Neuro + Head & Neck Flashcards

(542 cards)

1
Q

which order do the mucosal sinuses develop?

A

Maxillary & Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Frontal

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2
Q

What condition is being described here?
Soft tissue extension across the nostril and narrowed/inward bow to maxillary spines (CT)
Associated with midline developmental anomalies (holoprosencephaly)

A

Pyriform aperture stenosis

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3
Q

What are the red flag features for thyroid nodules?

A

Solid
Calcifications - microcalcifications

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4
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Microcalcifications in thyroid nodule
Metastases to lymph nodes (Microcalcifications)

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

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5
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Comet tail artifact
Thyroid US

A

Colloid nodule

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6
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Macrocalcification
Local invasion and lymphatic spread

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

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7
Q

What do the following findings suggest in the thyroid?
Hypoechoic halo
Peripheral pattern of blood flow
Cystic/Spongiform nodule
Multiple nodules

A

Benign thyroid nodule

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8
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Solid colloid nodules
Can be hot on uptake scan

A

Thyroid adenoma

If hot on uptake = Toxic adenoma

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9
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Female 40-70s
Diffusely enlarged thyroid gland
US - Homogenous hypoechogenic
Decreased vascularity
Reduced uptake on uptake scan
MR - Dark on all sequences

A

Reidels thyroiditis (IgG4 related fibrous replacement of thyroid)

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10
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Hyperdense tissue at base of tongue

A

Lingual thyroid

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11
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Enlarged thyroid gland
Increased vascularity on doppler

A

Graves disease

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12
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Heterogenous giraffe skin appearance of thyroid
Uniform hyper echoic nodules

A

Hashimotos thyroiditis

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13
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Solid thyroid nodule
Metastases haematogenously

A

Follicular thyroid cancer

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14
Q

Which is the most common thyroid cancer?
2nd?

A

Papillary
Follicular

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15
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Hypoechoic beans posterior to the thyroid
Early wash in and delayed washout

A

Parathyroid adenoma

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16
Q

What are the causes of hyperparathyroidism?

A

Hyperfunctioning adenoma
Multi-gland hyperplasia
Cancer

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17
Q

What nuclear medicine scan is used to image the parathyroid glands?

A

Sestamibi scan

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18
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
CSF space
Anterior to foramen of monroe
Between frontal horns

A

Cavum Septum pellucidum

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19
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Posterior continuation of cavum septum pellucidum
Posterior to foramen of monroe
Between bodies of lateral ventricles

A

Cavum vergae

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20
Q

What do the following findings suggest?
Extension of quadrigeminal plate cistern to foramen of monroe
Above the 3rd ventricle and below fornices

A

Cavum velum Interpositum

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21
Q

What passes through the cavernous sinus?

A

CN III
CN IV
CN V1 + V2
CN 6
Carotid artery

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22
Q

What is the orientation of CN 7 and 8 in the internal auditory canal?

A

CN 7 = Up
CN 8 = Down (Cochlear component)
Vestibular component splits into superior and inferior

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23
Q

The following pass through which cranial foramen?
CN V3
Accessory meningeal artery

