Neuro/Heme

Question 1

length of typical migraine

Answer 1

4-72 hours

Question 2

most common aura for migraines

Answer 2

visual

Question 3

some triggers for migraines

Answer 3

ETOH, menses, stress, MSG, foods

Question 4

hemicranial pulsatile headache

Answer 4

migraine

Question 5

vice-like or band-like headache

Answer 5

tension headache

Question 6

severe periorbital headache
30-90 minutes
once to several times daily over a period of several weeks to months

Answer 6

cluster headache

Question 7

are cluster headaches more common in females or males?

Answer 7

males

Question 8

headache w/ miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis, rhinorrhea, restlessness

Answer 8

cluster headache

Question 9

abortive treatment for cluster headache

Answer 9

100% oxygen

Question 10

what is the time frame to give tissue plasminogen activator for an ischemic stroke?

Answer 10

within 4.5 hours

Question 11

short lived neurologic deficits that last up to 24 hours

Answer 11

transient ischemic attack

Question 12

sudden abnormality of brain electrical activity

Answer 12

seizure

Question 13

what type of seizure involves the entire brain?

Answer 13

generalize convulsive seizures

Question 14

jacksonian march

Answer 14

in simple partial seizures

seizure activity begins in face and moves to ipsilateral arm and leg

Question 15

seizure characterized by an aura followed by an impaired awareness

Answer 15

complex partial seizure

Question 16

episode of repeated or ongoing seizure activity with impaired arousal lasting at least 30 minutes

Answer 16

status epilepticus

Question 17

treatment for status epilepticus

Answer 17

IV diazepam or lorazepam

Question 18

possible familial tremor in hands and forearms that impairs performance of fine motor skills

Answer 18

essential tremor

Question 19

what helps improve an essential tremor?

Answer 19

alcohol, B-blockers

Question 20

uncoordinated jerky body movements (chorea), behavioral & psychiatric problems (depression is common)

Answer 20

huntington’s disease

Question 21

treatment for huntington’s disease

Answer 21

supportive

Question 22

degeneration of cells in the substantia nigra causing a deficiency of dopamin

Answer 22

parkinson’s disease

Question 23

what are the cardinal signs of parkinson’s?

Answer 23

rigidity
bradykinesia
resting tremor
postural instability

Question 24

treatment for parkinson’s (considered gold standard)

Answer 24

carbidopa/levodopa

Question 25

multiple foci in CNS demyelination scattered around CNS white matter

Answer 25

multiple sclerosis

Question 26

some signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis

Answer 26

optic neuritis, weakness, diplopia, urinary symptoms, balance problems

Question 27

most common cause of dementia

Answer 27

Alzheimer's

Question 28

progressive mental disorder with abstract thinking ability, memory, judgement

Answer 28

dementia

Question 29

number one causative agent of bacterial meningitis in adults > 20 yrs old

Answer 29

strep pneumoniae

Question 30

triad of symptoms for meningitis

Answer 30

headache stiff neck fever

Question 31

Kernig's sign

Answer 31

patient supine with hip flexed 90, knee cannot fully extended

Question 32

Brudzinski's sign

Answer 32

passive flexion of neck causes flexion of both things and legs

Question 33

mononeuropathy with facial weakness of the lower motor neuron type

Answer 33

Bell's palsy

Question 34

signs and symptoms of Bell's palsy

Answer 34

unilateral facial weakness or paralysis with pain around the ear, ipsilateral loss of taste, ipsilateral decreased tear production

Question 35

treatment for Bell's palsy

Answer 35

steroids or possibly acyclovir

Question 36

demyelinating motor polyneuropathy that can follow a nonspecific viral syndrome

Answer 36

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

Question 37

signs and symptoms of Guillan-Barre Syndrome

Answer 37

foot/leg weakness that ascends to other body region

Question 38

treatment of Guillan-Barre Syndrome

Answer 38

plasmapheresis, IV immunoglobulin

Question 39

decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

Answer 39

anemia

Question 40

what suggest significant nutritional deficiencies

Answer 40

smooth tongue and other mucosal changes

Question 41

iron deficiency anemia: microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic?

