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00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES > NEURO > Flashcards

NEURO Flashcards

1
Q

Neurotransmitter that is Used in the neuromuscular junction, and both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system; triggers REMsleep

A
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2
Q

NT secreted by postganglionic sympathetic neurons

A
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3
Q

NT mainly secreted by the adrenal medulla; has greater B2effect than NE

A
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4
Q

NT Secreted by substantia nigra to fine tune movement and by the hypothalamus to decrease prolactin

A
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5
Q

NT that comes from tryptophan; low levels are associated with depression

A
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6
Q

Permeant gas, inhibitory NT, vasodilator

A
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7
Q
  • Main inhibitory NT of the spinal cord;
  • increases Cl· influx
A
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8
Q
  • Main inhibitory NT of the brain;
  • increases Cl· influx or K* efflux
A
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9
Q

Main excitatory NT of the brain; formed from reactive amination of alpha ketoglutarate

A
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10
Q

NT involved in slow VS fast pain

A
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11
Q

Cranial nerve for opening of eyelids, contraction of most EOMs, accommodation and pupillary constriction (miosis)

A
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12
Q

Cranial nerve for special sensation (taste) of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A
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13
Q

Cranial nerve for general sensation (e.g. pain) of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A
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14
Q

Cranial nerve for facial muscles

A

CN VII (Facial nerve)

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15
Q

Cranial nerve for facial sensation and muscles of mastication

A

CN V (Trigeminal nerve)

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16
Q

Headache pattern that is Highly characteristic of posterior fossa brain tumors

A

Vomiting that precedes headache

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17
Q

Dominant symptom in temporal (giant cell) arteritis

A

headache

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18
Q

Key pathway for pain in migraine

A

Trigeminovascular input from the meningeal vessels

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19
Q

Most disabling headache

A

migraine

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20
Q

Most effective drug classes in the treatment of migraine (3)

A
  • Anti-inflammatory agents,
  • 5-HT 1B/ 10 receptor agonists (triptans),
  • and dopamine receptor antagonists
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21
Q

Most efficacious of the triptans (2)

A

Rizatriptan and eletriptan

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22
Q

Core feature of cluster headache

A

Periodicity

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23
Q

Most satisfactory treatment in cluster headache

A

Administration of drugs to prevent cluster attacks until the bout is over

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24
Q

Most serious cause of secondary headache

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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25
Q

Classic headache associated with a brain tumor

A

Most evident in the morning and improves during the day

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26
Q

Preferred diagnostic test for any patient suspected of having a brain tumor, and should be performed with gadolinium contrast administration

A

cranial MRI

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27
Q

Glucocorticoid of choice for brain tumors because of its relatively low mineralocorticoid activity

A

Dexamethasone

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28
Q

Established risk factor for primary CNS lymphoma

A
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29
Q

exposure to ionizing radiation is the established risk factor for these 3 primary brain tumors

A
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30
Q

True or False. Primary brain tumors..
In adults: usually supratentorial
In children: usually infratentorial

A

True

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31
Q

Most common primary brain tumor of childhood

vs

Most common orimarv brain tumor overall

A

Grade I astrocytomas: pilocytic astrocytomas (WHO grade I)

vs

Meningiomas

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32
Q

This virus frequently plays an important role in the pathogenesis of HIV related primary CNS lymphoma

A

EBV

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33
Q

Most common malignant brain tumor of childhood

vs

Most common malignant brain tumor overall

A

Medulloblastomas

vs

Grade IV astrocytoma (Glioblastoma)

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34
Q

Meningiomas are most commonly located over the

A

Cerebral convexities

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35
Q

Main differential diagnosis for meningioma

A

dural metastasis

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36
Q

Most common schwannomas

A

Vestibular schwannomas or acoustic neuromas

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36
Q

Most common site of brain metastases

A

Gray matter-white matter junction

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37
Q

85% of all brain metastases are supratentorial. True or False

A

True

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38
Q

Most common sources of brain metastases
(2)

A
  • lung cancer
  • breast cancer
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39
Q

Malignancy with greatest propensity for brain metastasis, found in 80% of patients at autopsy

vs

Malignancies with propensity to metastasize to the dura and can mimic meningioma

A

melanoma

vs

prostate and breast cancer

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40
Q

Definitive method and often considered the gold standard to diagnose leptomeningeal metastases