A

Foramen Ovale

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24
Q

The following pass through which cranial foramen?
CN V2

A

Foramen Rotundum

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25
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 3, CN 4, CN V1, CN 6
Superior orbital fissure
26
The following pass through which cranial foramen? infra orbital nerve - branch of V2 Inferior ophthalmic vein Infra orbital artery
Inferior orbital fissure
27
The following pass through which cranial foramen? Middle meningeal artery
Foramen Spinosum
28
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 9 CN 10 + 11
Jugular foramen
29
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 12
Hypoglossal canal
30
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 2 Ophthalmic artery
Optic canal
31
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 3 + 4 + V1 + V2 + 6 Carotid artery
Cavernous sinus
32
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 7 + 8
Internal auditory canal
33
The following pass through which cranial foramen? Trigeminal ganglion
Meckels cave
34
The following pass through which cranial foramen? CN 6 Inferior petrosal sinus
Dorello's canal
35
The following are branches of which artery? Superior thyroid Ascending pharyngeal Lingual Facial Occipital Posterior auricular Maxillary Superficial temporal
External carotid artery
36
What are the vessels that come off the vertebral artery?
Anterior spinal artery
37
What vessels come off the basilar artery (Distal to proximal)?
PICA AICA Superior cerebellar artery
38
What do the following findings suggest? Acute CN3 palsy
PCOM aneurysm
39
What do the following findings suggest? Venous connection between the superficial middle cerebral vein and superior sagittal sinus Higher
Anastomotic vein of Trolard
40
What do the following findings suggest? Connects superficial middle cerebral vein and transverse sinus Lower
Vein of Labbe
41
The following veins are found where in the brain? Superior cerebral veins Vein of Trolard Vein of Labbe Superficial middle cerebral veins
Superficial
42
The following veins are found where in the brain? Basal vein of Rosenthal Vein of Galen Inferior petrosal sinus
Deep veins
43
What do the following findings suggest? Deep vein that passes lateral to the midbrain through the ambient cistern and drains into the vein of Galen
Basal vein of Rosenthal
44
What do the following findings suggest? Big vein formed by union of 2 internal cerebral veins
Vein of Galen
45
What do the following findings suggest? Middle nasal conchae is pneumatised
Concha Bullosa
46
Which sequence is best for assessing myelination in a 1yr old? Which sequence is best for assessing myelination in a 2 yr old?
1yr = T1 2yrs = T2
47
Which area of the brain is the last to myelinate?
Subcortical white matter
48
Which areas of the brain are myelinated at birth?
Brainstem Posterior limb of internal capsule
49
The following signifies what age of the patient: Anterior pituitary T1 high signal Posterior pituitary T1 high signal
Birth until 2 months
50
The following signifies what age of the patient: Anterior pituitary = T1 & T2 Iso Posterior pituitary = T1 high and T2 low signal
Adult
51
What do the following findings suggest? T1 high signal in calvarium
Normal
52
What is the order of paranasal sinus development?
Maxillary Ethmoid Sphenoid Frontal
53
What do the following findings suggest? Colpocephaly (Asymmetric dilatation of the occipital horns)
Corpus callosum agenesis
54
What do the following findings suggest? Absence of the splenium of the corpus callosum, genu in tact
Hypoplasia of the corpus callosum
55
What do the following findings suggest? Steer horn appearance of lateral ventricles on coronal Widely spaced ventricles on axial
Agenesis of the corpus callosum
56
What do the following findings suggest? Intracranial lipoma (T1 & T2 high signal) Interhemispheric recess
Associated with Corpus Callosum Agenesis
57
What do the following findings suggest? T1 & T2 high signal mass Interhemispheric fissure location (Pericallosal)
Intracranial lipoma
58
What do the following findings suggest? Absent top of head Reduced/Absent cerebrum/cerebellum Hindbrain present Not compatible with life Elevated AFP
Anencephaly
59
What do the following findings suggest? Defect in occipital bone & cervical region Retroflexion of the head Enlarged foramen magnum Not compatible with life AFP elevated
Iniencephaly
60
What do the following findings suggest? Neural tube defect Brain + Meninges herniate through defect in cranium Midline in occipital region
Meningoencephalocele
61
What do the following findings suggest? Cerebellar vermis absent Transversely oriented single lobed cerebellum Small 4th ventricle Rounded fastigial point Absent primary fissure
Rhombencephalosynapsis
62
What do the following findings suggest? Vermis is absent Molar tooth appearance - Superior cerebellar peduncles look elongated Small cerebellum Large 4th ventricle Absent fastigial point Absent primary fissure
Joubert syndrome
63
The following describe what? - Normal angular contour (not round) along the ventral surface of the cerebellum. - Deep trapezoid shaped cleft along the posterior cerebellum.
"fastigial point”is normal angular contour (not round) along the ventral surface of the cerebellum. Primary cerebellarfissure is a deep trapezoid shaped cleft along the posterior cerebellum.
64
What do the following findings suggest? Hypoplasia of the vermis Hypoplastic vermis is elevated and rotated Dilated cystic 4th ventricle
Dandy walker malformation
65
What do the following findings suggest? Torcula above the level of the lambdoid suture, due to elevation of the tentorium
Dandy walker classic version
66
What do the following findings suggest? Focal enlargement of the retrocerebellar CSF space Normal vermis, 4th ventricle, cerebellar hemispheres, posterior fossa, torcula No hydrocephalus
Mega cisterna magna
67
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic protrusion through the foramen of Magendie into the retrocerebellar region Vermis is normal but displaced up Dilated 4th ventricle Normal cerebellar hemispheres, posterior fossa, torcula Hydrocephalus
Blake Pouch
68
What do the following findings suggest? Hypoplastic vermis with dilatation of 4th ventricle Hypoplastic cerebellar hemisphere Normal posterior fossa + Torcula May have hydrocephalus
Variant DWM
69
What do the following findings suggest? Hypoplastic, elevated rotated vermis Cystic dilatation of 4th ventricle Normal cerebellar hemispheres displaced anterolaterally Expanded posterior fossa High insertion of torcula Hydrocephalus
Classic Dandy Walker Malformation
70
What do the following findings suggest? Focal areas of incomplete fusion anteriorly Mild fusion of frontal horns Normal thalamus Absent septum pellucidum + corpus callosum
Lobar Holoprosencephaly
71
What do the following findings suggest? Fused frontal lobes Body of lateral ventricles are 1 chamber, occipital and temporal horns are partially developed Fused thalamus Absent (Septum pellucidum + CC + Anterior inter hemispheric fissure + Anterior falx)
Semi-lobar Holoprosencephaly
72
What do the following findings suggest? Cerebral hemispheres fused with single midline ventricle Fused thalamus Absent (Septum pellucidum + CC + Interhemispheric fissure + Falx)
Alobar Holoprosencephaly
73
What do the following findings suggest? Cyclops eyes Cleft lip/palate Piriform aperture stenosis Mega incisor (Solitary median maxillary incisor)
Holoprosencephaly
74
What do the following findings suggest? Midline olfactory bulbs absent Absence of smell
Arhinencephaly
75
What do the following findings suggest? Occipital enceohalocele Multiple renal cysts Polydactylyl
Meckel Gruber syndrome - associated with Holoprosencephaly
76
What do the following findings suggest? Absent septum pellucidum Absent Optic chiasm and Optic nerves Associated with Schizencephaly
Septo-Optic dysplasia
77
What do the following findings suggest? Enlargement (Hamartomatous) of all parts of one cerebral hemisphere
Hemiemegalencephaly
78
What do the following findings suggest? Big cerebral hemisphere with big ventricle Hamartomatous overgrowth of all/part of cerebral hemisphere
Hemimegalencephaly
79
What do the following findings suggest? - Children - Small side cerebral hemisphere = atrophy + Ventricular dilatation - GWM blurring + Sulcal effacement - Big ventricle - Viral illness
Rasmussens Encephalitis
80
What do the following findings suggest? Unilateral skull thickening Expanded sinuses Superior sagittal sinus & fissure moved across the midline Due in utero or childhood stroke
Dyke-Davidoff Masson (Cerebral Hemi-atrophy)
81
What do the following findings suggest? Smooth cerebral surface Thick cortex Prominence of occipital horns Undermigration + cortical folding doesn't happen
Lissencephaly Classic type
82
What do the following findings suggest? Undermigration - 2nd layer of cortical neurons deep to superficial cortex Associated with seizures Gyral pattern is normal Subcortical band of heterotopic grey matter
Double cortex band heterotopia
83
What do the following findings suggest? Overmigration Additional layer of cortex (Gray matter) Cobblestone cortex Associated with congenital muscular dystrophy + retinal detachment
Lissencephaly Type II
84
What do the following findings suggest? Failed migration Neurons in periventricular region dont migrate - subependymal gray matter Associated with seizures Follow grey matter on all sequences and dont enhance
Periventricular nodular heterotopia
85
What do the following findings suggest? Fine undulating/bumpy cortex Most common adjacent to Sylvia fissures Excessive number of small folds
Polymicrogyria
86
What do the following findings suggest? Cleft lined with gray matter connecting CSF spaces with ventricular system
Schizencephaly
87
What do the following findings suggest? Cleft lined with grey matter connecting CSF spaces with ventricular system Less common No CSF filled cleft Grey matter running across corona radiata
Closed lip Schizencephaly
88
What do the following findings suggest? Cleft lined with grey matter connecting CSF spaces with ventricular system More common CSF filled cleft extending from ventricle to pial surface
Open lip Schizencephaly
89
What do the following findings suggest? Focal necrosis of both gray and white matter leading to cystic degeneration
Encephalomalacia
90
What do the following findings suggest? Brain cleft/hole from prior ischaemic event Encephalomalacia, lined by white matter Cyst/cleft can communicate with subarachnoid space or only ventricular system Cleft NOT lined with CSF
Porencephalic cyst/Porenchephaly
91
What do the following findings suggest? Absent cortical mantle Due to bilateral ICA occlusion Destruction of both cerebral hemispheres Cerebellum, midbrain and falx present
Hydranencephaly
92
What causes Hydranencephaly?
Herpes or CMV/Toxo
93
What do the following findings suggest? Cortical mantle present Falx present
Severe hydrocephalus
94
What do the following findings suggest? Cortical mantle present Falx absent
Holoprosencephaly - Alobar
95
What do the following findings suggest? Cortical mantle absent
Hydranencephaly
96
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of CSF + Meninges No brain
Meningocele
97
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of CSF + Brain + Meninges
Meningoencephalocele
98
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils >5 mm Associated with cervical cord syrinx
Chiari I malformation
99
