Neuro Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Split Brain

A
  • Disconnection between the left and right hemispheres
  • They act independently of each other
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2
Q

Contralaterally

A
  • How vision is organized
  • Images in one side of one’s visual field are sent to the opposite brain hemisphere
  • Right hemisphere = left visual field
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3
Q

Commissures

A
  • Connect the two hemispheres
  • Large white-matter tracts
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4
Q

Corpus Callosum

A
  • Dense fiber tract located below the folds of the cortex
  • Contains Genu and Splenium
  • Allows for communication
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5
Q

Genu

A
  • Anterior portion of the corpus callous
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6
Q

Splenium

A
  • Posterior position of the corpus callous
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7
Q

Anterior and Posterior commissures

A
  • Connect the hemispheres
  • Less than the corpus callosum
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8
Q

Asymmetries in the brain

A
  • Ways that the hemispheres are different
  • Do not mirror each other
  • Structure and function of the brain
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9
Q

Homotopic

A
  • Structures that are present and in the same location in both hemispheres
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10
Q

Heterotopic

A
  • Structures/functions with different locations in the two hemispheres
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11
Q

Synchrony

A
  • The way in which different brain networks operate in tandem
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12
Q

Structural Asymmetries

A
  • Brain tissue is different from left to right
  • Parts of the brain are larger in one hemisphere than the other
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13
Q

Functional Ability: Spatial ability

A
  • Right hemisphere
  • Better at matching 3-D image with 2-D version when shown on left
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14
Q

Functional Ability: Emotion

A
  • Right hemisphere
  • Better at perceiving facial expressions and mood when shown on left
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15
Q

Functional Ability: Musical Ability

A
  • Right hemisphere
  • Better at perception of melodies when played in left ear
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16
Q

Functional Ability: Some memory tasks

A
  • Right hemisphere
  • Nonverbal material
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17
Q

Functional Ability: Left hemisphere

A
  • Tasks related to language and linguistic processing
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18
Q

Global vs Local Processing

A

Global
- Big picture
Local
- Details

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19
Q

Navon Figures

A
  • Global vs local processing study
  • Ex. Small C’s used to make a big H
    Whether we see the H or the C’s
  • H is global
    C’s are local
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20
Q

Dichotic Listening Tasks

A
  • Left Brain: more likely to recall letters when played in right ear
  • Right brain: More likely to recall melodies played in left ear
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21
Q

Object Recognition

A

The ability to know whether an object is a chair even though it is not a stereotypically chair looking chair

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22
Q

Middle Vision

A
  • After basic features but before object recognition and scene understanding
  • Perception of edges and grouping
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23
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

The whole is greater than the sum of its parts

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24
Q

Contours

A

Outlines that tell us where the edge of an object is

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25
Q

Illusory Contour

A

An edge that is perceived even though it isn’t actually there

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26
Q

Gestalt grouping rules

A

A set of rules that describe when elements in an image will appear to group together

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27
Q

Cognitive heuristics

A

Mental shortcuts that make cognitive processing more efficient

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28
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Similarity

A

Items are grouped together if they are alike

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29
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Proximity

A

Items are grouped together if they are close to each other

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30
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Continuity

A

They appear to be part of a line

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31
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Closure

A

Appear to complete an entity

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32
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Common Region

A

Appear to be physically grouped or enclosed

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33
Q

Gestalt Grouping Rule: Law of Pragnanz (Good figure)

A

Your mind generally accepts the simplest explanation of a visual image

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34
Q

Unity

A

We perceive color, shape, size, etc characteristics coherently

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35
Q

Flexibility Robust

A

Our recognition of an image is surprisingly stable despite shifts in orientation, time of day, and partial occlusion by other objects

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36
Q

Memory Bound

A

Once we perceive an image, memories are triggered that either show us the consonance between prior and current experiences or highlight differences

