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Phase 1 JD > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What is sound?

A

Displacement of air particles following a sinusoidal pattern of compression and rarefaction.

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2
Q

What is the range of hearing for humans?

A

20Hz -> 20kHz.

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3
Q

What are the four components of the auditory system?

A
  • The outer ear.
  • The middle ear.
  • The inner ear.
  • Central auditory pathways.
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4
Q

What does the outer ear consist of?

A
  • Pinna.
  • Ear canal.
  • Tympanic memebrane.
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5
Q

What is the function of the pinna?

A
  • Shaped to gather sound waves and direct them into the ear canal.
  • Filters out lower frequency sounds.
  • Each pinna is unique.
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6
Q

What is the function of the ear canal?

A

Directs sound waves towards the tympanic membrane.

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7
Q

What happens when sound hits the tympanic membrane?

A

It vibrates like the surface of a drum and transmits the sound waves deeper into the ear towards the cochlea.

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8
Q

What does the middle ear consist of?

A
  • The ossicles.
  • The Eustachian tube.
  • Tensor tympani and stapedius muscles.
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9
Q

Describe the ossicles and how they function.

A
  • Malleus (hammer): rests against tympanic membrane, head of the ‘hammer’ connects to incus.
  • Incus (anvil): when struck by ‘hammer’ sound waves are transmitted to the stapes.
  • Stapes (stirrups): receives sound waves, transmitting them to oval window.
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10
Q

Discuss the importance of the superior and inferior openings of the auditory tube.

A
  • Superior: middle ear cavity.
  • Inferior: nasal cavity.
  • Therefore, connection of airflow from external environment and middle ear.
  • Vital for maintaining equal air pressure either side of the tympanic membrane, preventing pain and rupture.
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11
Q

What is the main role of the tensor tympani and stapedius muscles?

A

To dampen sound vibrations and reduce perceived volume.

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12
Q

What does the inner ear consist of?

A
  • The cochlea.
  • The vestibular system.
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13
Q

What does the cochlea allow us to perceive?

A

Sound.

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14
Q

What does the vestibular system consist of?

A
  • Semicircular canaks.
  • Utricle.
  • Saccule.
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15
Q

What does the vestibular system allow us to perceive? Which structures within it allow these perceptions?

A

Movement - semicircular canals.
Linear acceleration - utricle and saccule.

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16
Q

What are the 2 openings of the cochlea?

A

Round window and oval window.

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17
Q

What are the 3 components of the cochlea?

A
  • Scala vestibuli.
  • Scala media.
  • Scala tympani.
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18
Q

Which ionic fluid is found in the scala media?

A

Perilymph, high in K+.

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19
Q

Which ionic fluid is found in the scala vestibuli and scala tympani?

A

Endolymph, rich in Na+.

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20
Q

What affect on hearing can ion channel abnormalities have?

A

Can cause deafness.

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21
Q

Describe the basilar membrane.

A
  • Narrow and stiff at base.
  • Wide and floppy at apex.
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22
Q

What is tonotopy and which membrane has this feature?

A
  • The organisation of sound frequencies along an axis.
  • Basilar membrane.
  • High frequencies detected at base.
  • Low frequencies detected at apex.
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23
Q

Where is the organ of Corti?

A

In the scala media.

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24
Q

Are the basilar and tectorial membranes mobile or fixed in place?

A

Basilar - mobile.
Tectorial - fixed.

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25
Q

Discuss the importance and basic roles of the hair cells of the organ of Corti.

A

Inner hair cells - important, mechanical transduction.
Outer hair cells - helpful, fine tuning.

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26
Q

How do the inner hair cells perform mechanical transfuction?

A

Basilar membrane moves -> inner hair cells move -> activate attached cochlear nerve fibres -> cochlear nerve -> activated central auditory pathway.

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27
Q

What will occur upon loss of inner hair cells?

A

Deafness.

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28
Q

How do the outer hair cells fine tune sound?

A

Stiffen basilar membrane either side of the maximum stimulated inner hair cells, to focus on that sound and dampen others.

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29
Q

What will occur upon loss of outer hair cells?

