internet connectivity. It broadcasts data to all devices, making it inefficient for internet use. B. Ethernet gateway: This term is vague. A gateway connects networks, but just labeling a device as an "Ethernet gateway" lacks detail on internet connectivity. C. Wireless Access Point (WAP): Provides wireless connectivity within a network but doesn't connect directly to the internet. A router is still needed to link the LAN to the internet.
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Which of the following network types would be used in a server room to connect virtual servers to high-speed storage? A. WAN B. PAN C. MAN D. SAN
D. SAN ## Footnote A Storage Area Network (SAN) is ideal for connecting servers to high-speed storage in a server room. SANs provide block-level access, centralized storage management, scalability, and high performance, making them perfect for virtualized environments. Why other options aren’t correct: A. WAN: Connects networks over long distances but has higher latency and lower speeds than SANs, making it unsuitable for connecting servers to storage in a server room. B. PAN: Used for short-range personal device connections, not for server-to-storage connections. C. MAN: Connects networks within a city, but lacks the high-speed, low-latency performance required for server storage access.
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Which of the following network services allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address? A. DHCP B. LOAP C. UTM D. DNS
A. DHCP ## Footnote The correct answer is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol), which allows networked devices to obtain IP addresses from a DHCP server. When configured with DHCP reservation, devices can be assigned a specific IP address based on their MAC address, ensuring they always receive the same IP address. Here’s why the other options are incorrect: b. LOAP (Location-Based Authentication Protocol): This is not a widely recognized network service and does not relate to IP address assignment. c. UTM (Unified Threat Management): UTM refers to a security solution combining various security features, but it doesn’t handle IP address assignment. d. DNS (Domain Name System): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not assign static IP addresses to devices.
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Which of the following 802.11 standards supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies? A. 802.11a B. 802.11ax C. 802.11b D. 802.11g
B. 802.11ax ## Footnote The correct answer is 802.11ax, which is the latest Wi-Fi standard that supports multiple frequency bands, including 2.4GHz, 5GHz, and 6GHz. This makes it one of the most advanced and efficient wireless networking technologies, offering higher throughput and better overall performance. Here’s why the other options are incorrect: A. 802.11a: This standard only operates in the 5GHz frequency band and does not support 2.4GHz. C. 802.11b: This older standard operates solely in the 2.4GHz frequency band and does not support 5GHz. D. 802.11g: Like 802.11b, this standard operates exclusively in the 2.4GHz frequency band and does not support 5GHz.
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Which of the following options provides correct information about 2.4GHz and 5GHz wireless frequencies? (Choose two.) A. 2.4GHz has less interference. 5GHz transmits in lower speed. B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections. C. 2.4GHz has a higher data rate. 5GHz has 23 channels. D. 2.4GHz has 11 channels. 5GHz has no data interference. E. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth. F. 2.4GHz has a higher bandwidth. 5GHz has lower transmit power.
B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections. E. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth. ## Footnote 2.4GHz signals, due to their lower frequency, penetrate walls and solid objects more effectively and cover larger areas. This makes it ideal for environments with obstacles. 5GHz signals provide higher data rates because of their greater bandwidth, which supports faster speeds. However, they don’t penetrate walls as well and have a shorter range compared to 2.4GHz. Why Other Options Are Incorrect: A. Incorrect because 5GHz actually provides faster speeds, not slower. C. 2.4GHz generally has lower data rates than 5GHz, and the 5GHz band can support more than 23 channels, depending on the region. D. While 2.4GHz does have 11 channels, 5GHz can still experience interference, though typically less than 2.4GHz. F. 5GHz has higher bandwidth (not 2.4GHz), allowing faster data rates, and the transmit power varies by device and regulations.
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Which of the following is an email authentication method designed to detect email spoofing by attaching a digital signature to outgoing email? A. SPF B. DKIM C. DNS pointer D. MX records
B. DKIM ## Footnote DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) adds a digital signature to outgoing email headers to verify the sender and prevent spoofing. Incorrect options: ❌ A. SPF (sender policy fram Verifies if the sending server is authorized, but does not use digital signatures. ❌ C. DNS pointer Maps IP addresses to domain names (reverse DNS), not used for email authentication. ❌ D. MX records Direct where email should be delivered, not related to spoofing prevention.
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Which of the following best describes the concept of a DHCP lease? A. A definition of the scope of addresses to be assigned to a device on the network B. A reservation of an IP configuration for a device on the network C. A temporary assignment of an IP configuration to a device on the network D. A translation of network names to IP addresses for a device on the network
C. A temporary assignment of an IP configuration to a device on the network ## Footnote Correct answer: ✅ C. A temporary assignment of an IP configuration to a device on the network A DHCP lease is a temporary IP address assignment given to a device for a set period. It must be renewed periodically. Incorrect options: ❌ A. A definition of the scope of addresses to be assigned to a device on the network This describes a DHCP scope, not a lease. ❌ B. A reservation of an IP configuration for a device on the network This refers to a DHCP reservation, which ensures the device gets the same IP every time. ❌ D. A translation of network names to IP addresses for a device on the network This describes DNS, not DHCP.
