Neuro Flashcards
(243 cards)
1
Q
What are radiations in relation to visual field defects?
A
Radiations are opposite to the fields for visual fields defects.
2
Q
What does PITS stand for?
A
PITS = parietal inferior, temporal superior.
3
Q
What does an incongruous visual lesion indicate?
A
An incongruous visual lesion indicates an optic tract issue.
4
Q
What condition is associated with fluctuating consciousness?
A
Fluctuating consciousness is associated with subdural hematoma.
5
Q
What are the symptoms of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?
A
Symptoms include facial weakness (e.g., difficulty closing eyes, smiling, blowing), winged scapula, and weakness of the shoulder, upper arm, and hip girdle muscles.
6
Q
Is carbamazepine contraindicated in absence seizures?
A
Yes, carbamazepine is contraindicated in absence seizures.
7
Q
What happens to blood on a CT scan over time?
A
Blood on CT becomes less dense over time.
8
Q
What shape does a subdural hematoma take on a CT scan?
A
A subdural hematoma appears as a crescent shape.
9
Q
What should you think of with CT head showing temporal lobe changes?
A
Think of herpes simplex encephalitis.
10
Q
What type of neuropathies are associated with infections and lifestyle?
A
Infections are associated with motor neuropathies, while lifestyle factors are associated with sensory neuropathies.
11
Q
What is donepezil?
A
Donepezil is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
12
Q
What imaging is required to diagnose dementia?
A
MRI is required to diagnose dementia.
13
Q
What are the characteristics of Wernicke’s dysphasia?
A
Speech is fluent, comprehension is abnormal, and repetition is impaired.
14
Q
What condition is associated with upper motor neuron signs?
A
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is associated with upper motor neuron signs.
15
Q
What does MND stand for?
A
MND stands for mixed upper and lower motor neuron symptoms.
16
Q
What percentage of carotid artery stenosis indicates carotid endarterectomy?
A
More than 70% stenosis of the carotid artery indicates carotid endarterectomy.
17
Q
What is the treatment for TIA or stroke?
A
Clopidogrel is used for TIA or stroke.
18
Q
What is the time frame for administering alteplase after a stroke?
A
Alteplase can be administered within 4.5 hours post-stroke, post-CT.
19
Q
What does Wernicke’s encephalopathy present with?
A
Wernicke’s encephalopathy presents with enhanced mammillary bodies.
20
Q
What is the driving ban duration after a first seizure?
A
There is a 6 months driving ban from the first seizure if investigations are normal and 12 months if not.
21
Q
What is the driving ban duration for epilepsy?
A
There is a 12 months driving ban if epilepsy is diagnosed and 6 months after withdrawal of epilepsy medications.
22
Q
What is the driving restriction after a stroke or TIA?
A
1 month off driving, and you don’t need to tell DVLA if there is no neurological deficit.
23
Q
What is the acute treatment for migraines?
A
Acute treatment includes triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol.
24
Q
What are the prophylactic treatments for migraines?
A
Prophylactic treatments include topiramate or propranolol.
25
What defines transient global amnesia?
Transient global amnesia lasts less than 24 hours, while a fugue state lasts more than 24 hours.
26
What is the treatment for generalized seizures in men and women?
Men are treated with sodium valproate, and women with lamotrigine or levetiracetam.
27
What is the treatment for focal seizures?
Focal seizures are treated with lamotrigine or levetiracetam.
28
What can bromocriptine be given for?
Bromocriptine can be given for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which could be caused by withdrawal of Parkinson's medications.
29
What is Broca's aphasia associated with?
Broca's aphasia is associated with the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in comprehension being normal but speech being non-fluent.
30
What is Wernicke's aphasia associated with?
Wernicke's aphasia is associated with the superior temporal gyrus, resulting in fluent speech but with word salad.
31
What are the symptoms of otosclerosis?
Otosclerosis is characterized by conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and a positive family history.
32
What can cause focal neurological deficits?
Focal neurological deficits can depend on the position of the subdural hematoma.
33
What is essential tremor and how is it affected by arm position?
Essential tremor is autosomal dominant (AD) and is made slightly better when arms are outstretched.