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of cerebellar tonsils >5mm Cerebellar vermian displacement Low lying torcula Tectal beaking Hydrocephalus Clival hypoplasia + Lumbar myelomeningocele
Chiari II malformation
100
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of cerebellar tonsils >5mm Cerebellar vermian displacement Low lying torcula Tectal beaking Hydrocephalus Clival hypoplasia + Occipital Encephalocele
Chiari III malformation
101
What do the following findings suggest? Hippocampal volume loss Gliosis/Scar - High T2 Signal Loss of normal hippocampal morphology (Interdigitations) Contralateral amygdala enlargement Seizures
Mesial temporal sclerosis
102
Where is the hippocampus located?
Medial temporal lobe
103
What do the following findings suggest? Pachymeningeal engorement - enhancement Distension of dural venous sinuses Prominent intracranial vessels Pituitary engorgement Subdural hygroma/Haematoma Brainstem sagging + Acquired tonsillar ectopia
Intracranial hypotension
104
What do the following findings suggest? Slit like ventricles Partially empty sella Compression of venous sinuses Vertical tortuosity of optic nerves Flattening of posterior sclera
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
105
What do the following findings suggest? All ventricles enlarged Level of obstruction between basal cisterns and arachnoid granulations CSF can exit all ventricles
Communicating hydrocephalus
106
What do the following findings suggest? Upstream ventricles are enlarged Level of obstruction is within the ventricular system CSF cannot exit all the ventricles
Non-Communicating hydrocephalus
107
What do the following findings suggest? Urinary incontinence, confusion, ataxia >60yrs Ventricular size out of proportion with atrophy Upward bowing of corpus callosum Transependymal flow
Normal pressure hydrocephalus
108
What do the following findings suggest? Communicating hydrocephalus Middle aged Headache
Syndrome of Hydrocephalus in the young and middle aged adult
109
What do the following findings suggest? Web or diaphragm at aqueduct of sylvius Enlarged lateral & 3rd ventricles Normal 4th ventricle Thinning of cortical mantle
Aqueductal stenosis
110
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic structure in the subarachnoid space No solid components No restricted diffusion Can cause obstructive hydrocephalus
Arachnoid cysts
111
What do the following findings suggest? Debris within the ventricles DWI - Debris restricts diffusion Ventricular ependymal contrast enhancement
Ventriculitis
112
What do the following findings suggest? Loss of grey white matter differentiation Failed Na/K pump, BBB intact
Cytotoxic oedema
113
What do the following findings suggest? Oedema tracking through white matter, normal G/W matter differentiation Increased capillary permeability, BBB not intact Spares grey matter
Vasogenic oedema
114
What do the following findings suggest? Midline shift - deviation of ipsilateral ventricle and bowing of the falx
Subfalcine herniation
115
What is the complication of subfalcine herniation?
ACA compression + infarct
116
What do the following findings suggest? Uncus and hippocampus herniate through tensorial incisura Effacement of ipsilateral suprasellar cistern
Descending tentorial (Uncal) herniation
117
What are the complications of uncal herniation?
Duret haemorrhages - perforating basilar artery compression) CN 3 compression
118
What do the following findings suggest? Vermis herniates upwards through tentorial incisura Severe hydrocephalus Flattened quadrigeminal cistern smile
Ascending transtentorial herniation
119
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils down >5 mm
Cerebellar tonsil herniation
120
What do the following findings suggest? T2 bright central pons (Spares periphery) Restricted diffusion in lower pons
Osmotic demyelination
121
What do the following findings suggest? High T2/FLAIR in medial thalamus High T2/FLAIR in periaqueductal gray, mamillary bodies and tectal plate Enhancement in mamillary bodies
Wernicke Encephalopathy (Thiamine deficiency)
122
What do the following findings suggest? High T2/FLAIR in corpus callosum Seizures + Muscle rigidity Begins in CC body - genu - splenium Chronic: Thinned CC + Cystic cavities favouring genu + splenium
Machiafava Bignami
123
What do the following findings suggest? Brain atrophy - cerebellum and cerebellar vermis
Direct alcoholic injury
124
What do the following findings suggest? T1 bright basal ganglia
Copper & Manganese deposition
125
What do the following findings suggest? Optic nerve atrophy Haemorrhagic putamen Subcortical white matter necrosis T2 bright putamin CT Hyperdense putamin
Methanol toxicity
126
What do the following findings suggest? CT Hypodensity in globus pallidus T2 bright globus pallidus
Carbon monoxide
127
What do the following findings suggest? Asymmetric cortical and subcortical white matter oedema - parietal/occipital No restricted diffusion
PRES (Posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome)
128
What do the following findings suggest? Asymmetric cortical and subcortical white matter oedema - sparing the occipital lobes, favours basal ganglia, brainstem and cerebellum OR Periventricular white matter - bilateral T2/FLAIR high signal
Methotrexate changes
129
What do the following findings suggest? Ovoid/fusiform High T2/FLAIR lesions Central vein sign (Central linear low signal on SWI) Juxtacortical and periventricular Involves callososeptal interface May enhance (If active) T1 black holes (Severe) 20-40yrs
Multiple sclerosis
130
What are the McDonald criteria for MS?
- Disseminated in space - periventricular, juxtacortical, infratentoral, spinal cord - >1 in at least 2 locations - Dissemination in time - T2 high signal active lesions (Enhance) and inactive lesions (No enhancement)
131
What do the following findings suggest? C spine Short segment Lateral and dorsal columns Peripherally located high T2/FLAIR lesions
Spinal MS
132
What determines if an MS plaque is active?
Enhancement (May be incomplete ring) restricted diffusion
133
What do the following findings suggest? Young child Post viral illness/vaccination Multiple large T2 bright lesions enhancing in open ring pattern Patchy, large asymmetric white matter lesions Does not involve callososeptal interface Peripheral/incomplete ring enhancement
ADEM (Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis)
134
What do the following findings suggest? Transverse myelitis - long segment spinal cord enhancement >3 segments Optic neuritis - enhancing optic nerve Periependymal lesions, confluent. Dorsal medulla (Area postrema) High T2/FLAIR lesions in cord and optic nerve
Devics (Neuromyelitis optica)
135
What do the following findings suggest? High T2/FLAIR Favours white matter of centrum semiovale (Superior to lateral ventricles and CC) Spares ubcortical U fibers Associated with HTN >55yrs
Subcortical arteriosclerotic encephalopathy (SAE)/Binswanger
136
What do the following findings suggest?What do the following findings suggest? High T2/FLAIR Favours white matter of Frontal and temporal lobes Spares Occipital lobes Spares subcortical U fibers Associated with HTN <40yrs
CADASIL (Cerebral AD Arteriopathy with Subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy
137
What do the following findings suggest? Hippocampal atrophy (Medial temporal) Also biparietal atrophy Low posterior temporoparietal region + Posterior cingulate FDG uptake
Alzheimer disease
138
What do the following findings suggest? Cortical infarcts and lacunar infarcts Generalised brain atrophy Multiple scattered areas of decreased activity on FDG pet, no lobar predominance Motor strip may be involved
Vascular dementia
139
What do the following findings suggest? Mild generalised atrophy without lobar predominance Hippocampi normal in size Decreased FDG uptake in lateral occipital cortex + Spares posterior cingulate gyrus DAT Scan - decreased striatal uptake (full stop not comma)
Dementia with Lewy Bodies
140
What do the following findings suggest? Younger patient Severe asymmetric atrophy of frontal lobes - Anterior/Posterior gradient Milder volume loss in temporal lobes Low FDG uptake in frontal + temporal lobes
Frontotemporal dementia
141
What do the following findings suggest? Extensive basal ganglia and thalamus calcification Extensive calcification in cerebellar dentate nuclei
Fahr disease
142
What do the following findings suggest? Iron in globus pallidus T2 dark medial basal ganglia with central dot high signal (Necrosis) - Eye of the tiger No enhancement No restricted diffusion
Hallervorden Spatz
143
What do the following findings suggest? Caudate atrophy Reduced FDG uptake Frontal horns enlarged and outwardly convex
Huntingdon disease
144
What do the following findings suggest? Elevated lactate peak on spectroscopy T2/FLAIR bright lesions in brainstem, basal ganglia and cerebral peduncles Restricted diffusion No enhancement
Leigh disease
145
What do the following findings suggest? Atypical strokes in cortical gray matter with non-vascular distribution Occipital and parietal distribution Underlying WM normal Elevated lactate peak on spectroscopy
MELAS syndrome (Mitochondrial Encelopathy lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes)
146
What do the following findings suggest? Macrocephaly with metopic beak Beaked inferior L1 anterior vertebral body Enlarged perivascular spaces
Hurler syndrome (Lysosomal storage disease)
147
What do the following findings suggest? Sparing of midbrain and superior cerebellar peduncles DAT scan periods
Parkinsons disease
148
How can Parkinson's be distinguished from MSA?
In MSA there is atrophy of the middle cerebellar peduncle and pons/cerebellum Atrophy of the Putamen with High T2 rim
149
What do the following findings suggest? Cerebellar hemisphere/peduncle atrophy Shrunken flat pons Enlarged 4th ventricle Hot cross bun sign - loss of transverse fibres
MSA (Multisystem Atrophy)
150
What do the following findings suggest? Tegmentum atrophy with sparing of the tectum and peduncles Midbrain volume loss with concave upper surface + relative sparing of the pons
PSP (Progressive supra nuclear palsy)
151
What do the following findings suggest? T1 and T2 bright basal ganglia T2 bright dorsal medial thalamus T2 bright tegmenjtum with normal dark nuclei & substantia nigra Cortical atrophy on CT
Wilson disease
152
What do the following findings suggest? High NAA peak
Canavans disease
153
What is a demyelinating disease? What is a dysmyelinating disease?
Demyelinating = Disease that destroys normal myelin Dysmyelinating = Disrupts normal formation and turnover of myelin (leukodystrophy)
154
What do the following findings suggest? X linked Normal head size Parieto-occipital predominance High FLAIR signal Extends across splenium of CC Can restrict and enhance
Adrenoleukodystrophy
155
What do the following findings suggest? Normal head size Frontal predominance and periventricular and deep white matter tigroid pattern high FLAIR signal U fibers spared
Metachromatic
156
What do the following findings suggest? big head Frontal predominance high FLAIR signal Can enhance
Alexander disease
157
What do the following findings suggest? Big head Diffuse bilateral subcortical U fibers high FLAIR signal Elevated NAA
Canavan disease
158
What do the following findings suggest? Small head Centrum semiovale and periventricular white matter with parieto-occipital predominance high FLAIR signal - High density foci on CT (Thalamus, caudate, white matter) Sparing of subcortical U fibers