A

Loss of sharpness of hearing.

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30
Q

What is interaural time difference?

A

One ear hearing a sound first, as that ear is closer to the sound.

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31
Q

What is interaural intensity difference?

A

One ear hearing a sound louder, as that ear is closer to the sound.

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32
Q

What type of hearing loss occurs with a defective outer/middle ear?

A

Conductive hearing loss.

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33
Q

What type of hearing loss occurs with a defective inner ear?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss.

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34
Q

What are neurons specialised for?

A

Electrical signalling.

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35
Q

When are neurons mainly formed?

A

During development, but small areas of the brain may continue making neurons e..g the hippocampus.

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36
Q

Which are formed first; neurons or glia?

A

Neurons.

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37
Q

What are the two forms of neuronal synapse?

A

Chemical and electrical.

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38
Q

How do chemical synapses work? Give an example.

A

Via neurotransmitters e.g. glutamate.

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39
Q

How do electrical synapses work? Give an example.

A

Via a direct flow of ions e.g. hypothalamus for hormone secretion.

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40
Q

Define neural plasticity.

A

Changes in neuronal/synaptic structure and function in response to neural activity. It is the basis of learning and memory.

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41
Q

Give an example of neuronal heterogenity.

A

Neocortex. 6 layers of varying cells/structures.

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42
Q

What is the key role of oligodendrocytes?

A

Myelinating cells of the CNS.

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43
Q

Describe the role of myelin.

A

Insulates axon segments, enabling rapid nerve conduction.

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44
Q

Describe the structure of the myelin sheaths.

A

Interrupted by nodes of Ranvier, to allow saltatory conduction (faster).

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45
Q

Describe microglia.

A

Resident immune cells of the CNS. Phagocytic.

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46
Q

Describe the origin of microglia.

A

Originate from yolk sac progenitors that migrate into the CNS, therefore closer to macrophages in origin.

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47
Q

Describe the varying structure of microglia in different states.

A

Resting state - highly ramified.
Activated - retract processes, become amoeboid.

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48
Q

Give 3 functions of microglia.

A
  • Immune surveillance.
  • Phagocytosis.
  • Synaptic plasticity.
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49
Q

Describe astrocytes.

A

Star-like cells, most numerous glial cells in the CNS, highly heterogenous.

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50
Q

Give 5 functions of astrocytes.

A
  • Define brain micro-architecture.
  • Envelope / tripartite synapses, buffer K+ etc.
  • Metabolic support.
  • Neurovascular coupling.
  • Proliferate in disease.
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51
Q

Name 3 specialised astrocytes.

A
  • Radial glia.
  • Bergmann glia.
  • Müller cells.
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52
Q

What are radial glia important for?

A

Brain development.

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53
Q

What are Bergmann glia important for?

A

Structure (cerebellum).

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54
Q

What are Müller cells important for?

A

Providing a scaffold for other cells to form on (retina).

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55
Q

Define motor neurone disease.

A

Adult-onset neurodegenerative disease, characterised by loss of upper and lower motor neurones.

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56
Q

Define multiple sclerosis.

A

Autoimmune demyelinating disease, where immune cells attack the myelin sheath of oligodendrocytes.

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57
Q

Give the 4 features of the blood-brain barrier.

A
  • Endothelial cell tight junctions.
  • Basement membrane.
  • Astrocyte end feet.
  • Pericytes.
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58
Q

Give 4 events that the blood-brain barrier is sensitive to.

A
  • Inflammation.
  • Hypertension.
  • Trauma.
  • Ischaemia.
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59
Q

Where can ependymal cells be found?

A

Lining ventricles and the central canal of the spinal cord.

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60
Q

What is the function of ependymal cells?

A
  • CSF production, flow and absorption.
  • Allowing solute exchange between nervous tissue and CSF.
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61
Q

Describe the structure of ependymal cells.

A
  • Epithelial-like.
  • Ciliated to facilitate flow,.
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62
Q

What is the main site of CSF production?

A

Choroid plexus.

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63
Q

How is the choroid plexus formed?

A

From modified ependymal cells.