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37
Q

Shape

A

An aspect of the visual system relies heavily upon for determining an object

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38
Q

Object Constancy

A
  • Being able to recognize an object even when many aspects of the visual construct change
  • Two important functions
    Recognize objects as the same despite changes to the visual image
    Recognize when an object has changed
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39
Q

Color constancy

A

Part of object constancy

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40
Q

View Dependent Recognition

A

In order to recognize an object from a certain viewpoint, it is necessary for the object’s image from this viewpoint to match the object’s representation in memory

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41
Q

View Invariant Recognition

A

Your recognition of an object is made of a combination of features can allow you to recognize new perspectives

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42
Q

Structural Descriptions

A

Recognizing a letter no matter the size, font, or other minor alterations to the overall form

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43
Q

Category-Based Organization

A

Objects fit into semantic categories based on some sort of pre-disposed groupings

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44
Q

Property-Based Organization

A

We organize concepts based on their physical properties

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45
Q

Retina

A

The visual system operates when light bounces off of the back layer of the eye

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46
Q

Photopigments

A
  • Cells in the retina
  • Capture light and then send action potentials to the visual areas of the brain
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47
Q

Rods

A
  • Type of photopigment
  • Contain a single type of protein, so all rods can do it detect whether or not light is present
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48
Q

Cones

A
  • Type of photopigment
  • Contain three types of proteins
  • They pick up three types of information. Detect much sharper contrast and color
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49
Q

Optic nerve

A

All visual information runs through the optic nerve

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50
Q

Receptive field

A

The area in physical space that sends input to a specific visual neuron

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51
Q

Retinotopic mapping

A

Receptive fields of neighboring cells overlap, so that there is a rough mapping of space onto your visual brain space

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52
Q

The Ventral Pathway

A

The What pathway

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53
Q

The Dorsal Pathway

A

The Where Pathway

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54
Q

Longitudinal Fasciculus

A

The neural structure that creates two pathways

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55
Q

Temporal Lobe Neuron

A

Diverse patterns of selectivity, or detail that makes an image more easily recognized
- Cones

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56
Q

Parietal Lobe Neuron

A

Activated by stimulation to a small area of space or entire hemifield of visual space
- Rods

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57
Q

Inferotemporal Cortex (IT Cortex)

A

Where single neurons can be activated to complex images

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58
Q

Gnostic Unit

A

A theoretical neuron that is programmed to be activated in recognition of a specific object

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59
Q

Ensemble Coding Theory

A

Combinations of features have to be activated all at once

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60
Q

Visual Agnosia

A

Inability to visually recognize objects

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61
Q

Apperceptive Agnosia

A

Failure of higher-level visual perception
- Difficulty with object constance and unable to recognize objects from different pov

62
Q

Integrative Agnosia

A

Difficulty integrating component parts of objects into a cohesive whole

63
Q

Associative Agnosia

A

Failure of recognition despite ability to perceive objects
- See whole objects, but can’t recognize through vision

64
Q

Unusual Views Test

A

Patients judge whether two images seen from two different perspectives are the same object

65
Q

Shadows Test

A

Patients try to identify objects seen in shadow

66
Q

Category-Specific Deficits

A

They tend to lose information for living things but retain information about non-living objects

67
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Face blindness

68
Q

Parahippocampal Place Area (PPA)

A

Inability to recognize whole scenes, but not objects

69
Q

Extrastriate Body Area (EBA)

A

Inability to recognize static and moving body parts

70
Q

Fusiform Body Area (FBA)

A

Integrating color, motion and body shape

71
Q

Paradox of Memory

A

Good in some situations and bad in others

72
Q

Duration

A

How long memory lasts

73
Q

Memory Types

A
  • Duration
  • Capacity or Span
74
Q

Capacity or Span

A

Refers to how many units can be stored in memory

75
Q

Sensory Memory

A

Memory system that very briefly stores information based on sensory modality

76
Q

Short-Term Memory

A

Limited-capacity memory system through which we actively work with memories
- Small capacity and short duration