34
What are the features of tuberous sclerosis?
Features include fibromata, ash leaf spots, and polycystic kidney disease (PCKD).
35
What does painful third nerve palsy indicate?
Painful third nerve palsy indicates a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.
36
When should anticoagulants be started after a stroke?
Wait 14 days post-stroke before starting anticoagulants such as Warfarin or DOAC.
37
What is a symptom of neurosyphilis?
You get a lancing pain in neurosyphilis.
38
What are the signs of subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
Signs include distal sensory loss, tingling, absent ankle jerks/extensor plantars, and gait abnormalities/Romberg's positive.
39
What does craniopharyngioma affect?
Craniopharyngioma affects temporal visual fields and the ventromedial area of the hypothalamus.
40
What is Lambert Eaton syndrome associated with?
Lambert Eaton syndrome is associated with antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels and small cell lung cancer, with symptoms improving with use.
41
What does anti-AChR indicate?
Anti-AChR indicates myasthenia gravis, characterized by fatigueability.
42
What can be given in status epilepticus after benzodiazepines?
Levetiracetam, phenytoin, or valproate can be given.
43
What does the Barthel index measure?
The Barthel index measures disability in stroke patients.
44
What does ring-enhancing lesions on a CT indicate?
Ring-enhancing lesions indicate a brain abscess, treated with IV Ceftriaxone and metronidazole.
45
What is the treatment for degenerative cervical myopathy?
Cervical decompressive surgery is the treatment for degenerative cervical myopathy.
46
What can venous sinus thrombosis cause?
Venous sinus thrombosis can cause raised intracranial pressure (ICP), with MRI Brain with Venogram being the gold standard test.
47
What is lateral medullary syndrome associated with?
Lateral medullary syndrome is associated with posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) lesions, causing sensory loss, Horner's syndrome, and nystagmus.
48
What are the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain?
First-line treatments for neuropathic pain are amitriptyline and pregabalin.
49
What is the Dix Hallpike maneuver used for?
Dix Hallpike is used for the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), while Epley is used for treatment.
50
What condition is bilateral vestibular schwannomas associated with?
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
51
What is the predominant symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)?
GBS is predominantly characterized by weakness.
52
What does chronic kidney disease (CKD) cause in terms of sensory loss?
CKD causes predominantly sensory loss in fingertips and feet.
53
What is acetazolamide used for?
Acetazolamide is given for idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
54
What does FVC measure?
FVC measures respiratory function in GBS.
55
What is Chiari malformation associated with?
Chiari malformation is associated with syringomelia, which is the dilatation of a CSF space within the spinal cord.
56
What MRI sequences are used in MS and thyroid eye disease?
MRI FLAIR is used in MS eye disease, while MRI STIR is used in thyroid eye disease.
57
What tracts are affected in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected.
58
What is the onset characteristic of ataxic telangiectasia?
Ataxic telangiectasia is characterized by cerebellar ataxia and telangiectasia, with onset in childhood and recurrent chest infections.
59
What is autoinduction in relation to carbamazepine?
After starting carbamazepine, you can get a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks due to autoinduction.
60
What is a common consequence of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
SIADH is a common consequence of SAH.
61
What side effect is associated with pergolide?
Pergolide can cause pulmonary fibrosis.
62
What is the treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
The treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome is oral aciclovir and corticosteroids.
63
What is a characteristic finding in MS?
In MS, CSF oligoclonal bands are not present in the serum.
64
What does lateral medullary syndrome indicate?
Lateral medullary syndrome indicates a PICA lesion, causing cerebellar signs, contralateral sensory loss, and ipsilateral Horner's syndrome.
65
What serious condition can lamotrigine cause?
Lamotrigine can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
66
What are the characteristics of Broca's dysphasia?
Broca's dysphasia is characterized by non-fluent speech and normal comprehension, associated with the left inferior frontal gyrus.
67
What does asymmetrical symptoms suggest in Parkinson's disease?
Asymmetrical symptoms suggest idiopathic Parkinson's disease.
68
What should MS patients with urinary symptoms undergo?
MS patients with urinary symptoms should undergo ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (US KUB).