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64
Q

What does the term myoclonus refer to? Give an example of a form of myoclonus.

A
  • A quick jerking movement that you cannot control.
  • E.g. the hiccups.
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65
Q

Describe the McGurk Effect.

A

Occurs when the auditory component of one sound is paired with the visual component of another sound, leading to the perception of a third sound.

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66
Q

What % of your brain is far?

A

60%.

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67
Q

What % are the neocortex and language centres of your brain?

A

76%.

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68
Q

What are the primitive reflexes?

A

The reflex actions arising from the brainstem that are typically present in childhood, but not in healthy or neurological intact adults, in response to particular stimuli.

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69
Q

What is the rooting reflex?

A

Turn head and mouth in direction of stroking of cheek.

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70
Q

What is the sucking reflex?

A

Sucking objects that touch the lips.

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71
Q

What is the moro (startle) reflex?

A

Back arches, legs and arms flung out and then brought back towards chest in hugging motion.

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72
Q

What is the grasping (palmar) reflex?

A

Grasping objects pressed against palms.

73
Q

What is the stepping reflex?

A

Mimicking walking when held upright.

74
Q

What is the babinski reflex?

A

Fanning toes when feet are stroked.

75
Q

What is the tonic-neck reflex?

A

Turning head to one side, extending arm and leg.

76
Q

How long are infants usually ambidextrous?

A

Until 3 years old.

77
Q

Define anencephaly.

A

A serious birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull, a form of NTD.

78
Q

Define lishencephaly.

A

A smooth brain, a neuronal migration disorder.

79
Q

Describe cystic periventricular leukomalacia and its rarity.

A
  • Death of oligodendrocytes -> virtually no plasticity,
  • Around 5% of babies less than 32 weeks.
80
Q

What can mutations of the PHOX2B gene affect?

A

The development of the key structures that regulate chemical control of breathing.

81
Q

Give 5 things neural crest cells form.

A
  • Sensory ganglia.
  • Schwann cells.
  • Adrenal medulla.
  • Meninges.
  • Dermis.
82
Q

Where can the tectum be found?

A

A region of the midbrain posterior to the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.

83
Q

What does the tectum contain, and what are these involved in?

A
  • Nuclei of the superior and inferior colliculi.
  • Colliculi process stimuli before they reach their corresponding primary processing centres.
  • Superior = visual stimuli.
  • Inferior = auditory stimuli.
84
Q

Where can the tegmentum be found?

A

Between the cerebral aqueduct and the pars compacta of the substantia nigra.

85
Q

What are the names of the two areas of the tegmentum named after colours?

A
  • The red nucleus.
  • The periaqueductal grey.
86
Q

Describe the substantia nigra.

A
  • Part of basal ganglia.
  • Two parts: pars compacta and pars reticular.
  • Pars compacta = basal ganglia input.
  • Pars reticular = basal ganglia output.
87
Q

What is the red nucleus involved in?

A

The co-ordination of movements.

88
Q

What is the periaqueductal grey involved in?

A

Pain processing.

89
Q

What is the limbic system made up of (not inclusive)?

A
  • Amygdala.
  • Hippocampus.
  • Fornix.
  • Cingulate gyrus.
  • Septum.
  • Mammillary body.
  • Hypothalamus.
  • Thalamus.
90
Q

What is the limbic system involved in?

A
  • Emotion.
  • Motivation.
  • Emotional associations within memory.
91
Q

Define a neuron.

A

The basic cellular unit of the nervous system.

92
Q

How many neurons are there in the average human brain?

A

~ 100 billion.

93
Q

How many synapses are there in the average human brain?

A

~ 150 trillion.

94
Q

Although neurons can be specialised, which 4 basic components do they all have?

A
  • Dendrites.
  • Cell body.
  • Axon.
  • Presynaptic terminals.
95
Q

Define axonal transmission.

A

Transmission of information from location A to location B.

96
Q

Define synaptic transmission.

A

Integration/processing of information and transmission between neurons.

97
Q

At rest, describe the neuron’s electric charge? Why is it this way?