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A technician is reviewing the following network settings for a workstation that is having trouble accessing the internet: IPv4 address:.................. 192.168.10.5 Netmask:................... .....255.255.255.0 Gateway:...................... ..192.168.1.1 Which of the following is causing the issue? A. Networking was not configured using DHCP. B. IPv6 should be used instead of IPv4. C. The netmask is wrong. D. The workstation has the incorrect gateway
D. The workstation has the incorrect gateway ## Footnote The IP address (192.168.10.5) is in a different subnet than the gateway (192.168.1.1) when using a /24 netmask (255.255.255.0). They must be in the same subnet for routing to work. Incorrect options: ❌ A. Networking was not configured using DHCP Manual configuration is fine if values are correct. The issue is the mismatch, not DHCP. ❌ B. IPv6 should be used instead of IPv4 IPv4 is still widely used. The issue isn't related to protocol version. ❌ C. The netmask is wrong The /24 netmask is correct for either 192.168.10.x or 192.168.1.x—just not across both.
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A user reports being unable to access the network. A help desk technician notices an APIPA on the user's workstation. Which of the following services should the technician investigate first? A. RADIUS B. DHCP C. AAA D. DNS
B. DHCP ## Footnote An APIPA address (169.254.x.x) means the system couldn’t reach a DHCP server to get an IP address. DHCP is the first service to check. Incorrect options: ❌ A. RADIUS Used for authentication, not for assigning IP addresses. ❌ C. AAA Also related to authentication and access control, not IP assignment. ❌ D. DNS Resolves names to IPs, but only works after a valid IP is assigned.
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A user purchased a retail router and would like to set up a private network. Which of the following network address ranges should the user configure? A. 170.50.0.0 to 170.50.255.255 B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 C. 224.0.0.0 to 224.255.255.255 D. 239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255
B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 ## Footnote This range is part of the private IP address space, suitable for setting up a private network behind a retail router. Incorrect options: ❌ A. 170.50.0.0 to 170.50.255.255 This is a public IP range, not designated for private use. ❌ C. 224.0.0.0 to 224.255.255.255 Reserved for multicast, not standard networking. ❌ D. 239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 Also used for administrative multicast, not private addressing.
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Which of the following best describes the primary function of a spam gateway? A. Serves as a repository for email routing logs B. Blocks unrequested ICMP packets from external networks C. Categorizes incoming network messages D. Mitigates DDoS attack
C. Categorizes incoming network messages ## Footnote A spam gateway is a specialized email security tool that acts as a filter for incoming and outgoing email traffic. Its primary function is to categorize and filter email messages, particularly identifying and blocking spam, phishing, and malicious emails before they reach the user's inbox. ❌ A. Serves as a repository for email routing logs This refers more to a mail server or log server, not a spam gateway's primary function. ❌ B. Blocks unrequested ICMP packets from external networks This is a firewall function, not related to spam or email filtering. ❌ D. Mitigates DDoS attacks DDoS mitigation is handled by firewalls or specialized DDoS protection services, not a spam gateway.
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A technician attempts to join a Windows client to a domain but receives the following error: An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed. The technician generates the display shown below utilizing ipconfig /all. Physical Address: 80-3F-6C-33-32-C5 IPv4 Address: 192.168.12.144 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.12.254 DNS Server: 127.0.0.1 Which of the following is the most likely reason for the error? A. DNS B. Physical address C. Subnet mask D. IPv4 address E. Default gateway
A. DNS | 127.0.0.1 = loopback address, hostname deals with DNS ## Footnote The error message says: "An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed." This indicates a DNS (Domain Name System) issue — the system cannot convert domain names (like the domain controller name) into IP addresses. From the ipconfig /all output: DNS Server: 127.0.0.1 This means the client is trying to use itself (localhost) as the DNS server. Unless this system is running its own DNS service (which is unlikely for a client computer), it will fail to resolve hostnames, including the domain controller's name, resulting in the error you're seeing. Why the other options are incorrect: ❌ B. Physical address: This is the MAC address — not related to name resolution or domain joining. ❌ C. Subnet mask: The subnet mask is standard and correct for a /24 network (255.255.255.0). No issue here. ❌ D. IPv4 address: 192.168.12.144 is a valid private IP address. ❌ E. Default gateway: The gateway is properly configured for the local subnet (192.168.12.254). It wouldn’t affect DNS resolution within the local network.
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A technician is installing a WAP in the company break room. The new access point should have a rating of higher than 50Mbps and minimal range to avoid interference with other access points. Which of the following 802.11 standards should the technician select? A. ac B. b C. g D. n
A. ac ## Footnote Correct Answer: A. ac ✅ A. ac – 802.11ac supports speeds well over 50Mbps (often exceeding 1Gbps) and operates primarily on the 5GHz band, which has shorter range and is less prone to interference, making it ideal for minimizing interference in a small space like a break room. ❌ B. b – 802.11b is outdated, operates at 2.4GHz, and supports speeds up to only 11Mbps, which is far below the requirement. ❌ C. g – 802.11g also uses 2.4GHz and supports speeds up to 54Mbps, but its range and susceptibility to interference make it a poor choice here. ❌ D. n – 802.11n supports both 2.4GHz and 5GHz and can go above 50Mbps, but it has a longer range, which increases the chance of interfering with other access points, making ac the better choice.