Krabbe disease
159
The following suggests an extra-axial or intra-axial lesion? CSF cleft Displaced subarachnoid vessels Cortical gray matter between mass and white matter Broad dural base/tail
Extra-axial
160
What are the causes of haemorrhagic brain mets?
Melanoma Renal Carcinoid/Choriocarcinoma Thyroid
161
The following are associated with which syndrome? Optic glioma Astrocytoma
NF 1
162
The following are associated with which syndrome? Multiple schwannomas Meningiomas Ependymomas
NF2
163
The following are associated with which syndrome? Subependymal tubers SEGA
Tuberous Sclerosis
164
The following are associated with which syndrome? Haemnagioblastoma
VHL
165
The following are typically located where in the brain? PXA DNET Oligodendroglioma Ganglioglioma
Cortically based
166
What do the following findings suggest? Supratentorial tumour - temporal lobe Cyst with nodule No peritumeral T2 signal Age 10-20 Will enhance Dural tail + lepto/pachy-meningeal enhancement
Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
167
What do the following findings suggest? Child <20 Seizures Temporal lobe Hypodense on CT High T2 signal bubbly/multicystic lesion, bright FLAIR Rim + loss of signal in bubbles Can have calcification Wedge shaped No enhancement, no restricted diffusion
DNET (Dysembryoplastic Neuroeptelial tumour)
168
What do the following findings suggest? >40yrs Calcification Frontal lobe Expands the cortex, cortical infiltration and marked thickening Can enhance No T2/FLAIR mismatch
Oligodendroglioma
169
What do the following findings suggest? Any age, usually young <30yrs Temporal lobe, or anywhere Seizures Cystic and solid with focal calcifications No oedema Calcification Can enhance
Ganglioglioma
170
The following lesions are found in which areas of the brain? Ependymoma Medulloblastoma SEGA Subependymoma Central neurocytoma
Ventricular wall & Septum pellucidum
171
The following lesions are found in which areas of the brain? Choroid plexus papilloma Choroid plexus carcinoma Xanthogranuloma
Choroid plexus
172
What do the following findings suggest? 6yrs or 30yrs Floor of 4th ventricle location, can extend to foramen of Magendie and Luschka Parenchymal supratentorial Large on presentation - well defined Cystic/haemorrhagic components Heterogenous enhancement Calcification
Ependymoma
173
What do the following findings suggest? <10yrs Cerebellar location - vermis/roof of 4th ventricle Projects into 4th ventricle Hyperdense on CT Heterogenous on T1 & T2, enhances homogeneously Restricted diffusion Can calcify Drop mets
Medulloblastoma
174
What do the following findings suggest? Medulloblastoma Dural calcifications Basal cell cancer Odontogenic cysts
Gorlin syndrome
175
What further imaging is required for a child with medulloblastoma or ependymoma?
Imaging of the whole neuraxis due to drop mets
176
What do the following findings suggest? Seizure Children Lateral wall of ventricle (Near foramen of Monro) Hydrocephalus Enhances homogeneously Calcification Will grow
SEGA
177
What do the following findings suggest? Seizure Children Ventricle location Hydrocephalus Enhances homogeneously Calcification Stays stable in size
Subependymal nodule
178
What do the following findings suggest? Young patient with subependymal nodules Enhancing, T1 + T2 heterogenous Partially calcified lesion Foramen of Monro >5 mm
SEGA
179
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Interventricular mass - Foramen of Monroe or 4th ventricle Well circumscribed, expansile Hydrocephalus Does not enhance T2 bright
Subependymoma
180
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Lateral ventricles around foramen of Monro Calcifications Cystic spaces on T2, heterogenous enhancement, Diffusion restriction of solid component
Central neurocytoma
181
What do the following findings suggest? adults Interventricular mass Hydrocephalus 4th ventricle or lateral ventricle Post contrast enhancement
Choroid plexus papilloma
182
What do the following findings suggest? <5yrs children Interventricular mass Hydrocephalus Trigone of lateral ventricle Solitary
Choroid plexus carcinoma
183
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic lesion with Restricted diffusion Choroid plexus mass Benign Adult
Choroid plexus Xanthogranuloma
184
What is the most common location of intraventircular mets?
Trigone of lateral ventricles
185
What do the following findings suggest? Anterior part of 3rd ventricle behind foramen of Monro T1 dark, T2 bright Round well circumscribed mass Hyperdense on CT
Colloid cyst
186
What do the following findings suggest? Anterior part of 3rd ventricle behind foramen of monro T1 bright T2 dark Round well circumscribed mass Hyperdense on CT
Cholesterol colloid cyst
187
How can colloid cysts cause death?
Via acute onset hydrocephalus, assess for transepedymal oedema
188
What do the following findings suggest? Trigone of lateral ventricles or any intraventricular location Homogenously enhancing mass
Intraventricular meningioma
189
What are the differentials for a mass in the trigone of the lateral ventricle in a person >40yrs?
Mets Lymphoma Meningioma
190
What do the following findings suggest? CP Angle location Enhances strongly & Heterogenous Widens porus acousticus - ice cream cone IAC Can have cystic degeneration/haemorhhage Acute angle with petrous temporal bone
Vestibular Schwannoma
191
What do the following findings suggest? CP Angle location Enhances homogeneously Doesn't invade the IAC Calcification Dural tail, hyperostosis at tail Obtuse angle with petrous temporal bone
CP Angle meningioma
192
What do the following findings suggest? Off midline Follow CSF density on CT and MRI Bright on FLAIR Restrict diffusion
Epidermoid
193
The following lesions are found in which location commonly? Vestibular Schwannoma Meningioma Epidermoid Dermoid cyst Arachnoid cyst
CP Angle
194
What do the following findings suggest? Kids/Young adults Midline Suprasellar cistern/Posterior fossa Hypodense on CT Bright on T1
Dermoid cyst
195
What is the most common location for a dermoid cyst?
Suprasellar cistern
196
What do the following findings suggest? Fat droplets (Low on CT or High on T1) Floating in the ventricles or subarachnoid space
Ruptured dermoid
197
How do you differentiate a dermoid from an epidermoid?
Epidermoid behaves like CSF Dermoid behaves like fat
198
What do the following findings suggest? CP angle location T1 bright Fat saturation May have SNHL
IAC Lipoma
199
What do the following findings suggest? Subarachnoid space location CSF signal on all sequences No restricted diffusion Dark on FLAIR Well defined cystic lesion
Arachnoid cyst
200
What is the common location of the following lesions? Atypical teratoma/Rhabdoid tumour Medulloblastoma/Ependymoma JPA Haemangioblastoma
Infratentorial
201
What do the following findings suggest? <6yrs Supra or infratentorial location Most common in cerebellum Large Necrotic features Heterogenous enhancement Calcifications
Atypical teratoma/Rhabdoid tumour
202
What do the following findings suggest? Cyst with nodule Child <15yrs No flow voids, cyst wall enhances Enhancing nodule Posterior fossa or optic chiasm T2 bright
Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma (JPA)
203
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Cyst with nodule Nodule is isodense on CT, Low T1, T2 high, contrast enhancement Flow voids along periphery of cyst Cerebellum
Haemangioblastoma
204
What do the following findings suggest? <10yrs Pons T2 bright Subtle or no enhancement Flattens 4th ventricle
Diffuse pontine glioma
205
What is the most common brain tumour in adults?
Astrocytoma
206
What do the following findings suggest? No or mild enhancement Diffuse white matter T2 high signal Vasogenic oedema FLAIR Iso intense - bright rim to lesion Expansile lesion, subcortical
Astrocytoma - G2/3 or Anaplastic astrocytoma
207
What do the following findings suggest? White matter T2 high signal Can cross midline Ring enhancement/Diffuse enhancement FLAIR bright
GBM (G4 astrocytoma)
208
What do the following findings suggest? Diffuse glioma with extensive infiltration At least 3 lobes involved Bilateral Blurring of GW differentiation on CT Extensive T2 high signal and little mass effect on MR No enhancement if low grade
Gliomatosis cerebri
209
What do the following findings suggest? Irregular margin brain lesion Multifocal Favours GW matter junction
Metastases
210
What do the following findings suggest? AIDS/Post transplant Necrotic haemorrhagic lesion with peripheral enhancement Heterogenous Multifocal
Immunodefieincy associated CNS lymphoma
211
What do the following findings suggest? Immunocompetent Parenchymal mass abutting ventricular surface + Solitary (Periventricular) Hyperdense on CT Intensely enhancing homogenous solid mass with enhancement + restricted diffusion Thick and irregular periventricular enhancement
Primary CNS lymphoma
212
What do the following findings suggest? Thin smooth linear periventricular enhancement
Ependymitis e.g. CMV
213
What is the most common type of primary CNS lymphoma?
Non hodgkin B cell
214
What do the following findings suggest? Large cystic tumour Superficial cerebral cortex/Leptomeninges Supratentorial location Involve >1 lobe <1yr old child Rapidly increasing head circumference
Desmoblastic infantile ganglioma
215
What do the following findings suggest? Midline (Clivus or C2 or Sacrum) T2 bright lesion
Chordoma
216
What do meningiomas over the cerebral convexity cause?
Hyperostosis
217
What do the following findings suggest? Soft tissue extra-axial lesion Enhance homogeneously Dural tail with narrow base of dural attachment No calcification No hyperostosis Invasion of skull Lobulated with vessels along periphery
Haemangiopericytoma
218
What is the most common primary cancer to metastasise to the dura?
Breast cancer
219
The following lesions are found in which intracranial location? Pituitary adenoma Pituitary apoplexy Rathke cleft cyst Epidermoid Cranioparyngioma
Sella/Parasella
220
What do the following findings suggest? Sella location may extend to suprasellar Gland & mass inseparable T1 dark T2 bright lesion Uptake contrast slower than normal pituitary
Pituitary adenoma
221
What distinguishes a macro- from micro- adenoma?
Macroadenoma > 10 mm Microadenoma <10 mm
222
Where do microadenomas typically form?
Adenohypophysis (Anterior 2/3)
223
What do the following findings suggest? T1 bright pituitary (Haemorrhage) Pituitary enlargement
Pituitary apoplexy
224
What do the following findings suggest? Lesion between anterior and posterior pituitary Cystic + Intra-cystic nodule Bright T1 + Dark on T2 T1 variable T2 very bright No enhancement of cyst
Rathke cleft cyst
225
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Solid lesion No calcifications Strong enhancement Along the infundibulum
Papillary Craniopharyngioma
226
Which type of craniopharyngioma is found in adults?
Papillary - less common
227
What do the following findings suggest? Child Calcified + cystic Sella turcica region - displaces pituitary gland T1 bright, T2 bright, Enhance strongly Solid lesion
Adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma
228
What do the following findings suggest? Hamartoma of tuber cinereum - hypothalamus b/w mamillary bodies and optic chiasm T1 iso, T2, iso, no enhancement Gelastic seizures + Precocious puberty
Hypothalamic hamartoma
229
When a patient presents with vertical gaze palsy what are the differentials?
Germinoma Pineoblastoma Pineocytoma Pineal cyst
230