69
What is the vitamin B12 status in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?
Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord presents with normal B12 levels.
70
What is narcolepsy characterized by?
Narcolepsy is characterized by laughter leading to a fall or collapse and extreme fatigue known as cataplexy.
71
What are gelastic seizures?
Gelastic seizures are characterized by laughter as the seizure.
72
What side effect can sodium valproate cause?
Sodium valproate can cause tremor.
73
What is the treatment for restless leg syndrome?
Ropinirole is used for restless leg syndrome.
74
What causes internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)?
INO results from a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) located in the paramedian area of the midbrain and pons.
75
What is palatal myoclonus a feature of?
Palatal myoclonus is a specific feature of hypertrophic olivary degeneration.
76
What type of receptor do triptans target?
Triptans are specific 5-HT1 receptor agonists.
77
What condition is CADASIL associated with?
CADASIL is inherited and presents with migraines in middle age, followed by recurrent TIAs and strokes.
78
What type of antagonist is ondansetron?
Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 serotonin antagonist.
79
What is risperidone associated with?
Risperidone is associated with 5-HT3.
80
What does 'limited infarct core volume' suggest?
'Limited infarct core volume' suggests there is still tissue that could be salvaged by thrombectomy.
81
Which artery supplies the lower limb?
The anterior cerebral artery supplies the lower limb.
82
Which artery supplies the upper limb?
The middle cerebral artery supplies the upper limb.
83
What can cause transverse myelitis?
Transverse myelitis can be caused by any virus.
84
What is the difference between extradural and subdural hematomas?
Extradural hematomas present with a lucid interval followed by coma, while subdural hematomas present with fluctuating symptoms.
85
What is Campylobacter jejuni associated with?
Campylobacter jejuni is associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS).
86
What are the symptoms of Bell's palsy?
Bell's palsy is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve symptoms, post auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
87
What is the temporal lobe associated with?
The temporal lobe is associated with paraesthesia.
88
What is the parietal lobe associated with?
The parietal lobe is associated with lip smacking and déjà vu.
89
What is juvenile myoclonic epilepsy characterized by?
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is characterized by seizures that occur when tired.
90
What does von Hippel-Lindau syndrome include?
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome includes pheochromocytoma and renal cell cancer.
91
What are the symptoms of cluster headaches?
Symptoms include episodic pain, lacrimation, and nasal stuffiness occurring daily.
92
What is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
93
What is the treatment for essential tremor?
Propranolol is used for essential tremor.
94
What does the anterior cerebral artery supply?
The anterior cerebral artery supplies the legs.
95
What does the middle cerebral artery supply?
The middle cerebral artery supplies the arms.
96
What is conductive dysphasia characterized by?
Conductive dysphasia is characterized by fluent speech but struggles with repetition.
97
What is the only opioid that can be used in neuropathic pain?
Tramadol is the only opioid that can be used in neuropathic pain.
98
What side effect can cabergoline cause?
Cabergoline can cause pulmonary fibrosis.
99
What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Meniere's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, and a feeling of fullness.
100
When should a lumbar puncture (LP) be performed?
Only perform an LP if the subarachnoid CT is beyond 6 hours.
101
What are the first-line treatments for MS spasticity?
Baclofen and gabapentin are first-line treatments for MS spasticity.
102
What are the symptoms of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Symptoms include confusion, ataxia, nystagmus, and ophthalmoplegia.
103
What tracts are affected in subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?
The dorsal and lateral columns are affected.
104
What is the duration of transient global amnesia?
Transient global amnesia resolves after 24 hours.
105
What imaging is required for degenerative cervical myelopathy?
MRI of the cervical spine is required for degenerative cervical myelopathy.
106
What does hemibalism indicate?
Hemibalism indicates twitching and repetitive symptoms associated with the basal ganglia.
107
What is the thrombolysis window for acute ischemic stroke?
The thrombolysis window is 4.5 hours; if a patient wakes with symptoms, they cannot be thrombolyzed.
108
What must be tested in restless legs syndrome?
Ferritin levels must be tested in restless legs syndrome.
109
What does the temporal lobe control?
The temporal lobe is associated with repetitive symptoms and déjà vu.