A

Demonstration of tumor cells in CSF

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41
Q

Part of the spine affected most commonly in epidural metastasis

A

Thoracic spine, followed by the lumbar and then cervical spine

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42
Q

Presenting symptom of epidural metastasis in virtually all patients

A

back pain

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43
Q

Best test for epidural metastasis

A

MRI of the complete spine

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44
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for epidural metastasis

A

Complete removal of the mass, typically anterior to the spinal canal

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45
Q

Primary radiation oncology approach to brain metastases

A

Stereotactic radiosurgery

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46
Q

Most serious toxicity from radiotherapy as they are often irreversible

A

Late delayed toxicity

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47
Q

Second only to myelosuppression as dose-limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agents

A

neurotoxicity

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48
Q

Classic clinical triad of meningitis

A
  • Fever,
  • headache,
  • and nuchal rigidity
49
Q

Classic clinical triad of brain abscess

A
  • Headache,
  • fever,
  • focal neurologic deficit (present 50%)
50
Q

other term for non-encapsulated brain abscess

A

cerebritis

51
Q

Pathognomonic sign of meningeal irritation and is present when neck resists passive flexion

A

Nuchal rigidity (“stiff neck”)

52
Q

Most common form of suppurative CNS infection

A

bacterial meningitis

53
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in adults >20 years

A

Strep pneumoniae

54
Q

Important clue to diagnosis of meningococcal infection

A

Petechial or purpuric skin lesions

55
Q

Most common etiologic organisms of community acquired bacterial meningitis (2)

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • and Neisseria meningitidis
56
Q

Most common agents in acute viral meningitis

A

enteroviruses

56
Q

viruses that cause the ff:
* temporal encephalitis
* thalamic encephalitis
* subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A
57
Q

Most common symptom of brain abscess

A

headache

58
Q

Optimal therapy for brain abscess

A

combination of high dose parenteral antibiotics and surgical drainage

59
Q

Triad of Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome

A
60
Q

First clue of typical absence seizures

A

Daydreaming and a decline in school performance recognized by the teacher

60
Q

Electrophysiologic hallmark of typical absence seizures

A
61
Q

Main seizure type in 10% of all persons with epilepsy

A

GTCS

62
Q

Most common seizure type resulting from metabolic derangements

A

GTCS

63
Q

Most common syndrome associated with focal seizures with dyscognitive features

A

Mesial Temporal Lobe Epilepsy Syndrome

64
Q

Most common seizures arising in late infancy and early childhood

A

febrile seizures

65
Q

First goal in the approach to seizure

A

Determine if event was truly a seizure

66
Q

Drugs of choice approved for the initial treatment of focal seizures (4)

A
  • Carbamazepine (or a related drug, oxcarbazepine),
  • lamotrigine,
  • phenytoin,
  • and levetiracetam
67
Q

Best initial choice for the treatment of primary generalized tonic-clonic seizures (3 )

A
  • Valproic acid
  • Lamotrigine
  • Levetiracetam
68
Q

Most recurrences of seizure occur when

A

First 3 months after discontinuing therapy

69
Q

Refers to infarction following atherothrombotic lipohyalinotic occlusion of a small artery

A

Lacunar Infarction

70
Q

Decrease in cerebral blood flow to zero causes death of brain tissue within how many minutes

A

4-10 mins

71
Q

Most common cause of cerebral embolism overall

A

Nonrheumatic atrial fibrillation

72
Q

Most common source of artery to artery embolism

A

Carotid bifurcation atherosclerosis

73
Q

Most significant risk factor of stroke and TIA

A

hypertension

74
Q

Principal side effect of dipyridamole

A

headache

74
Q

Only antiplatelet agent that has proven effective for the acute treatment of ischemic stroke

A

aspirin

75
Q

Hallmark of top of the basilar artery occlusion

A

Sudden onset of bilateral signs, including ptosis, papillary asymmetry or lack of reaction to light and somnolence

76
Q

Endarterectomy for carotid is most beneficial atherosclerosis when performed within ____ weeks of symptom onset