What do the following findings suggest? Pineal region Precocious puberty Mass containing fat and central calcification Variable contrast enhancement Heterogenous on T1 and T2 (Mixed)
Germinoma
231
What do the following findings suggest? Childhood Pineal region Invasive Associated with retinoblastoma Heterogenous Enhance vividly Peripheral calcifications (Expanded)
Pineoblastoma
232
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Pineal region Well circumscribed Non-invasive Solid with expanded calcification pattern Enhancement of solid components
Pineocytoma
233
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic lesion in pineal region May have thin enhancement T1 dark T2 bright
Pineal cyst
234
If you have a supratentorial lesion with diffusion restriction what are the differentials?
Abscess Lymphoma
235
What are the differentials for a lesion that crosses the midline in the brain?
GBM Lymphoma MS
236
What causes T1 brightness, and what are the differentials?
Fat - dermoid + lipoma Melanin - Melanoma Blood - Bleeding met/tumour Cholesterol - Colloid cyst
237
What do the following findings suggest? Dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma Breast cancer
Cowdens
238
What do the following findings suggest? Tiger stripe mass in one cerebellar hemisphere
Dysplastic cerebellar gangliocytoma (Lhermitte duclos) Think breast cancer (Cowdens)
239
What do the following findings suggest? Periventricular tissue necrosis Periventricular calcifications Polymicrogyria
CMV (Neonatal)
240
What do the following findings suggest? Random calcification pattern + Basal ganglia calcifications Hydrocephalus
Toxoplasmosis (Neonatal)
241
What do the following findings suggest? Neonate Subependymal cysts Haemorrhage Focal high T2 signal in white matter Vasculopathy and ischaemia Fewer calcifications
Rubella
242
What do the following findings suggest? Neonate Thrombus and haemorrhagic infarct with encephalomalacia and atrophy Hydranencephaly
HSV 2
243
What do the following findings suggest? Neonate Faint basal ganglia enhancement on CT/MR Brain atrophy favouring frontal lobes Fusiform aneurysms
HIV
244
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
Toxoplasmosis
245
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Symmetric increased T2/FLAIR in the deep white matter Normal T1 Basal ganglia calcifications Spares subcortical U fibers No enhancement Associated brain atrophy
HIV Encephalitis
246
What do the following findings suggest? Adult Single/multiple scattered hypodensities with T1 hypo density T2/FLAIR high signal out of proportion with mass effect Involves subcortical U fibers Bilateral, peripheral & Asymmetrical Parieto-occipital signal crossing splenium of CC
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Caused by JC virus)
247
What do the following findings suggest? Brain atrophy - cerebellar Periventricular hypo densities T2/FLAIR high signal Thin ependymal enhancement Adult
CMV
248
What do the following findings suggest? Leptomeningeal enhancement Dilated perivascular spaces filled with mucoid material that doesn't enhance Basal ganglia lesions - T1 dark T2 bright, ring enhancement
Cryptococcus
249
What do the following findings suggest? T1 dark, T2 bright ring enhancing lesions Target sign on FLAIR No restricted diffusion Perilesional oedema
Toxoplasmosis
250
What do the following findings suggest? Basal cisterns - enhancement of basilar meninges with minimal nodularity Dystrophic calcifications Hydrocephalus
TB Meningitis or sarcoid
251
What type of HSV is found in adults v neonates?
Adults = HSV 1 Neonates = HSV 2
252
What do the following findings suggest? Oedema in temporal lobe (Medial), inferior frontal lobes T2 high signal - may be bilateral Spares basal ganglia Enhancement + Leptomeningeal enhancement Restricted diffusion in region of oedema Blooming due to haemorrhage
HSV 1 Encephalitis
253
What do the following findings suggest? Oedema in temporal lobe (Medial) T2 high signal - may be bilateral Spares basal ganglia Restricted diffusion in region of oedema May have blooming due to haemorrhage HSV negative
Limbic Encephalitis (Paraneoplastic syndrome)
254
What do the following findings suggest? T2 bright basal ganglia and thalamus Restricted diffusion May have haemorrhage
West nile virus encephalitis
255
What do the following findings suggest? Cortical gyriform restricted diffusion May involve basal ganglia Bilateral FLAIR bright dorsal medial thalamus Bilateral FLAIR bright posterior thalamus Rapidly progressive atrophy No enhancement or white matter involvement
CJD
256
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic lesions + internal nodule (enhances) Hyperdense cyst Oedema May have calcification and blooming on SWI
Neurocysticercosis
257
What do the following findings suggest? Thick leptomeningeal enhancement
Meningitis
258
What is meant by: Leptomeningeal Pachymeningeal
Leptomeningeal = Pia + Arachnoid Pachymeningeal = Dura
259
What do the following findings suggest? Enhancement of the meninges that does not extend to the sulci
Pachymeningeal enhancement
260
What are the causes of pachymeningeal enhancement?
Intracranial hypotension Dural attachment of meningioma Sarcoid TB Wegeners
261
What do the following findings suggest? Dural enhancement with contrast rim Restricted diffusion Subdural/Epidural collection
Dural Empyema
262
What do the following findings suggest? CT - focal area of low density with surrounding low density vasogenic oedema MR - Smooth ring enhancement, T2 high signal within lesions and oedema Restricted diffusion internally
Bacterial abscess
263
What is suggested by the following forms of ring enhancement Smooth ring Irregular ring
Smooth ring = Abscess Irregular ring = Tumour
264
What do the following findings suggest? Vasogenic oedema without well defined central enhancing lesion Spotty restricted diffusion Infective symptoms/signs
Cerebritis
265
What do the following enhancement patterns suggest as the pathology? Heterogenous Ring Incomplete ring Gyriform
Heterogenous = Tumour Ring = Abscess/Tumour Incomplete ring = Demylinating lesion Gyriform = Subacute stroke
266
What do the following findings suggest? Hyperdensity +/- hypointense oedema Anterior temporal lobes Inferior frontal lobes
Parenchymal contusion
267
What do the following findings suggest? May have normal CT Head Posterior CC, Frontal and Temporal lobe location GW matter location Multiple small T2 high signal foci
Diffuse axonal injury
268
What do the following findings suggest? Crescent shape hyper dense collection Crosses sutures Does not cross the midline
Subdural haematoma
269
What do the following findings suggest? Lens shaped Skull fracture Does not cross sutures Can cross midline
Epidural haematoma
270
What is the age of the following haemorrhage? Hypodense on CT
Hyperacute <1hr Chronic >3 weeks
271
What is the age of the following haemorrhage? Hyperdense on CT
Acute (1hr - 3 days)
272
What is the age of the following haemorrhage? Less dense on CT, becoming isodense to brain May have peripheral rim enhancement
Subacute (4 days - 3 weeks)
273
What is the pneumonic for MR signal of haemorrhage?
I Bleed, I Die, Bleed Die, Bleed Bleed, Die Die
274
What do the following findings in haemorrhage suggest? T1 Iso T2 Bright
Hyperacute haemorrhage <24hrs Oxyhemoglobin + Intracellular
275
What dot the following findings in haemorrhage suggest? T1 iso T2 Dark
Acute haemorrhage <3 days Deoxyhaemoglobin + Intracellular
276
The following bleed appears as what signal on MR? Early subacute >3 days Methaemoglobin Intracellular
T1 Bright T2 Dark
277
How does the following bleed appear on MRI? Late subacute >7 days Methemoglobin Extracellular
T1 Bright T2 Bright
278
What does the following bleed present as on MRI Chronic >14 days Haemosiderrin, Extracellular
T1 Dark T2 Dark Centre - is high on T2
279
What is the most sensitive sequence on MRI for SAH?
FLAIR
280
What do the following findings suggest? Haemorrhage in midbrain and pons without extension to lateral Sylvia cisterns or interhemispheric fissure (Anterior to brainstem)
Benign Perimesencephalic haemorrhage
281
What do the following findings suggest? Repeated SAH Curvilinear low signal on GE coating surface of brain SNHL Ataxia
Superficial siderosis
282
What do the following findings suggest? Diffuse cerebral oedema - low attenuation brain Collapse of subarachnoid spaces appearing hyper density
Pseudosubarachnoid haemorrhage
283
What do the following findings suggest? Multiple dark spots on GE imaging Young patient Multiple central haemorrhagic foci in hypertensive young patient
Hypertensive microangiopathy
284
What do the following findings suggest? Basal ganglia, pons, cerebellum hyperdensity on CT
Hypertensive haemorrhage
285
What do the following findings suggest? Multiple dark spots on GE imaging Older patient Multiple peripheral haemorrhagic foci in normotensive elderly patient Convexity SAH
Amyloid angiopathy
286
What do the following findings suggest? Multiple small foci of restricted diffusion GWM interface and basal ganglia
Septic emboli
287
The following parts of the brain are supplied by which vessel? Parietal lobe
MCA
288
The following parts of the brain are supplied by which vessel? Medial frontal and parietal lobes
ACA
289
The following parts of the brain are supplied by which vessel? Occipital lobe
PCA
290
What do the following findings suggest? Dense MCA sign Insular ribbon sign Loss of GWM differentiation
Subacute infarct
291
What do the following findings suggest? Bilateral thalamic hypo densities
Artery of Percheron infarct or Basilar tip thrombus
292
What do the following findings suggest? Caudate hypo density
Recurrent artery of heubner infarct
293
What do the following findings suggest? Dense venous sinus on non-con CT Empty delta on Contrast enhanced CT Heterogenous diffusion restriction
Venous infarct
294
What do the following findings suggest? Reduced CBF Increased CBV Increased MTT
Infarct penumbra (May benefit from reperfusion)
295
What do the following findings suggest? Reduced CBF Reduced CBV
Infarct core
296
What is the most common site of cerebral aneurysm?
Anterior communicating artery
297
What do the following findings suggest? Widened elongated twisty appearance of the basilar artery
Dolichoectasia of the basilar artery
298
What are the common sites of saccular aneurysms?
ACA M1/M2 junction ICA/PComm junction Basilar tip PICA
299
What do the following findings suggest? Fusiform aneurysm
Vasculitidites - PAN, Syphillis
300
The following locations of bleeding suggest aneurysms in which location? Interhemispheric fissure Ipsilateral basal cistern Sylvian fissure
Interhemispheric fissure = ACOM Ipsilateral basal cistern = PCOM Sylvian fissure = MCA Trifurcation
301
The following locations of bleeding suggest aneurysms in which location? - Interpeduncular cistern or intraventricular - Posterior Fossa
Basilar tip = Interpeduncular cistern or intraventricular PICA = Posterior Fossa
302
What do the following findings suggest? Supratentorial location Arterial component Nidus - calcified Draining veins Adjacent vein may be gliotic (T2 bright) and atrophic
High flow AVM
303
What do the following findings suggest? High/Low flow No nidus Acquired
Dural AVF
304
What is the most common high flow vascular malformation?
High flow AVM
305
What is the most common type of AVF?
Spinal AVF
306
What do the following findings suggest? Caput medusa - collection of vessels converging towards enlarged vein on venous phase Halo of T2 bright gliosis
DVA
307
What should be considered if a patient has a bleeding DVA?