110
What does the frontal lobe control?
The frontal lobe is associated with motor functions.
111
What does the parietal lobe control?
The parietal lobe is associated with sensory functions.
112
What does the occipital lobe control?
The occipital lobe is associated with vision.
113
What does the inferior frontal gyrus indicate?
The inferior frontal gyrus is associated with Broca's aphasia, where fluency is affected due to motor issues.
114
What does Wilson's disease involve?
Wilson's disease involves copper deposition in the basal ganglia, leading to parkinsonism.
115
What is the validity of a CT done within 6 hours of SAH?
A CT done within 6 hours of SAH is considered valid.
116
What does sensorineural deafness indicate?
Sensorineural deafness is indicated by air conduction being better than bone conduction on both sides.
117
What does asymmetry in symptoms suggest in parkinsonism?
Asymmetry in symptoms suggests idiopathic parkinsonism.
118
What should be considered in large artery ischemic stroke?
Consider mechanical thrombectomy in large artery ischemic stroke.
119
When should a CT be repeated in SAH?
Repeat CT if rebleeding is suspected in SAH.
120
What side effect can quinine cause?
Quinine can cause tinnitus, which is why it was discontinued.
121
What can natalizumab cause?
Natalizumab can cause reactivation of the JC virus, leading to progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).
122
What does bilateral spastic paresis and loss of pain and temperature sensation indicate?
This indicates anterior spinal artery occlusion.
123
Is breastfeeding acceptable with most epileptic medications?
Yes, breastfeeding is acceptable with almost all epileptic medications.
124
What side effect can prednisolone cause?
Prednisolone can cause idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
125
What is the inheritance pattern of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is autosomal dominant (AD) with a 50% chance of children having it.
126
What does selegiline inhibit?
Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase B (MOA-B) inhibitor.
127
What is the treatment for post-LP headache?
A blood patch is used for post-LP headache, where blood is injected into the CSF space to cause a clot.
128
What causes hemiballismus?
Hemiballismus is caused by lesions in the subthalamic nucleus.
129
What is the treatment for post-herpetic neuralgia?
Duloxetine, gabapentin, and amitriptyline are used for post-herpetic neuralgia.
130
What is the risk associated with migraines and oral contraceptives?
Migraine in pregnancy increases the risk of stroke.
131
What causes internuclear ophthalmoplegia?
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is due to a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus.
132
What is apomorphine?
Apomorphine is a dopamine receptor agonist.
133
What can cause foot drop?
Leg crossing, squatting, or kneeling may cause foot drop secondary to common peroneal neuropathy.
134
What is the treatment for motor neuron disease?
Riluzole is used for motor neuron disease.
135
What should be done for medication overuse headaches?
Withdraw triptans and paracetamol immediately, and withdraw opioids more slowly.
136
What is nimodipine used for?
Nimodipine is given in SAH to prevent vasospasm.
137
What is the time frame for thrombectomy and thrombolysis in acute ischemic stroke?
Thrombectomy should be performed within 6 hours, and thrombolysis within 4.5 hours.
138
What does beta interferon do?
Beta interferon reduces the frequency of attacks in multiple sclerosis.
139
What is the treatment for optic neuritis?
Steroids are used for the treatment of optic neuritis.
140
What is the treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Dantrolene is used for the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
141
What is the treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome?
The treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome is oral aciclovir and oral prednisolone.
142
What does the Barthel scale measure?
The Barthel scale measures independence in activities of daily living (ADLs) post-stroke.
143
What type of drug is procyclidine?
Procyclidine is an antimuscarinic.
144
What are the symptoms of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)?
CJD is characterized by rapid onset dementia and myoclonus.
145
What is axillary freckling associated with?
Axillary freckling is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1), not tuberous sclerosis.
146
What is vestibular neuronitis associated with?
Vestibular neuronitis is associated with post-viral infection vertigo.
147
What is viral labyrinthitis associated with?
Viral labyrinthitis is associated with post-viral infection vertigo and hearing loss or tinnitus.
148
What can cause gingival hyperplasia?
Gingival hyperplasia can be caused by phenytoin, ciclosporin, calcium channel blockers, and AML.
