Neuro Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

where does the somatic motor component of the vagus nerve originate from?
a. originate from the rostral portion of the nucleus ambiguus
b. originate from the roof nucleus
c. originate from the optic nuclei
d. originate from the arcuate nucleus
e. originate from the caudal portion of the ambiguous nucleus, arranged longitudinally of the bul

A

the caudal portion of the ambiguous nucleus

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2
Q

where does the viscero-sensory component of the glossopharyngeal nerve receive fibers from?

A

from the carotid glomus chemoceptors and carotid sinus baroreceptors

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3
Q

what does the somatic motor component of the vagus nerve innervate?

A

the intrinsic muscles of:
- larynx
- pharynx
- esophagus
- part of the palate

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4
Q

where is Clarke’s backbone located? what neurons does it contain?

A

in lamina VII

contains the neurons that give rise to ventral spinocerebellar bundle

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5
Q

what constitutes the primary olfactory area?

A

the pyriform and periamygdaloid cortices

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6
Q

where is the cochlear ganglion located?

A

in the modaiol of the cochlea

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7
Q

where are Betz giant cells of the motor cortex mainly contained?

A

layer V in the precentral gyrus

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8
Q

what is the optic ganglion associated with?

A

with the glossopharyngeal nerve and innervates the parotid gland

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9
Q

what does the stapedius muscle do?

A

reduces excessive vibrations of the stapes to protect the inner ear from loud sounds

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10
Q

what are olfactory cells?

A

differentiated and specialized neurons

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11
Q

what do otoliths consist of?

A

calcium carbonate

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12
Q

what is Brown-Sequard syndrome? what are the key functional defects and features?

A

it is a hemicord lesion (damage to one side of the spinal cord)

key features
- ipsilateral (same side as lesion)
= loss of motor function
= loss of proprioception, vibration, and fine touch

  • contralateral (opposite side of lesion)
    = loss of pain and temperature sensation
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13
Q

what is a paraneoplastic myopathy? example.

A

a muscle disorder associated with an underlying malignancy, typically caused by an autoimmune response triggered by cancer

EX. Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)

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14
Q

what is the entorhinal cortex?

A

an associative olfactory area

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15
Q

what are the cerebral peduncles?

A

paired structures in the midbrain that contain motor and sensory pathways to facilitate communication btw the brain and spinal cord

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16
Q

where it the nucleus of the abducens nerve located?

A

in the pons

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17
Q

what is the substantia nigra?

A

a midbrain structure involved in dopamine production and motor control

degeneration = Parkinson’s disease

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18
Q

what does Monro’s interventricular foramen connect?

A

the lateral ventricles with the third ventricle

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19
Q

In adults, the conus medullaris (spinal cone) of the spinal cord typically terminates at the level of which vertebral bodies?

A

e. L1-L2

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20
Q

Where are the retinal junctions in the eye?

A

lens fibers

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21
Q

what does the trapezoid body consist of?

A

acoustic pathway fibers that originate in the cochlear nuclei

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22
Q

The cureless locus projects diffusely to the telencephalic cortex. What neurotransmitter do the neurons of the careless locus release?

A

noradrenaline

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23
Q

where is the myenteric (or Auerbach’s) plexus localized?

A

at the level of the muscular tonaca

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24
Q

what is the receptor called the nuclear bag?