There is an associated cavernoma
308
What do the following findings suggest? Popcorn like peripheral rim of haemosiderin on GE No intervening normal tissue Fluid fluid level = intralesional haemorrhage
Cavernous malformation - cavernoma
309
What do the following findings suggest? Brush like or stippled pattern enhancement GE - blooming Low flow with intervening normal tissue Single lesion in pons is most common Doesn't bleed
Capillary telangiectasia
310
Is choroid plexus found in the following locations? Frontal/Occipital horn of lateral ventricles Cerebral aqueduct
No
311
What do the following findings suggest? Calcifications of subependymal nodules Caudothalamic groove/atrium Older patient
Tuberous Sclerosis
312
What do the following findings suggest? subcortical calcification (seen at an earlier age than plain film) and associated parenchymal volume loss Tram track/double lined gyriform pattern parallel to cerebral folds
Sturge weber
313
Which brain tumours calcify?
Oligodendroglioma Ependymoma Astrocytoma Glioblastoma
314
What do the following findings suggest? Smooth long segments of intracranial vessel stenosis Post SAH Multiple vascular territories
Vasospasm
315
What do the following findings suggest? T1 bright intramural blood adjacent to vessel (Crescent sign)
Vascular dissection
316
Which systemic vasculitides can have CNS involvement?
PAN Temporal arteritis Wegeners Takayasu's
317
What do the following findings suggest? Multiple segmental areas of vessel narrowing Alternating dilation (Beaded appearance) Focal areas of vascular occlusion
Vasculitis
318
What is the most common systemic vasculitis to involve the CNS?
PAN
319
What do the following findings suggest? Progressive non-atherosclerotic stenosis of the supraclinoid ICA May lead to occlusion Enlargement of basal perforating arteries - puff of smoke
Moyamoya
320
In a child what is the common cause for Moyamoya?
Sickle cell
321
What do the following findings suggest? Depressed blood flow and metabolism affecting the cerebellar hemisphere after contralateral supratentorial insult (Infarct, tumour resection/radiation) On FDG PET - criss crossed hypo metabolic appearance
Crossed cerebellar diaschisis
322
What do the following findings suggest? Face separated from cranium Zygomatic arch and lateral orbital rim wall
Le Fort 3 fracture
323
What do the following findings suggest? Maxilla separated from face Inferior orbital rim and orbital floor
Le Fort 2 fracture
324
What do the following findings suggest? Palate separated from maxilla Anterolateral margin of nasal fossa
Le Fort 1 fracture
325
Which fracture is shared by all 3 Le fort fractures?
Pterygoid process fracture
326
What do the following findings suggest? Airless expanded sinus T1 bright Thin rim of enhancement Frontal sinus
Mucocele
327
What type of temporal bone fracture is this? Long axis of Temporal bone More common Ossicular dislocation Conductive hearing loss
Longitudinal temporal bone fracture
328
What type of temporal bone fracture is this? Short axis of temporal bone Less common Vascular injury (Carotid/jugular) Facial nerve injury SNHL
Transverse temporal fracture
329
What is the location of the pars flaccida and tensa?
Pars Flaccida = Top Pars Tensa = Bottom
330
What do the following findings suggest? Grows at top of tympanic membrane in prussaks space Scutum eroded early Malleus displaced medially Long process of incus eroded Restricted diffusion CT - Soft tissue density
Pars Flaccida Cholesteatoma
331
What do the following findings suggest? Bony defect creating abnormal communication between inner ear and tympanic cavity Associated with cholesteatoma - affects Lateral SCC Air in semicircular canal
Labyrinthine fistula
332
What do the following findings suggest? Poorly pneumatised mastoid air cells Middle ear opacification Thickened mucosa No displacement of ossicular chain
Chronic otitis media
333
What do the following findings suggest? Hx of childhood meningitis Ossification of the membranous labyrinth SNHL
Labryrinthitis Ossificans
334
What do the following findings suggest? Cochlea and SCC show enhancing on T1 post contrast
Labrynthitis
335
Is enhancement of these segments of the facial nerve normal or abnormal? Tympanic and mastoid segments, Labryinthine segments
Normal
336
Is enhancement of these segments of the facial nerve normal or abnormal? Cisternal Cannalicular Extratemporal
Abnormal (Bells palsy, cancer, Lymes, Ramsey Hunt)
337
What do the following findings suggest? Viral Abnormal enhancement in canalicular segment of CN 7 (In IAC)
Bells palsy
338
What do the following findings suggest? Abnormal enhancement of CN7 (Canalicular segment) and CN 5 Rash around ear
Ramsey Hunt (Reactivation of VZV virus)
339
What do the following findings suggest? Bony resorption (Lytic) anterior to the oval window
Fenestral otosclerosis
340
What do the following findings suggest? More severe Demineralisation around the cochlea Lytic bone resorption SNHL Bilateral and symmetric
Retrofenestral otosclerosis
341
What do the following findings suggest? Absence of bony covering of the superior SCC Noise induced vertigo
Superior semicircular canal dehiscence
342
What do the following findings suggest? Enlargement of the vestibular aqueduct (>1.5mm) Progressive SNHL Bilateral usually
Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome (Failure of endolymphatic sac to resorb endolymph)
343
What do the following findings suggest? Basal turn is normal Middle and apical turns fuse into cystic apex (1.5 turns) SNHL - high frequency preserved Large vestibular aqueduct and vestibule Common
Mondini malformation
344
What do the following findings suggest? Total deafness Absent cochlea, vestibule, and vestibular aqueduct Rare
Michaels Aplasia/Complete labyrinthine aplasia
345
What do the following findings suggest? Internal amorphous calcifications on CT T2 bright intense enhancement Vascular, flow voids
Endolymphatic sac tumour
346
What are endolymphatic sac tumours associated with?
VHL
347
What do the following findings suggest? Avid enhancement of lesion in the jugular fossa Salt and pepper appearance - flow voids on MR Permeative bone destruction FDG avid
Paraganglioma
348
What do the following findings suggest? Hypertrophied arterial vessel running from tympanic cavity to join horizontal carotid canal Pulsatile tinnitus
Aberrant internal carotid artery
349
What do the following findings suggest? Otomastoiditis Trigeminal neuropathy Lateral rectus palsy
Gradenigo syndrome (Infection of Dorellos canal - most medial point of petrous ridge)
350
What do the following findings suggest? Lesion in petrous apex well defined on CT T1 & T2 bright, T2 dark haemosiderin rim Faint peripheral enhancement No restriction Smooth expansile bony change
Cholesterol granuloma
351
What do the following findings suggest? Petrous apex lesion T1 dark T2 bright Restricted diffusion Smooth expansile bony change
Cholesteatoma (Epidermoid)
352
What do the following findings suggest? Swollen EAC soft tissues Small abscess in EAC Adjacent bony destruction
Otitis externa
353
What do the following findings suggest? Overgrowth of tissue in the ear canal Bilateral Can look like bone if chronic
External auditory canal exostosis
354
What do the following findings suggest? Overgrowth of normal bone in the EAC Unilateral
External auditory canal osteoma
355
What do the following findings suggest? EAC doesn't form Conductive deafness
EAC Atresia
356
What are the differentials for a hyperdense sinus?
Blood Inspissated secretions Fungus
357
What do the following findings suggest? Opacification of multiple sinuses usually bilateral Favours ethmoid & maxillary sinus Normal immune system CT - Hyperdense centrally with layers, can erode and remodel walls if chronic T1/T2 dark If mucosa inflamed - enhancement, but not the hyper density
Allergic fungal sinusitis
358
What do the following findings suggest? Opacification of multiple sinuses Stranding/extension into fat around sinuses Immunocompromised CT - Opacified sinus (Not hyaperdense), fat stranding in orbit, may not be bone destruction MR - T1/T2 dark, turbinate mucosa may not enhance (Necrotic- black turbinate), extension outside sinus High on STIR and enhancing
Acute Invasive fungal sinusitis
359
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation of paranasal sinuses lasting >12 weeks May cause obstruction of the sinus ostia
Chronic inflammatory sinonasal disease
360
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation of paranasal sinuses Limited to maxillary sinus Due to obstruction at ipsilateral ostium/infundibulum
Infundibular chronic inflammatory sinonasal disease (Most common)
361
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation of paranasal sinuses - ipsilateral maxillary, frontal and ethmoid Centered on middle meatus
Ostiomeatal unit pattern chronic inflammatory sinonasal disease
362
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation of paranasal sinuses Bony remodelling and erosion Widening of the infundibulum
Sinonasal polyposis (Associated with CF/Aspirin sensitivity)
363
What do the following findings suggest? Maxillary sinus opacification, passes through and enlarges sinus ostium Widening of maxillary ostium No bony destruction Peripheral enhancement
Antrochoanal polyp
364
What do the following findings suggest? Young male Nidus centered on sphenopalatine foramen Bone remodelling - bowing of posterior maxillary wall, no destruction Vascular (Enhancing) + Flow voids on MR
Juvenile Nasal Angiofibroma
365
What do the following findings suggest? Lateral wall of nasal cavity Middle turbinate Focal hyperostosis at tumour origin Cerebriform pattern on MR - T1/T2 similar to brain, high/low signal lines
Inverted Papilloma
366
What cancer is associated with inverted papilloma?
Squamous cell cancer
367
What do the following findings suggest? Cribiform plate location Dumbell appearance grows into skull and sinuses Cystic solid lesion
Esthesioneuroblastoma
368
What is the most common head and neck cancer?
Squamous cell cancer
369
What do the following findings suggest? Maxillary antrum lesion Low T2 Enhances less than other sinuses
Squamous cell cancer
370
Which part of the nose is typically involved in nasal septal perforation?
Anterior septal cartilaginous area
371
What is the most common salivary duct affected by sialolithiasis?
Submandibular gland (Whartons)
372
What do the following findings suggest? Infection involving submandibular space and sublingual space Gas present in these spaces Fat stranding
Ludwigs Angina (Floor of mouth cellulitis)
373
What do the following findings suggest? Bony exostosis coming off hard palate in midline
Torus Palatinus (Normal variant)
374
What do the following findings suggest? Lucency in the mandible Previous bisphosphonate treatment
Osteonecrosis of the mandible
375
What do the following findings suggest? Cystic lesion Lateral - arising from sublingual gland/space Plunging under mylohyoid muscle into submandibular space
Ranula
376
What do the following findings suggest? Midline Cystic mass - thin walled
Thyroglossal duct cyst
377
What do the following findings suggest? Sac of marbles - fluid sac with globules of fat Midline
Floor of mouth dermoid/epidermoid
378
What do the following findings suggest? Young adult with new level II neck mass (Necrotic nodes)
HPV related Squamous cell carcinoma
379
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation from dental caries around root Cystic degeneration around periodontal ligament Apex of non-vital tooth Well corticated border <2cm