77
Q

Long-Term Memory

A

Durable memory system that has immense capacity and long duration

78
Q

Iconic Memory

A

Visual sensory memory
1 second

79
Q

Echoic Memory

A
  • Sensory memory
  • Auditory
  • 5-10 seconds
80
Q

Working Memory

A

When short term memory is used to process stimuli

81
Q

Atkinson Shiffrin Multi-Store Model (3)

A
  • Phonological loop
  • Visuospatial Sketchpad
  • Central Executive
82
Q

Central Executive

A

Drives the system

83
Q

Phonological Loop

A

Processes spoken and verbal material

84
Q

Visuospatial Sketchpad

A

Processes visual and spatial information

85
Q

Explicit Memory (Declarative)

A

Memory of previous experiences that one can consciously recollect

86
Q

Implicit Memory (Nondeclarative)

A

Information that we don’t remember deliberately or consciously

87
Q

Episodic Memory

A

Memory for information that has a specific context and was acquired at a specific time and place

88
Q

Semantic Memory

A

Memory for general knowledge about the world that is not associated with a time and place when the information was learned

89
Q

Autobiographical Memory

A

Autobiographical components of one’s life

90
Q

Habituation and Classical Conditioning

A

Processes by which one makes biological associations with external stimuli

91
Q

Procedural Memory

A

Refers to all of the motor skills and physical habits that one acquires over their life

92
Q

Priming

A

How one’s behavior or attitudes may change due to exposure to a related stimulus

93
Q

Decay

A

When memories fade over time

94
Q

Interference

A

When memories are lost due to competition of new incoming information

95
Q

Hermann Ebbinghaus

A

Studied memory and used himself as his subject

96
Q

Priming Effect

A

Refers to the fact that people are more likely to remember items near the beginning of a list

97
Q

Recency Effect

A

Refers to the fact that people are more likely to remember items near the end of a list

98
Q

Information-Processing Model

A

Information goes through three basic processes
- Encoding
- Storage
- Retrieval

99
Q

Encoding

A

The process of getting information into memory

100
Q

Storage

A

How information is kept in memory

101
Q

Retrieval

A

Reactivation or reconstruction of information from memory

102
Q

Recall

A

Generating previously remembered information

Short answer

103
Q

Recognition

A

Selecting previously remembered information from an array of options

Multiple choice

104
Q

Relearning

A

Measuring how long it takes one to require something learned before

105
Q

Flashbulb Memory

A

Detailed and vivid episodic memories or surprising and emotion-provoking events

106
Q

Hippocampus

A

Memory at large

107
Q

Parahippocampal, entorhinal, and perihinal cortices

A

Recognition memory

108
Q

Amygdala

A

Encoding emotional components of memory

109
Q

Fornix

A

Connects other memory structures

110
Q

Mammillary Bodies

A

Spatial Memory

111
Q

Medial Temporal Lobe (MTL)

A

Made up of the hippocampus and surrounding areas

112
Q

Anterior Thalamic Nuclei

A

Recency judgements

113
Q

Anterograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memory for events that occur after a lesion occurs

Inability to store new long-term memories

114
Q

Retrograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memory for events that occur prior to a lesion

Loss of already stored memories

115
Q

Hippocampus in LTM

A

Lesion Studies
Animal Models
Brain Imaging

116
Q

How do sons of alcoholics differ behaviorally, on average, from sons of nonalcoholics?

A

Sons of alcoholics show less intoxication, including less body sway, after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol

117
Q

Someone who is quitting an addictive substance for the first time is strongly counseled not to try it again. Why?

A

Taking an addictive drug during the withdrawal period is likely to lead to a habit of using the drug to relieve other kinds of distress

118
Q

Methadone users who try taking heroin experience little effect from it. Why?

A

Because methadone is already occupying the endorphin receptors, heroin cannot add much stimulation to them

119
Q

Genetic predisposition is most strongly evident for which type of alcohol abuser?

A

People with early-onset alcohol abuse

120
Q

What is the relationship between drug abuse and dopamine?