A
  • Negative ~ -70mV.
  • Large organic proteins are the reason.
98
Q

Describe the permeability of the neuronal cell membrane. Give some examples of what can/cannot pass through.

A
  • Semi-permeable.
  • K+ and Cl- cross readily.
  • Na+ cross with difficulty.
99
Q

What are the 2 forces determining the distribution of charged ions?

A
  • Diffusion.
  • Electrostatic attraction/repulsion.
100
Q

Describe the locations of these ions at rest:
- Anions (proteins)
- Na+
- K+
- Cl-

A
  • Anions (proteins) = restricted to inside of cell.
  • Na+ = mostly outside cell.
  • K+ = mostly inside cell.
  • Cl- = mostly outside cell.
101
Q

Describe the sodium-potassium pump of a neuron.

A
  • Transports Na+ out of neuron.
  • Transports K+ into neuron.
  • 3 Na+ out for every 2 K+ in.
  • Requires energy supplied by ATP.
102
Q

What do excitatory neurotransmitters do to the cell membrane?

A
  • Depolarise it.
  • Increasing the chance of an action potential.
  • Causes an excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP).
103
Q

What do inhibitory neurotransmitters do to the cell membrane?

A
  • Hyperpolarise it.
  • Decreasing probability of an action potential being generated.
  • Causes an inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP).
104
Q

Explain the generation of an action potential via EPSPs.

A

Will only be generated if the membrane potential is depolarised beyond the threshold of excitation, which may take multiple triggers to create a big enough EPSP).

105
Q

What is the excitation threshold for an action potential to be generated?

A

~ - 60mV.

106
Q

Give 7 symptoms of multiple sclerosis.

A
  • Uncontrolled eye movements/seeing double.
  • Slurred speech.
  • Partial/complete paralysis.
  • Tremor.
  • Loss of co-ordination.
  • Weakness/fatigue.
  • Numbness/prickling/pain.
107
Q

Which groups of people get multiple sclerosis?

A
  • Young adults (20 -> 40).
  • Slightly more women then men.
108
Q

What is the affect of Novichok?

A
  • Disrupts synaptic neurotransmission for ACh, as it is an AChE inhibitor (stops breakdown of acetylcholine).
109
Q

How can the effects of Novichok be treated?

A

By using atropine (an ACh receptor blocker.

110
Q

What 2 processes prevent neurotransmitters remaining active in a synapse?

A
  • Enzymatic degradation.
  • Re-uptake.
111
Q

What does acetylcholine do?

A
  • It is a key neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction.
  • Activates muscles, not just skeletal for voluntary, but also the heart, respiratory muscles, GI tract, eye muscles, and muscles around blood vessels.
112
Q

What are the 5 fundamental processes of synaptic tranmission?

A
  1. Manufacture.
  2. Storage.
  3. Release.
  4. Interact with post-synaptic receptors.
  5. Inactivation.
113
Q

Name 3 ‘fast’ neurotransmitters.

A
  • Acetylcholine.
  • Glutamate.
  • Gamma-aminobutyric acid.
114
Q

Name 3 neuromodulators.

A
  • Dopamine.
  • Noradrenaline.
  • Serotonin.
115
Q

Name 4 things that can affect acetylcholine, and how they affect it.

A
  • Cigarettes (agonist).
  • Poison arrows (antagonist).
  • Spider toxins (release.
  • Nerve gas (blocks break down).
116
Q

What is gamma-aminobutyric acid?

A

The main inhibitory neurotransmitter.

117
Q

Name 3 things that affect gamma-aminobutyric acid, and how they affect it.

A
  • Anti-anxiety drugs (inhibit receptors).
  • Anticonvulsant drugs (inhibit receptors).
  • Anaesthetics (potentiate the effects).
118
Q

Name 3 things that affect dopamine, and how they affect it.

A
  • Antipsychotic drugs (block receptors).
  • Stimulants (increase release, block re-uptake).
  • Anti-Parkinson drugs (increases manufacture).
119
Q

Name 2 things that affect noradrenaline, and how they affect it.

A
  • Antidepressants (block re-uptake and block breakdown).
  • Stimulants (increases release and blocks re-uptake).
120
Q

Name 3 things that affect serotonin, and how they affect it.