A

a rapidly adapting receptor that primarily signals velocity

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25
what are the vestibulospinal tracts?
descending motor pathways that originate from vestibular nuclei and help regulate posture, balance, and head movements by influencing extensor muscle tone
26
what is the viscero-sensory component of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
it receives fibers from the chemoreceptors of the carotid glomus to the baroreceptors of the carotid sinus
27
Which of the following statements is false about the abenula? a. receives afferents from the libido system via the medullary stria b. the lateral part projects to the serotonergic nuclei of the brainstem c. the medial part projects to the interpeduncular nuclei, and is involved in nicotine withdrawal d. the lateral part projects to the dopaminergic nuclei of the midbrain e. it is part of the subthalamus
d. the lateral part projects to the dopaminergic nuclei of the midbrain
28
what do hippocampal mossy fibers (muscoid fibers) connect?
the dentate gyrus with the CA3 neurons
29
what functions would a lesion of the angular and supramarginal gyri impair?
1. language comprehension 2. reading and writing 3. spatial awareness and perception 4. sensorimotor integration
30
Where are the joints set in the eye?
sclerocorneal trabecularis
31
what are corticostriatal fibers?
projections from cerebral cortex to the striatum play crucial role in motor control, cognition, and procedural learning
32
by which medial region of the cerebral hemispheres is mood tone regulated?
sub-genual region of the cingulate gyrus
33
what do gamma motor neurons do?
control muscle spindle tone, enhancing response to muscle stretching
34
Which of these bones does not take part in the formation of the orbit? a. maxillary b. palatine c. small wing of the sphenoid d. zygomatic e. pterygoid process
b. palatine
35
All of the following statements about the upper colliculus are correct except: a. it is involved in the control of conjugate eye movements b. is involved in the convergence of the eyes c. is involved in the consensual pupillary reflex to light d. is located in the upper half of the midbrain e. receives a contingent of axons directly from retinal ganglion neurons
b. is involved in the convergence of the eyes
36
Injury to a cervical spinal root, such as due to prolapse of an intervertebral disc, can cause each of the following signs, except: a. muscle weakness and atrophy of the innervated territory b. tingling sensations c. increased tendon reflexes in the innervated territory d. loss of sensation corresponding to the innervated dermatome e. neck pain radiating to the arm
c. increased tendon reflexes in the innervated territory
37
Which of the following structures is not involved in the pupillary reflex to light? a. pretectal nuclei b. nucleus of Edinger-Westphal c. optic tract d. visual cortex e. posterior commissure
d. visual cortex
38
where do lateral corticospinal tract fibers cross the midline?
in the caudal medulla oblongata
39
what does the lateral fissure of the cortex do?
give access to the insula cortex
40
what is the splanchnocranium skin innervated by?
fibers originating from trigeminal (or semilunar) ganglion
41
what is the accommodation reflex?
a physiological response where eye adjusts to focus on near objects by constricting the pupil, changing the curvature of the lens and converging the eyes to maintain clear vision
42
Which nerve innervates the soleus muscle?
tibial nerve
43
what does vagal stimulation in the heart do?
accelerates the heartbeat
44
Which nerve is considered the terminal branch of the pudendal plexus in males?
inferior hemorrhoidal
45
In optical pathways, what is the optic nerve formed by?
the axons of unipolar cells
46
Which of the following statements about the ear is false? a. The external acoustic meatus communicates with the nasopharynx. b. The round window houses the base of the hammer (malleus). c. The tympanic membrane closes the external acoustic meatus. d. The auditory tube (Eustachian tube) connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx. e. The membranous labyrinth contains endolymph.
a. The external acoustic meatus communicates with the nasopharynx.
47
the auditory pathway run in the...
tegmentum, midbrain and thalamus
48
what structure is not part of the limbic system?
cerebellum
49
key structures associated with the limbic system (6)
hippocampus amygdala hypothalamus thalamus cingulate gyrus fornix
50
what is the archibellum? what does it do?
it is one of the 3 main regions of cerebellum primarily receives input from vestibular nuclei sends output to brainstem nuclei to modulate and coordinate balance, posture and eye movements
51
what does the parabrachial nuclear surround?
superior cerebellar peduncle
52
a 17 year old boy is in the emergency department after receiving a stab wound at the front of his neck, the knife entrance wound was located on the left side of the neck just lateral to the tip of the greater corner of the hyoid bone. during physical examination the patient was asked to protrude his tongue, which deviated to the left. the following statements would explain the physical signs in this patient except? a. hypoglossal nerve descends in the neck between the internal carotid artery and internal jugular vein b. genioglossus muscle is supplies by glossopharyngeal n. c. paralysis of left genioglossus muscle permitted the right genioglossus to pull the tongue forward and turned the tip to the left side d. none of the other answer are correct e. the point of the knife blade severed the left hypoglossal nerve
b. genioglossus muscle is supplies by glossopharyngeal n. WHY - hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) controls the tongue muscles, including the genioglossus. - genioglossus muscle, which protrudes the tongue, is actually supplied by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), not the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). - a stab wound near the greater cornu of the hyoid bone could damage the hypoglossal nerve, leading to paralysis of the ipsilateral genioglossus muscle. - when the left hypoglossal nerve is injured, the right genioglossus muscle is unopposed, pulling the tongue towards the left (affected) side when protruded.
53
which nerve innervates most of the plantar side of foot?
tibial nerve it is a branch of the sciatic nerve and derived from ventral rami of spinal nerves L4 to S3 provides sensory innervation
54
what contains gabaergic projection neurons that reduce muscle tone and tendon reflex? a. rubrospinal b. tectospinal c. lateral corticospinal d. pontine reticulospinal e. medullary reticulospinal
e. medullary reticulospinal
55
a 73 year old woman visited her physician because she had noticed that the right side of her face was sagging downward. She first noticed the condition when waking up 2 mornings ago. Otherwise she felt very well. On examination the patient had a complete right-side facial paralysis, the right lower eyelid was drooping, and the right angle of the mouth was sagging. A diagnosis of Bell's palsy was made. Further examination of this patient demonstrated the following signs and symptoms except which? a. tears tended to flow easily over the right lower eyelid b. saliva dribbled from the right corner of her mouth c. the patient was unable to close her right eye completely d. the patient was unable to expose the teeth fully on the right side of her mouth e. the muscles on the right side of her forehead worked perfectly normally when she was asked to raise her eyebrow
e. the muscles on the right side of her forehead worked perfectly normally when she was asked to raise her eyebrow
56
what does the olfactory nerve (CN I) do?
detect smell from nasal cavity
57
what does the optic nerve (CN II) do?
transmits visual info from retina --> brain
58
what does the oculomotor nerve (CN III) do?
controls most eye movements, pupil constriction, and eyelid elevation
59
what does the trochlear nerve (CN IV) do?
moves the eye downward and inward via the superior oblique muscle
60
what does the trigeminal nerve (CN V) do?
provides facial sensation and controls the muscles of mastication (chewing)
61
what does the abducens nerve (CN VI) do?
moves the eye laterally via lateral rectus muscle
62
what does the facial nerve (CN VII) do?
controls facial expressions, taste (anterior 2/3 of the tongue), and salivary/lacrimal gland secretion
63
what does the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) do?
responsible for hearing and balance (equilibrium)
64
what does the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) do?
provides taste (posterior 1/3 of the tongue), swallowing, and carotid body reflex
65
what does the vagus nerve (CN X) do?
controls parasympathetic functions in thoracic/abdominal organs, speech, and swallowing
66
what does the accessory nerve (CN XI) do?
controls head and shoulder movement via sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles
67
what does the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) do?
controls tongue movement for speech and swallowing