149
What are the symptoms of Meniere's disease?
Meniere's disease is characterized by episodic vertigo, tinnitus ('roaring sensation'), and sensorineural hearing loss.
150
What does vitreous hemorrhage and progressive ataxia indicate?
This indicates von Hippel-Lindau syndrome.
151
What side effect can phenytoin cause?
Phenytoin can cause peripheral neuropathy.
152
What does loss of corneal reflex indicate?
Loss of corneal reflex indicates an acoustic neuroma, associated with NF1.
153
What is the treatment for Bell's palsy?
Prednisolone should be administered within 72 hours of onset for Bell's palsy.
154
What does tabes dorsalis indicate?
Tabes dorsalis indicates tertiary syphilis, leading to reduced sensation and proprioception.
155
What does ipsilateral optic atrophy and contralateral papilledema indicate?
This indicates a frontal space-occupying lesion, with atrophy due to nerve damage.
156
What are the symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Symptoms include urinary incontinence, gait abnormality, and dementia.
157
What is the most common cause of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Guillain-Barré syndrome is most commonly caused by Campylobacter jejuni.
158
What is verapamil used for?
Verapamil is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches.
159
When should a lumbar puncture (LP) be performed after SAH?
SAH LP should be performed 12 hours post-headache.
160
What can natalizumab cause?
Natalizumab can cause reactivation of the JC virus.
161
What is the treatment for focal seizures?
Focal seizures are treated with lamotrigine or levetiracetam, followed by the opposite then carbamazepine.
162
What is the treatment for otitis externa?
Otitis externa is treated with a topical steroid and aminoglycoside.
163
What triad of symptoms is associated with normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Urinary incontinence, gait abnormality, and dementia.
164
What is the most common cause of Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)?
Campylobacter jejuni.
165
What medication is used for prophylaxis of cluster headaches?
Verapamil.
166
When should a lumbar puncture (LP) be performed after a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)?
12 hours post headache.
167
What is the risk associated with Natalizumab?
Reactivation of JC virus.
168
What is the treatment sequence for focal seizures?
Lamotrigine or levetiracetam, then the opposite, then carbamazepine.
169
What is the treatment for otitis externa?
Topical steroid and aminoglycoside.
170
What is the immediate treatment for cluster headaches?
High flow oxygen and subcutaneous triptan.
171
What is ovarian teratoma associated with?
Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis.
172
What syndrome is associated with Anti-GAD antibodies?
Stiff person's syndrome.
173
What is the most common psychiatric condition in Parkinson's disease?
Depression.
174
What are the symptoms of ataxic telangiectasia?
Cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasia, immunodeficiency leading to frequent childhood infections.
175
What is the first-line treatment for Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
IVIG (Intravenous Immunoglobulin).
176
What are the classic symptoms of Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
Tachycardia, flaccid paralysis, and hyporeflexia.
177
What does macular sparing indicate?
Occipital cortex involvement.
178
What is the chance of being seizure-free in adulthood for childhood absence seizures?
90-95% chance.
179
What condition is characterized by distal muscle wasting?
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.
180
What effect do migraines have on gastric emptying?
Migraines cause delayed gastric emptying.
181
What medications are used for drug-induced parkinsonism?
Benhexol or trihexyphenidyl.
182
What type of disorder is facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?
An autosomal dominant disorder.
183
Where is the medial longitudinal fasciculus located?
In the paramedian area of the midbrain and pons.
184
What causes post-LP headache?
Leaking CSF from the dura.
185
What are the signs of tuberous sclerosis?
Hypopigmentation and subungual fibromas.
186
What is the next line treatment if propranolol is contraindicated in essential tremor?
Primidone.
187
What visual side effect is associated with vigabatrin?
Visual field defects.
188
What is acetazolamide used to treat?
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension.
189
What condition is associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome?
Pheochromocytoma.
190
What does upper motor neuron lesions spare?
The forehead.
191
In multiple sclerosis (MS), who tends to have worse symptoms?
Males.
192
What sensory pathways are affected in syringomyelia?
Spinothalamic pathways, leading to pain and temperature loss.
193
What MRI sequences are used for MS and thyroid eye disease?