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A technician is configuring the BIOS of a new workstation. The machine will be used for data analytics, and the technician would like to maximize the performance of the CPU. Which of the following BIOS settings should the technician verify? A. Virtualization technology B. GPU settings C. BIOS update D. Hyperthreading
D. Hyperthreading ## Footnote ✅ D. Hyperthreading – This is a CPU feature that allows a single physical processor core to act like two logical cores, effectively improving performance in multithreaded tasks—perfect for data analytics, which often requires high processing throughput. ❌ A. Virtualization technology – This is used primarily for running virtual machines, not for enhancing raw CPU performance in analytics. ❌ B. GPU settings – GPU settings affect graphics performance, not CPU performance, and are less relevant for CPU-bound analytics tasks unless GPU acceleration is specifically used (not implied here). ❌ C. BIOS update – While important for stability and security, updating the BIOS is not a setting and does not directly maximize CPU performance.
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A technician is configuring a static WAN address on a SOHO router. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Con?gure UPnP on the WAN. B. Enable IPv6 on all LAN interfaces. C. Disable DHCP on the required port. D. Adjust the LAN subnet mask to 255.255.255.0
C. Disable DHCP on the required port ## Footnote To configure a static WAN IP, the technician needs to manually enter the IP address provided by the ISP instead of having the router automatically obtain it through DHCP. This requires disabling DHCP on the WAN interface so the static settings can be applied. A. ❌ Configure UPnP on the WAN UPnP is meant for internal device discovery and port forwarding—not WAN IP configuration—and enabling it on the WAN poses security risks. B. ❌ Enable IPv6 on all LAN interfaces This may be useful in IPv6 environments, but it has no effect on configuring a static IPv4 WAN address. C. ✅ Disable DHCP on the required port Correct. Disabling DHCP on the WAN port allows manual entry of a static IP address provided by the ISP. D. ❌ Adjust the LAN subnet mask to 255.255.255.0 This setting affects only the internal LAN network, not the WAN interface.
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A SOHO user's network printer has been without power for the last few days. After turning the printer back on, the user cannot connect to it. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
B. The printer has a dynamic IP address. ## Footnote Explanation: If a printer uses a dynamic IP address via DHCP and has been powered off for several days, its previously assigned IP may have expired or been reassigned to another device. When powered back on, the printer may get a new IP address, causing connection issues from devices still referencing the old one. A. ❌ The printer has a static IP address This would make it more reliable, not less. A static IP stays the same even after power cycles, so this is unlikely to be the issue. B. ✅ The printer has a dynamic IP address Correct. A dynamic IP could have changed after being off for days, making it inaccessible unless users update their connection settings. C. ❌ The printer has an APIPA APIPA (169.254.x.x) only happens when the printer can’t reach a DHCP server at all—not necessarily the issue here if DHCP is working. D. ❌ The printer has a public IP address Unlikely in a SOHO environment. Devices like printers are usually assigned private IPs within the LAN.
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Which of the following combinations of specifications and frequencies delivers the greatest speed and compatibility for IoT devices? A. A and 5GHz B. В and 2.4GHz C. G and 5GHz D. N and 2.4GHz
D. N and 2.4GHz ## Footnote ✅ D. N and 2.4GHz 802.11n offers higher speeds than earlier standards like b and g, and when combined with 2.4GHz, it provides better range and compatibility — both important for IoT devices, which often prioritize wide coverage and low power consumption over max speed. ❌ A. A and 5GHz 802.11a with 5GHz provides decent speed but poor range and weak penetration, which is not ideal for many IoT setups. ❌ B. B and 2.4GHz 802.11b is widely compatible but very slow (up to 11 Mbps), making it a poor choice for speed-sensitive IoT devices. ❌ C. G and 5GHz 802.11g only operates at 2.4GHz, so this pairing is technically incorrect and not a valid combination.
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A technician needs to assign an IP address to a Windows PC, but a network connection is unavailable. Which of the following tools would be best for the technician to use? A. DHCP B. TFTP C. APIPA D. DNS
C. APIPA ## Footnote ✅ C. APIPA APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a Windows feature that automatically assigns a self-generated IP address in the 169.254.x.x range when a DHCP server isn’t available. This allows limited local network communication without manual configuration. ❌ A. DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol requires a network connection to a DHCP server, which is not available in this scenario. ❌ B. TFTP Trivial File Transfer Protocol is used for transferring files (like firmware or configs), not for assigning IP addresses. ❌ D. DNS Domain Name System translates domain names to IP addresses; it does not assign IP addresses.