A

Most abused drugs release dopamine, but not in proportion to addictive potential

121
Q

What is the effect on the nucleus accumbent after repeated cocaine use?

A

The nucleus accumbent becomes less responsive to rewarding experiences

122
Q

What accounts for increased cravings during cocaine abstinence?

A

Increased sensitivity of glutamate synapses to cues for cocaine

123
Q

What is the advantage of taking methadone instead of morphine or heroin?

A

Methadone satisfies the craving without seriously disrupting behavior

124
Q

What are the effects of tricyclic drugs?

A

Block reuptake of serotonin and catecholamines. They also block histamine receptors, acetylcholine receptors, and certain sodium channels, thereby producing unpleasant side effects

125
Q

What are the effects of SSRIs?

A

Selectively inhibit the reuptake of serotonin

126
Q

What are the effects of MAOIs?

A

Block the enzyme MAO, which breaks down catecholamines and serotonin. The result is increased availability of these transmitters

127
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of ECT?

A

ECT helps many people who do not respond to antidepressant drugs or psychotherapy, and its benefits usually develop relatively quickly. However, the probability of a quick relapse is high.

128
Q

What change in sleep habits sometimes relieves depression?

A

Going to bed earlier sometimes relapse is high

129
Q

What are the advantages of bright-light treatment compared to antidepressant drugs?

A

It is cheaper, has little risk of side effects, and produces its benefits more quickly

130
Q

On average, how long does a first episode of depression last?

A

About the same as later episodes

131
Q

What is one reason why it may be hard to locate genes contributing to depression?

A

The genes for depression in one population may be rare in another

132
Q

Relatives of people with late-onset depression have an increased probability of what type of disorder?

A

Circulatory problem

133
Q

The short gene for the serotonin transporter relates to depression only in which people?

A

People who have experienced severe stress

134
Q

How do SSRIs differ from tricyclic antidepressants?

A

SSRIs act on just one type of synapse instead of several

135
Q

What is the disadvantage of using St John’s wort as an antidepressant?

A

St. John’s wort decreases the effectiveness of other drugs

136
Q

If someone starts taking antidepressant drugs, when do behavioral benefits emerge?

A

Two weeks or more after taking the first dose

137
Q

What is a common treatment for bipolar disorder?

A

Lithium salts

138
Q

Why are hallucinations considered a positive symptom?

A

They are present when they should be absent.

139
Q

Someone with the symptoms of schizophrenia might not qualify for the diagnosis. Why not?

A

Other conditions such as drug abuse or brain damage can produce similar symptoms

140
Q

What is a micro deletion?

A

An error in reproduction that deletes a small part of a chromosome

141
Q

When do the brain abnormalities associated with schizophrenia originate?

A

Begin before birth or soon after birth, but they combine with the effects of later difficulties

142
Q

The ability of traditional antipsychotic drugs to relieve schizophrenia correlates strongly with what effect on neurotransmitters?

A

Their ability to relieve schizophrenia correlates strongly with how well they block activity at dopamine synapses

143
Q

Why is lack of emotional expression considered a negative symptom?

A

The symptom refers to the absence of something

144
Q

What is toxoplasma gondii?

A

A parasite that can cause psychiatric disorders

145
Q

What is a likely explanation for the season-of-birth effect?

A

Maternal illness during pregnancy

146
Q

What is the time course of brain damage in schizophrenia?

A

Most of the brain damage is present at diagnosis or soon after

147
Q

What is the effect of antipsychotic drugs on synapses?

A

They block certain dopamine synapses

148
Q

In what way is the genetic basis of autism similar to that of schizophrenia?

A

In both, many genes contribute

149
Q

What is commonly observed for children with autism?

A

Eyes usually fail to capture their attention

150
Q

When does the probability of autism increase?

A

The father was much older than average

151
Q

What is common for children with autism, at age one year?

A

The head is 10 percent larger than average

152
Q

What dietary supplement during pregnancy decreases the probability of having a child with autism?

A

Folic acid