MRI FLAIR for MS and MRI STIR for thyroid eye disease.
194
What chromosome is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2?
Chromosome 22.
195
What condition is characterized by parietal lobe acalculia?
Parietal lobe lesions.
196
What area does ondansetron act on?
Medulla oblongata.
197
What does poor repetition indicate in terms of brain anatomy?
A lesion in the arcuate fasciculus, leading to conduction dysphasia.
198
What is the recommended folic acid dosage for pregnant women with epilepsy?
5 mg of folic acid.
199
What is the Miller Fisher variant of GBS characterized by?
Areflexia, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and Anti-GQ1 antibodies.
200
What symptoms suggest a brain abscess?
Headache, fever, and focal neurology.
201
What functions are associated with the temporal lobe?
Senses.
202
Is phenytoin safe in pregnancy?
No, phenytoin is not good in pregnancy.
203
What type of drug is pyridostigmine?
A long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
204
What does a common peroneal nerve lesion cause?
Weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion.
205
What is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis?
Lethargy.
206
What exacerbates restless leg syndrome?
Low iron stores; check ferritin.
207
What medication exacerbates myasthenia gravis?
Gentamicin; it is contraindicated.
208
What is the treatment for myasthenic crisis?
IVIG or plasmapheresis.
209
What condition is indicated by fasciculations?
Motor neuron disease (MND).
210
How long after a stroke can thrombectomy be performed?
Up to 24 hours.
211
What serious condition can Natalizumab cause?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) due to JC virus reactivation.
212
What characterizes brachial neuritis?
Acute onset unilateral severe pain followed by shoulder and scapular weakness several days later.
213
What is the association between GBS and C. jejuni infection?
Diarrheal illness or C. jejuni infection are associated with poorer outcomes.
214
What does Hoffman's sign suggest?
An upper motor neuron lesion.
215
What is the treatment for cluster headaches?
Subcutaneous triptan and 100% oxygen.
216
What are the symptoms of Miller Fisher syndrome?
GBS features: areflexia, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and Anti-GQ1 antibodies.
217
What MRI sign is associated with variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Hockey club sign.
218
What condition is indicated by patchy temporal lobe changes on MRI?
Herpes simplex encephalitis; supportive treatment and IV aciclovir are required.
219
What is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis associated with?
Mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, usually without sensory deficits.
220
What is the prognosis for progressive bulbar palsy?
Worse prognosis.
221
What is the cause of gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin, ciclosporin, calcium channel blockers, and acute myeloid leukemia (AML).
222
What is the association between painful neuropathy and lung cancer?
Anti-Hu antibodies.
223
What gene is associated with ataxic telangiectasia?
ATM gene.
224
What can IV phenytoin cause?
Hypotension.
225
What medication improves motor symptoms affecting quality of life in Parkinson's disease?
Levodopa.
226
How long should a patient with a stroke or TIA refrain from driving?
1 month.
227
What is the driving restriction for multiple TIAs?
3 months off driving.
228
What genetic mutation is associated with Huntington's disease?
CAG repeats.
229
What syndrome can phenytoin cause?
Cerebellar syndrome.
230
What is the result of Weber's test in sensorineural hearing loss?
Weber's goes to normal, Rinne's is both.
231
What chromosome is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?
Chromosome 17.
232
What side effect can topiramate precipitate?
Glaucoma.
233
When does neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically occur?
After 2 weeks of treatment.
234
What part of the brain is affected in chorea?
Caudate nucleus.
235
What gene is associated with CADASIL?
NOTCH3.
236
What does betahistine prevent?
Meniere's disease.
237
What causes cataplexy?
Low orexin levels.
238
What symptoms are associated with stroke and TIA?
Negative symptoms; migraine presents with positive symptoms.
239
What is the migraine prophylaxis for patients with asthma?
Topiramate.
240
What is the preferred route of feeding in motor neuron disease (MND)?
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG).
241
What are the common acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?
Donepezil, galantamine, and pyridostigmine.
242
What medications are used for restless legs syndrome?
Ropinirole, a dopamine agonist.
243
What medications are used for spasticity in MS?
Baclofen and gabapentin.