A
  • Antidepressants (SSRI = re-uptake inhibitor).
  • Hallucinogens (receptor agonist).
  • Ecstasy (increases release, reduces re-uptake).
121
Q

What are 2 problems for drug design regarding neurotransmitters?

A
  • A region of the brain engaged in a particular function uses several neurotransmission systems.
  • Regions of the brain engaged in different function use the same neurotransmission systems.
122
Q

What are the 4 types of motor control?

A
  • Voluntary.
  • Goal-directed.
  • Habit.
  • Involuntary.
123
Q

In what manner to individual muscles fibres act?

A

In an ‘all or none’ way.

124
Q

What % of body weight does muscle take up?

A

~ 40%.

125
Q

What is the smallest muscle in the body?

A

Stapedius.

126
Q

What is the largest muscle in the body?

A

Gluteus maximus.

127
Q

What is the strongest muscle in the body?

A

Masseter.

128
Q

How does the number of muscle fibres an individual has vary?

A

Appears genetically determined, very little change with time or training.

129
Q

Describe the composition of a skeletal muscle.

A
  • Attached to a bone by a tendon.
  • Comprises several muscle fasciculi.
  • Each muscle fasciculus comprises several muscle fibres.
  • Each muscle fibres comprises of several myofibrils.
  • Myofibrils contain actin and myosin protein filaments.
130
Q

How do muscles contract?

A

When muscle fibre is depolarised, actin and myosin slide past each other - producing muscle contraction.

131
Q

Define a motor unit.

A

A single alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it innervates.

132
Q

How many muscle fibres are innervated by a motor neuron?

A

Different motor neurons innervate different numbers of muscle fibres.

133
Q

What is possible when motor neurons innervate fewer muscle fibres? Give 2 examples.

A

Fewer fibres = greater movement resolution.
E.g. finger tips and tongue.

134
Q

What does activation of an alpha motor neuron cause?

A

Depolarisation, contraction of all muscle fibres in that motor unit.

135
Q

What 2 things does the CNS need to know about muscles to be a good control system?

A
  • How much tension is on the muscle.
  • What is the length/stretch of the muscle.
136
Q

What senses tension on a muscle?

A

Golgi tendon organs.

137
Q

Under conditions of extreme tension, what can golgi tendon organs do?

A

Inhibit muscle fibres, via a circuit in the spinal cord, to prevent damage.

138
Q

What senses stretch of a muscle?

A

Muscle spindles.

139
Q

Describe muscle spindles.

A
  • Muscle sensory receptors.
    -Embedded within most muscles.
  • Composed of intrafusal fibres with sensory fibres coiled around them.
140
Q

How are intrafusal fibres innervated?

A

Separately to extrafusal, by gamma motor neurons.

141
Q

What is the simplest reflex?

A

The stress reflex.

142
Q

Why do cats always land on their feet?

A

The vestibular righting reflex.

143
Q

What does the “Myosin Cross-Bridge Cycle’ require?

A
  • ATP.
  • Calcium ions.
  • Magnesium ions.
144
Q

Which neurotransmitter triggers the Myosin Cross-Bridge cycle?

A

Acetylcholine.

145
Q

Why does rigor mortis occur?

A

As ATP is required for the Myosin Cross-Bridge cycle, and ATP is produced by oxidative metabolism - which stops after death -> muscle contraction and stiffness = rigor mortis.

146
Q

Discuss slow vs fast twitch muscle fibres, and fatigue.

A

Slow = fatigue resistant.
Some fast = fatigue after a while.
Some fast = fatigue rapidly.

147
Q

Where does motor command originate?

A

In motor cortex pyramidal cells (upper motor neurones).

148
Q

How accurate is the homoculus?

A
  • Oversimplification.
  • In reality, more complex and overlapping.
  • Few motor commands require isolated activation of a single motor unit.
149
Q

What 2 routes do the dorsolateral tracts contain?

A
  • A direct corticospinal route.
  • An indirect corticorubrospinal route.
150
Q

What does the indirect dorsolateral tract route (corticorubrospinal) go via?