A

Within 2 weeks of symptom onset (benefit is more pronounced in men>75 years)

77
Q

Gold standard for identifying and quantifying atherosclerotic stenoses of cerebral arteries

A

Conventional x-ray cerebral angiography

78
Q

Bleeding into subdural and epidural spaces is principally produced by

A

trauma

79
Q

Most common sites of hypertensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage (4)

A
  • Basal ganglia (especially putamen},
  • thalamus,
  • cerebellum,
  • pons
80
Q

Most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in the elderly

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

81
Q

Most cerebellar hematomas of this diameter will require surgical evacuation

A

> 3 cm diameter

82
Q

Most common cause of peripheral neuropathy

A

DM

83
Q

Most common diabetic mononeuropathies

A

Median neuropatby at the wrist and ulnar neuropathy at the elbow

84
Q

Most common cranial mononeuropathies in DM

A

Seventh nerve palsy,

followed by third nerve, sixth nerve, and, less frequently, fourth nerve palsies

85
Q

Most common cranial mononeuropathies in scleroderma

A

Trigeminal nerve

86
Q

Most common cranial nerve involved in sarcoidosis

A

Seventh nerve

87
Q

Most common mononeuropathies in uremia

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

88
Q

Most common form of peripheral neuropathy associated with HIV infection & usually seen in patients with AIDS

A

Distal symmetric polyneuropatby

89
Q

Most common associated malignancy with neuropathies

A

lung cancer

90
Q

Manifests as a rapidly evolving symmetric, ascending. areflexic motor paralysis with or without sensory disturbance, associated with Campylobacter jejuni found in undercooked chicken

A

Guillain Barre Syndrome (GBS)

91
Q

GBS is associated with what bacteria

A

Campylobacter jejuni

92
Q

Neuromuscular disorder characterized by weakness and fatigability of skeletal muscles, caused by a decrease in the number of available acetylcholine receptors (AChRs) at neuromuscular junctions due to an antibody-mediated autoimmune attack, associated with diplopia

A

Myasthenia Gravis (MG)

93
Q

Most common form of Parkinsonism

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

94
Q

Most common cause of Familial PD

A

Mutations of the LRRK2 gene

95
Q

Most common cause of secondary Parkinsonism

A

Dopamine blocking agents

96
Q

Most significant pathogenic mechanism in Parkinsonisrn

A

Protein misfolding and accumulation and mitochondrial dysfunction

97
Q

Mainstay of therapy for PD

A

Levodopa-carbidopa

98
Q

Major clinical effect of central-acting anticholinergic drugs

A

tremors

99
Q

Most widely used antidyskinesia agent in patients with advanced PD and the only oral agent that has been demonstrated in controlled studies to reduce dyskinesia

A

amantadine

100
Q

Most common cause of nursing home placement in Parkinson disease patients

A

dementia

101
Q

Most common movement disorder

A

essential tremor

102
Q

Standard drug therapies for essential tremors (2)

A

beta blockers or
primidone

103
Q

Most common forms of dystonia

A

focal dystonia

104
Q

Most commonly seen dystonia with neuroleptic drugs or after chronic levodopa treatment in PD patients

A

Drug-induced dystonia

105
Q

Most common systemic disorder that causes chorea

A

SLE

106
Q

Most common acute hyperkinetic drug reaction

vs

Most common subacute drug reaction

A

dystonia

vs

akathisia

107
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of Wilson’s disease

A

liver biopsy

108
Q

Most common psychogenic movement disorder

A

Tremor affecting tbe upper limbs

109
Q

Date-rape drug

A

flunitrazepam

110
Q

Antidote to benzodiazepine overdose

A

flumazenil

111
Q

Most frequently abused drug, causes Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome in overdose and delirium tremens in withdrawal

A

ethanol

112
Q

Used for prevention of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

thiamine

113
Q

first line drugs for GTCS (2)

A
113
Q

Used for treatment of alcohol withdrawal

A

Diazepam

114
Q

first line drugs for focal seizures (5)

A
115
Q

first line drugs for Typical Absence Seizures(3)

vs

Atypical Absence (3)

A
116
Q
A
117
Q
A

00000 IM PLATINUM BOARD CORRELATES (7 decks)

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