Periapical cyst (Radicular cyst)
380
What do the following findings suggest? Cyst forming around crown of un-erupted tooth Expansile and unilocular Displace and resorb teeth adjacent to it
Dentigerous cyst
381
What do the following findings suggest? Mandibular ramus or body Uni/Multilocular Expansile, sharp margins Associated with root, no infection Along length of bone, no significant cortical expansion
Keratogenic Odontogenic tumour
382
What do the following findings suggest? Multicystic with solid components - soap bubbles Expansion of the mandible Tooth root absorption Permeative cortical bone erosion
Ameloblastoma (Adamantinoma of jaw)
383
What do the following findings suggest? Start out lucent then becomes solid when mature Radiodense with lucent rim Large with fluffy calcifications
Odontoma
384
What do the following findings suggest? 30-40yrs Osteoid matrix lesion Wide zone of transition
Osteosarcoma of Mandible
385
The following are found in which neck space? Parotid gland CN 7 Retromandibular vein
Parotid space
386
What do the following findings suggest? Most common in parotid (Superficial lobe) Hypoechoic with posterior acoustic enhancement T1 low, T2 high signal, rim of low signal, homogenous enhancement
Pleomorphic adenoma
387
How is the parotid gland divided into superficial and deep?
Superficial = Lateral to facial nerve Deep = Medial to facial nerve
388
What do the following findings suggest? Parotid gland - Tail Male smoker Solid cystic, bilateral US: ovoid, with well-defined margins and multiple irregular, small, sponge-like anechoic areas T1: low to intermediate signal T2: heterogeneous T1 C+ (Gd): cystic components do not take up contrast while solid parts usually enhance
Warthins tumour
389
Between Pleomorphic adenoma and Warthins, which only occurs in the parotid gland?
Warthins tumours
390
What is the most common malignant tumour of the minor salivary glands?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
391
Which salivary gland tumour is associated with perineural spread?
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
392
What do the following findings suggest? Bilateral homogenous parotid gland lesions
Lymphoma (Associated with Sjogrens disease)
393
What do the following findings suggest? Dry eyes and mouth Female 60s Honeycombed appearance of salivary glands
Sjogrens disease
394
What do the following findings suggest? Bilateral mixed solid and cystic lesions Diffusely enlarged parotid glands HIV Painless
Benign lymphoepithelial disease
395
What do the following findings suggest? Painful parotid gland Duct dilatation Heterogenous parotid gland Diffusely enlarged parotid
Acute parotitis
396
What neck space contains these? Fat Branches of CN 5 Pterygoid veins
Parapharyngeal space
397
If there is a mass in the carotid space, which direction will it displace the parapharyngeal space?
Anterior displacement
398
If there is a mass in the Parotid space, which direction will it displace the parapharyngeal space?
Medial displacement
399
If there is a mass in the Masticator space, which direction will it displace the parapharyngeal space?
Posterior + Medial displacement
400
If there is a mass in the Superficial mucosal space, which direction will it displace the parapharyngeal space?
Lateral displacement
401
What neck space contains these? Carotid artery Jugular vein CN9, 10, 11 Internal jugular chain lymph nodes
Carotid space
402
What do the following findings suggest? Salt and pepper on MRI Carotid bifurcation location Splaying of ECA & ICA
Carotid body tumour
403
What do the following findings suggest? Salt and pepper on MRI Skull base Destruction of jugular foramen Middle ear floor destroyed
Glomus Jugulare
404
What do the following findings suggest? Salt and pepper on MRI Above carotid bifurcation, below jugular foramen
Glomus vagale
405
What do the following findings suggest? Salt and pepper on MRI Confined to middle ear Overlies cochlear promotory Middle ear floor intact
Glomus tympanicum
406
What do the following findings suggest? Oval mass Heterogenous (Cystic and solid) Heterogenous high T2 signal Solid component enhancement
Schwannoma
407
What do the following findings suggest? Homogenous lesion T2 with decreased central signal + bright rim Mild heterogenous enhancement
Neurofibroma
408
What do the following findings suggest? Torticollis with Atlanto-axial joint inflammation Retropharyngeal abscess
Grisels syndrome
409
Which space contains the following: Muscles of mastication Angle + Ramus of mandible Inferior alveolar nerve
Masticator space
410
Where is the danger space?
Posterior retropharygeal space and behind alar fascia
411
What is the risk of infection in the danger space/retropharyngeal?
Can spread into the mediastinum
412
What are the nodes located in the lateral retropharyngeal region called?
Nodes of Rouviere
413
What is the most common location for nasopharyngeal cancer?
Fossa of Rosenmuller
414
What should be considered if a patient presents with Hoarse voice?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve compression in AP window (Mass/node/Aortic pathology) Laryngeal cancer
415
What is the most common cause of laryngeal cancer? What is the most common location?
Squamous cell carcinoma Glottic region
416
What do the following findings suggest? Orbital mass Calcification in the globe Normal or big globe <3yrs Can be bilateral
Retinoblastoma
417
What do the following findings suggest? Orbital mass Small globe Boys, unilateral No calcification CT - Dense T1 + T2 high signal
Coats disease (Retinal telangectasia leading to leaky blood and exudate)
418
What do the following findings suggest? Small eye Increased density of vitreous humour No calcification
Persistent hyper plastic primary vitreous (Failure of embryonic occular blood supply to regress)
419
What do the following findings suggest? V shaped retina
Retinal detachment
420
What is the most common intra-ocular lesion in an adult? Enhancing soft tissue mass in back of eye
Melanoma
421
What do the following findings suggest? <20 yrs Expansion and enlargement of entire optic nerve
Optic nerve glioma
422
What do the following findings suggest? Tram track calcifications of the optic nerve Circumferential enhancement around the optic nerve
Optic nerve sheath meningioma
423
What is the most common congenital orbital mass?
Dermoid
424
What do the following findings suggest? Superior and lateral orbit Arises from frontozygomatic suture <10yrs Fat within it
Orbital dermoid
425
What do the following findings suggest? Superior-medial orbit Bone destruction Bulky orbital mass <7yrs
Rhabdomyosarcoma
426
What do the following findings suggest? Upper outer orbit associated with lacrimal gland Enhances homogeneously Restricts diffusion
Orbital lymphoma
427
What do the following findings suggest? Bilateral sphenoid wing invasion
Neuroblastoma
428
What do the following findings suggest? Unilateral sphenoid wing invasion
Ewings sarcoma
429
What do the following findings suggest? Proptosis Desmoplastic reaction Enopthalmos - posterior displacement of globe Infiltrative retrobulbar mass
Scirrhous carcinoma of breast
430
What do the following findings suggest? Expanded extra-occular muscle Painful Unilateral + Anterior tendon Lateral & Superior rectus rectus Does not spare muscle insertions T2 dark Contrast enhancement
Idiopathic orbital inflammation
431
What do the following findings suggest? Expanded extra-ocular muscle Not painful Bilateral Spares muscle tendons T2 dark Contrast enhancement
Thyroid orbitopathy
432
What do the following findings suggest? Expanded extra-occular muscle Painful Unilateral + Anterior tendon Lateral & Superior rectus rectus Does not spare muscle insertions T2 dark Contrast enhancement Involves cavernous sinus
Tolosa Hunt syndrome
433
What do the following findings suggest? Can involve any part of the orbit Bilateral Lacrimal gland and Lateral rectus Spares anterior tendon Bilateral involvement of V2 - infraorbital nerve Not painful
IgG4 Orbital disease
434
What is the order of involvement of the orbital muscles in thyroid orbitopathy?
IMSLO Inferior Medial Superior Lateral Oblique
435
What do the following findings suggest? Ill defined, lack capsule Infiltrative lesion Fluid-fluid levels Does not distend with valsalva
Lymphangioma (Venous lymphatic malformation)
436
What do the following findings suggest? Ill defined, lack capsule Infiltrative lesion Fluid-fluid levels Distends with valsalva
Orbital varix
437
What do the following findings suggest? Post traumatic Orbital fat stranding Diffuse extra-orbital muscle enlargement Pulsatile exophthalmos Prominent superior ophthalmic vein with proptosis Prominent cavernous sinus
Carotid-Cavernous fistula
438
What is the intraconal space?
Space inside rectus muscle pyramid
439
What is the extraconal space?
Space outside the rectus muscle pyramid
440
What do the following findings suggest? Inflammation and dilatation of the lacrimal sac Well circumscribed, round rim enhancing lesion centered on lacrimal fossa Fat stranding
Dacrocystitis
441
What do the following findings suggest? Enhancement of optic nerve without enlargement of the nerve/sheath complex Unilateral Painful
Optic neuritis
442
What do the following findings suggest? Focal discontinuity of globe Posterior
Coloboma
443
What is CHARGE syndrome?
Bilateral Coloboma Heart GU Ears
444
Where does the artery of Adamkiewicz originate?
Left side of aorta between T8 and T11
445
What is the normal termination of the conus medullaris?
L1
446
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body Horizontal and oblique with claw like appearance At vertebral margin
Vertebral osteophytes
447
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body Vertical symmetric and thinner Ossification of annulus fibrosis Associated with Ank Spond
Syndesmophytes
448
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body endplates T1 dark T2 bright
Modic I (Oedema)
449
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body endplates T1 bright T2 bright
Modic II (Fat)
450
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body endplates T1 dark T2 dark
Modic III (Scar/Fibrosis)
451
What do the following findings suggest? High T2 signal within the IV disc
Annular fissure
452
What do the following findings suggest? Herniation of disc into the VB endplate High T2, Low T1
Schmorls node
453
What do the following findings suggest? Displacement of <25% of disc material beyond limits of disc space
Disc herniation
454
What do the following findings suggest? Displacement of >25% of disc material beyond disc space
Disc bulge
455
What do the following findings suggest? Disc base wider than herniation
Disc protrusion
456
What do the following findings suggest? Disc neck is narrower than the herniation
Disc Extrusion
457
What do the following findings suggest? Disc herniation fragment is broken off
Disc Sequestration
458
What is the most common location of disc herniation?
Subarticular
459
What do the following findings suggest? 2 nerve roots arise from a single dural sleeve
Conjoined nerve root
460
What do the following findings suggest? Collection around VB Post surgery Lacks enhancement
Recurrent residual disc
461
What do the following findings suggest? Collection around VB Post surgery Enhancement homogeneously
Epidural fibrosis (Scar)
462
What do the following findings suggest? Clumped nerve roots Empty thecal sac
Arachnoiditis If enhancement >6 weeks post surgery = infection
463
What do the following findings suggest? Fracture at upper part of odontoid peg