A

The red nucleus.

151
Q

Which side do dorsolateral tracts innervate?

A

The contralateral side of one segment of the spinal cord.

152
Q

Which muscles do the dorsolateral tracts project to?

A

Distal muscles e.g. fingers.

153
Q

What 2 routes do the ventromedial tracts contain?

A
  • A direct corticospinal route.
  • An indirect cortico-brainstem-spinal tract.
154
Q

What does the indirect ventromedial tract route (cortico-brainstem-spinal) go via?

A
  • Tectum.
  • Vestibular nuclei.
  • Reticular formation.
  • Cranial nerve nuclei.
155
Q

What % of the total brain weight does the cerebellum make up?

A

10%.

156
Q

DISINHIBITORY PATHWAY

A
157
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system divided into?

A

Parasympathetic and sympathetic.

158
Q

In terms of male sexual function, explain which acts are parasympathetic vs sympathetic.

A

Parasympathetic = erection.
Sympathetic = ejaculation.

159
Q

What are the 3 forms of output for the autonomic nervous system?

A
  • Parasympathetic.
  • Sympathetic.
  • Enteric NS.
160
Q

Which type of receptor would be present in the sympathetic system opposed to the parasympathetic system?

A

Adrenergic receptor.

161
Q

Which type of receptor would be present in the parasympathetic system opposed to the sympathetic system?

A

Muscarinic receptor.

162
Q

Which type of receptor would be present in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems?

A

Nicotinic receptors.

163
Q

Name an input of the autonomic nervous system.

A

The carotid baroreceptors.

164
Q

How are ANS disorders divided?

A

Primary and secondary ANS disorders.

165
Q

Give an example of a primary ANS disorder.

A
  • Multiple system atrophy (Shy-Drager syndrome).
  • Autonomic failure with Parkinson’s disease.
166
Q

Give an example of a secondary ANS disorder.

A
  • Diabetes mellitus.
  • Chronic renal failure.
  • Chronic liver disease.
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome.
  • Tetanus.
  • HIV.
  • Brain tumours.
167
Q

What is the easiest way of measuring ANS function?

A

Cardiovascularly:
- Heart rate and blood pressure beat-by-beat.
- Head-up tilt test.
- Baro-reflex testing (phenylephrine test).

168
Q

Give 5 non-cardiovascular ways to measure ANS function.

A
  • Pupillometry.
  • Sweat measurement.
  • Skin blood flow (thermoregulation).
  • Gastric acid secretion.
  • Sexual function.
169
Q

What 3 groups of disorders may be associated with basal ganglia dysfunction?

A
  • Motor disorders.
  • Psychiatric disorders.
  • Secondary damage.
170
Q

Give 4 motor disorders associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

A
  • Parkinson’s disease.
  • Huntington’s disease
  • Dystonia.
  • Gilles de la Tourette syndrome.
171
Q

Give 2 psychiatric disorders associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

A
  • Obsessive compulsive disorder.
  • Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
172
Q

Give 2 forms of secondary damage associated with basal ganglia dysfunction.

A
  • Cerebral palsy.
  • Wilson disease.
173
Q

How many dopamine receptors are there? How many classes are there?

A

5:
- D1 - D5.
2:
- D1 = D1 and D5.
- D2 = D2, D3, and D4.

174
Q

Describe the pathway to dopamine.

A

L-Tyrosine -> L-DOPA -> Dopamine.

175
Q

Describe Parkinson’s disease in terms of muscle tone, movement and dopamine.

A
  • Increased muscle tone.
  • Reduced movements.
  • Not enough dopamine.
176
Q

Describe Huntington’s disease in terms of muscle tone, movement and dopamine.

A
  • Decreased muscle tone.
  • Overshooting movements.
  • Too much dopamine.
177
Q

Give 3 key features of Parkinson’s disease.

A
  • Brady/akinesia.
  • Tremor.
  • Rigidity.
178
Q

Give 3 key features of Huntington’s disease.

A
  • Chorea.
  • Dementia/psychiatric illness.
  • Personality change.

Phase 1 JD (5 decks)

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