Answer 41

microcytic

Question 42

most common anemia worldwide

Answer 42

iron deficiency

Question 43

signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia

Answer 43

fatigue, weakness, brittle nails, pica, koilonychia (spooning of nail beds), esophageal webs

Question 44

what will the lab work show for iron deficiency anemia?

Answer 44

decreased Ferritin | increased TIBC

Question 45

genetic disorder resulting in decreased synthesis of globin chains

Answer 45

thalassemia

Question 46

target cells

Answer 46

thalassemia

Question 47

how is thalassemia diagnosed?

Answer 47

hemoglobin electrophoresis

Question 48

anemia associated with inflammatory disease and impaired marrow response to erythropoietin

Answer 48

anemia of chronic disease

Question 49

what will the lab work show for anemia of chronic disease?

Answer 49

microcytic serum iron and TIBC are decreased ferritin is normal or elevated

Question 50

what are 2 examples of microcytic anemias?

Answer 50

vitamin B12 deficiency | folate deficiency

Question 51

pernicious anemia

Answer 51

vitamin B12 deficiency

Question 52

signs and symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer 52

glossitis | irreversible neurologic damage (parasthesias, decreased proprioception, decreased vibratory sense, ataxia)

Question 53

hyper-segmented PMNs

Answer 53

vitamin B12 deficiency & folate deficiency

Question 54

treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency

Answer 54

lifelong parenteral vitamin B12

Question 55

signs and symptoms of folate deficiency

Answer 55

glossitis, GI problems (diarrhea)

Question 56

Howell-Jolly bodies

Answer 56

folate deficiency

Question 57

abnormal RBC destruction

Answer 57

hemolytic anemia

Question 58

signs and symptoms of hemolytic anemia

Answer 58

pallor, jaundice, gallstones

Question 59

increased production of all cell lines

Answer 59

polycythemia vera

Question 60

signs and symptoms of polycythemia vera

Answer 60

pruritus after bathing, splenomegaly, hyperviscosity/thrombosis

Question 61

rouleaux (red cell stacking)

Answer 61

polycythemia vera

Question 62

treatment for polycythemia vera

Answer 62

phlebotomy

Question 63

philadelphia chromosome

Answer 63

chronic myelogenous leukemia | CML

Question 64

auer rods

Answer 64

acute myelogenous leukemia | AML

Question 65

most common childhood leukemia

Answer 65

acute lymphocytic leukemia

Question 66

smudge cells are pathognomonic

Answer 66

chronic lymphocytic leukemia | CLL

Question 67

painless lymphadenopathy is the main sign/symptoms

Answer 67

non-hodgkin's lymphoma

Question 68

which lymphoma is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus?

Answer 68

hodgkin's lymphoma

Question 69

malignancy of clonal plasma cells producing abnormal monoclonal paraprotein (Bence-Jones)

Answer 69

multiple myeloma

Question 70

bone marrow failure with significant pancytopenia

Answer 70

aplastic anemia

Question 71

what gram negative bacterial disease typically causes grossly bloody diarrhea, camping abdominal pain?

Answer 71

salmonellosis

Question 72

treatment for salmonellosis

Answer 72

cipro/levofloxacin

Question 73

signs and symptoms of shigellosis

Answer 73

abrupt diarrhea, lower abdominal cramps, tenses | often mixed with blood and mucus

Question 74

definition of HIV

Answer 74

positive HIV serology

Question 75

definition of AIDS

Answer 75

``` positive HIV serology PLUS: CD4 < 200 opportunistic infection malignancy dementia and wasting ```

Question 76

what is a normal CD4 count

Answer 76

500-1500

Question 77

what type of cell does HIV/AIDS infect?

Answer 77

T4 lymphocytes

Question 78

what is pneumocystis?

Answer 78

opportunistic infection of the lungs typically in people with weakened immune systems, like HIV/AIDS

Question 79

what is the confirmatory test for HIV/AIDS?

Answer 79

western blot

Question 80

what is a predictor of HIV progression

Answer 80

CD4 count

Question 81

when is the risk of AIDS opportunistic infection or malignancy highest?

Answer 81

when the CD4 count is < 200

Question 82

treatment for cytomegalovirus

Answer 82

ganciclovir

Question 83

what is the goal for HIV/AIDS antiretroviral therapy

Answer 83

achieve a plasma viral load as low as possible