Type I odontoid peg fracture (Stable)
464
What do the following findings suggest? Fracture at base
Type II Odontoid peg fracture (Unstable)
465
What do the following findings suggest? Fracture through dens into body of C2
Type III Odontoid peg fracture (Unstable)
466
What do the following findings suggest? Axial loading injury Anterior & Posterior C1 arch fracture Lateral displacement of fracture fragments Increased distance between lateral masses of C1 and odontoid peg
Jefferson fracture
467
What do the following findings suggest? Fracture through bilateral pars at C2 Anterior subluxation of C2/3 >2mm Associated anterior inferior C2 corner fracture
Hangmans fracture
468
What do the following findings suggest? Impaction Hyperflexion injury Fragment of anterior inferior vertebral body
Flexion teardrop injury
469
What is the risk of a flexion teardrop injury?
Unstable Associated with anterior cord syndrome
470
What do the following findings suggest? Anterior inferior teardrop fracture fragment Avulsion of ALL Distraction injury Hyperextension injury
Extension teardrop
471
What do the following findings suggest? Avulsion injury of lower C/T spinous process Hyperflexion
Clay Shovelers fracture
472
What do the following findings suggest? Flexion distraction fracture 3 column fracture
Chance fracture
473
What do the following findings suggest? Distance between anterior arch and dense >5 mm
Atlantoaxial instability
474
Which column of the spine is this describing? ALL Anterior 2/3 VB
Anterior column
475
Which column of the spine is this describing? PLL Posterior 1/3 VB
Middle column
476
Which column of the spine is this describing? Posterior ligaments Pedicles, Facets, Lamina, Spinous process
Posterior column
477
Which spinal cord injury is being described here? Upper extremity deficit worse than lower
Central cord
478
Which spinal cord injury is being described here? Immediate paralysis - motor, pain and temp loss
Anterior cord
479
Which spinal cord injury is being described here? One side motor deficit, other side sensory deficits
Brown sequard - One hemicord
480
Which spinal cord injury is being described here? Prorioception gone
Posterior cord
481
What is the following describing? Most common in thoracic cord High T2 in central cord Swollen central cord Serpentine perimedullary flow voids - usually dorsal
AVF/AVM
482
What is the following describing? Increased T2 signal (Conus/Lower T spine) Prominent vessels (Flow voids) 40yr male Lower extremity weakness and sensory deficits Dural AVF
Foix Alajouanine syndrome
483
What is the following describing? High T2 signal in central cord Surrounded by normal cord No enhancement
Spinal Syrinx
484
What is the following describing? Central cord/anterior horn high signal T2 Owls eye sign Long segment >2 segments Diffusion restriction
Spinal cord infarct
485
What is the following describing? Short segment T2 high signal affecting only half/part of cord Cervical cord May have brain lesions Enhancing lesion if acute
Spinal MS lesion
486
What is the following describing? 2/3 cross sectional area of cord involved Focal enlargement of cord High T2 signal
Transverse myelitis
487
What is the following describing? Young person Post viral illness or vaccination High T2 signal Dorsal white matter
ADEM
488
What is the following describing? Longer T2 high signal segment Full transverse diameter of cord Mild cord swelling Thoracic cord Bright focal T2 high signal
NMO (Neuromyelitis optica)
489
What is the following describing? Bilateral, symmetrical Increased High T2 signal in dorsal columns (Inverted V) No enhancement Upper thoracic, ascending/descending
Subacute Combined degeneration (B12 deficiency)
490
What is the following describing? Bilateral, symmetrical High T2 signal in dorsal columns (Inverted V) No enhancement AIDS untreated
HIV Vacuolar myelopathy
491
What is the following describing? Expanded swollen cord Can enhance
Malignant cord lesion
492
What is the following describing? Enhancement of nerve roots of the cauda equina Anterior roots enhance > posterior
Guillain Barre syndrome (GBS)
493
What is the following describing? Thickened, enhancing onion bulb nerve roots
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Chronic GBS)
494
The following spinal tumours are typically found where? Astrocytoma Ependymoma Haemnagioblastoma
Intramedullary
495
The following spinal tumours are typically found where? Schwannoma Meningioma Neurofibroma Drop mets
Extramedullary intramural
496
The following spinal tumours are typically found where? Disc disease Bone tumours Mets Lymphoma
Extradural
497
What is the following describing? Children Upper thoracic spine Fusiform dilatation of the cord over multiple segments Eccentric T1 dark, T2 bright, heterogenous enhancement Syrinx
Spinal Astrocytoma
498
What is the following describing? Adult Central Homogenous enhancement May be haemorrhagic
Ependymoma
499
What is the most common primary cord tumour of the lower spinal cord and conus?
Ependymoma
500
What is the following describing? Conus/Filum terminale (Extramedullary) Haemorrhagic Dark cap on T2 Long segment
Myxopapillary ependymoma
501
What is the following describing? Thoracic cord Wide cord Oedema Serpiginous draining meningeal varicosities Hypervascular enhancing pial tumour - cerebellum or cord Cyst with nodule
Spinal Haemangioblastoma
502
What are the most common intramedullary mets?
Lung cancer
503
What is the following describing? Solitary Arise from dorsal nerve roots Dumbell with skinny handle (Intraforaminal component) Doesn't envelop adjacent nerve root T1 dark, T2 bright, Enhancement Cystic change/haemorrhage
Schwannoma
504
What is the following describing? Solitary Envelops the adjacent nerve root High signal T2 rim with central area of low signal
Neurofibroma
505
What is the following describing? Posterior lateral thoracic spine, anterior C spine Enhance brightly and homogeneously T1 iso to low, T2 high Calcifications
Spinal meningioma
506
What are the most common extra medullary intramural metastases?
Medulloblastoma Breast cancer
507
What is the following describing? Extradural Thickened trabeculae - parallel linear densities (Corduroy) T1 bright, T2 bright in bone T2 bright T1 iso if extra-osseous
Vertebral haemangioma
508
What is the following describing? Extradural Midline mass on sacrum Sclerotic on CT No enhancement
Benign notochordal cell tumour
509
What are the most common extradural metastatic lesions?
Prostate Breast Lung Lymphoma
510
What is the following describing? T1 low signal lesion in VB Cortical breakthrough or adjacent paravertebral soft tissue
Vertebral body Metastases
511
The following cranial nerves arise from where? CN 1 + 2
Cerebrum
512
The following cranial nerves arise from where? CN 3 + 4
Midbrain
513
The following cranial nerves arise from where? CN 5-8
Pons
514
The following cranial nerves arise from where? CN 9 - 12
Medulla
515
What do the following findings suggest? HIV positive Diffuse and symmetric cerebral atrophy out of proportion to patient age Symmetrical periventricular hypoattenuation on CT Low T1 + T2 high signal on MR - sparing of subcortical structures No contrast enhancement
HIV Dementia
516
During FESS which access to which structure can lead to optic nerve or ICA injury?
Anodi Cells (Sphenoethmoidal air cells)
517
What does the following describe? Ethmoid air cells extending into the inferomedial orbital floor, which can cause injury to the orbital contents during surgery
Haller cells
518
What does the following describe? Cord focally indented and displaced anteriorly Widened dorsal CSF space (Scalpel sign)
Arachnoid web (Thickened band of arachnoid over dorsal cord)
519
What is the normal perivertebral distance at: C2 C6
C2 = 6 mm C6 = 18 mm
520
What typically causes the following changes: Combined cerebellar and cerebral atrophy
Senile brain atrophy
521
The following cause what change in which area of the brain? Wilsons Central pontine myelinolysis Carbon monoxide poisoning Huntingdons Fabrys disease
Low attenuation - Basal ganglia
522
What do the following suggest? well-circumscribed hypoechoic cystic spaces may demonstrate thin rim enhancement on postcontrast MRI
Benign Lymphoepithelial lesion
523
What do the following findings suggest? Pain and swelling US - Large, Hypoechoic, hyperaemic CT - Dilated duct, enhancing abscess
Acute sialadenitis
524
What do the following findings suggest? Multiple hypoechoic cystic lesions in the salivary gland Non enhancing cysts Heterogenous parenchyma
Chronic Sialadenitis - - Sjogrens - IgG4 (Kuttner - Chronic sclerosing sialadenitis) - Recurrent parotid abscess
525
What do the following findings suggest? Posterior ethmoid involving roof of sphenoid sinus Risk of damage to optic nerves
Onodi cell
526
What do the following findings suggest? Biparietal atrophy Low posterior temporoparietal region + Posterior cingulate FDG uptake
Early onset Alzheimers (<65yrs)
527
What do the following findings suggest? Bulky flowing Anterior IV ossification Right sided Thoracic Normal SIJ and facet and costovertebral joints Minimal disc degeneration
DISH
528
What do the following findings suggest? Vertebral body squaring Thin IV syndesmophytes (Bamboo spine) Dagger spine - ossification of spinal ligaments Romanus lesions Symmetrical bilateral sacro-ilitis Ankylosis of facet and costovertebral joints
Ankylosing spondylitis
529
The following optic nerve findings are found in which type of demyelinating disease? Painful visual loss Short segment Anterior, unilateral Enhancing swollen, T2 high signal
MS
530
The following optic nerve findings are found in which type of demyelinating disease? Long segment Bilateral Posterior Chiasm involvement Cord swelling and high T2
NMOSD
531
The following optic nerve findings are found in which type of demyelinating disease? Bilateral long segment anterior nerve (Intra-orbital) or optic perineuritis
MOGAD
532
What is the following describing? Child and young adult Longitudinally extensive lower cord lesion Conus Central grey matter involvement - H pattern
MOGAD
533
What is the most common intramedullary mass in the spine for: Children Adults
Children - Astrocytoma Adults - Ependymoma
534
What do the following findings suggest? Thoracic spine more than Lumbar Spares IV discs Bone destruction Multilevel disease, sub ligamentous spread Large paraspinal abscess, thin walled calcified Gibbus deformity
TB (Or Brucellosis)
535
What do the following findings suggest? Lumbar spine favoured Primary involvement of disc Single level disease Smaller paraspinal abscess Thick walled, no calcification
Pyogenic discitis
536
Are the following measurements from a lateral C spine normal or abnormal? Predental space <3 mm in adults  Nasopharyngeal space (anterior to C1) <10 mm  Retropharyngeal space (C2–C4) <7 mm  Retrotracheal space (C5–C7) <22 mm
Normal
537
What do the following findings suggest? Large or small vessel occlusion High signal on T2/DWI Chronic volume loss/gliosis Post op/Trauma with Hx of long bone fractures
Fat embolism - Hypoxic brain injury
538
In proton spectroscopy what is the function of NAA
Marker of neuronal viability Reduced in neurodestructive processes
539
In proton spectroscopy what is the function of Choline
Marker of cell membrane turnover. Elevated in tumours/demylination
540
In proton spectroscopy what is the function of Lipids & lactate
Marker of severe tissue damage. Increased in infarct/abscess/GBM
541
What are the most common primaries to metastasise to the brain?
Lung Breast Melanoma
542