Neuroimaging Flashcards
(100 cards)
A 45-year-old man has an abnormality discovered on MRI. From the MR spectroscopy study shown in the following image, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Glioma
D. Hemorrhage
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Glioma
D. Hemorrhage
This MR spectroscopy (MRS) image demonstrates an area of abnormality in the left insula. On MRS, the choline peak is much higher than the N-acetylaspartate (NAA) or creatine peak. This is suggestive of glioma.
Further Reading: Jain, Essig. Brain Tumor Imaging, 2015, metabolic imaging: MR spectroscopy.
A 73-year-old man has an abnormality discovered on MRI. The MR spectroscopy study indicates an elevated lactate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Glioma
D. Hemorrhage
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Glioma
D. Hemorrhage
MRS can be used to determine what an abnormality may be when seen on MRI. The classic choline peak is suggestive of glioma. When the lactate peak is elevated, ischemic stroke is suggested, given that the brain has switched over to anaerobic metabolism.
Further Reading: Jain, Essig. Brain Tumor Imaging, 2015, metabolic imaging: MR spectroscopy.
A 55-year-old man undergoes resection of a right frontal glioblastoma. He undergoes a standard temozolomide and radiation regimen postoperatively. Nine months later, enhancement is seen within the resection cavity. MR spectroscopy demonstrates the NAA peak to be double the choline peak. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Recurrent glioma
D. Radiation necrosis
A. Abscess
B. Infarction
C. Recurrent glioma
D. Radiation necrosis
MRS can be difficult to determine the difference between radiation necrosis and recurrent glioma. However, in recurrent glioma, a choline peak would be suggested, while in radiation necrosis, a significant NAA peak can be seen.
Further Reading: Jain, Essig. Brain Tumor Imaging, 2015, metabolic imaging: MR spectroscopy.
This MRI is from a 50-year-old woman who was having headaches. What mutation listed below would suggest that this lesion is primary and not due to malignant transformation?
A. PTEN mutant
B. PTEN wild type
C. IDH-1 mutant
D. IDH-1 wild type
A. PTEN mutant
B. PTEN wild type
C. IDH-1 mutant
D. IDH-1 wild type
This MRI is suggestive of a glioblastoma (GBM), based on ring enhancement of a “butterfly” lesion. Most primary GBMs are IDH-1 wild type and, when found to be IDH-1 mutant, may be suggestive of a malignant transformation from a lower grade glioma.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, malignant gliomas.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Infarction
C. Hemorrhage
D. Huntington’s disease
A. Glioblastoma
B. Infarction
C. Hemorrhage
D. Huntington’s disease
This MRI demonstrates evidence of a malignant GBM.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Oncology: The Essentials, 3rd malignant gliomas.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Meningioma
C. Metastasis
D. Low-grade glioma
A. Glioblastoma
B. Meningioma
C. Metastasis
D. Low-grade glioma
This MRI demonstrates a classic appearance of a meningioma with associated dural tails.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Oncology: The Essentials, 3rd meningiomas.
If final pathology of the image below comes back as chordoid type, what WHO grade is the lesion?
A. WHO grade I
B. WHO grade II
C. WHO grade III
D. WHO grade IV
A. WHO grade I
B. WHO grade II
C. WHO grade III
D. WHO grade IV
This MRI demonstrates a classic appearance of a meningioma with associated dural tails. If pathology determined this to be chordoid type, it would make it an atypical, or WHO grade II lesion.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Oncology: The Essentials, 3rd meningiomas.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glioblastoma
B. Metastasis
C. Hemangiopericytoma
D. Fibrous dysplasia
A. Glioblastoma
B. Metastasis
C.Hemangiopericytoma
D. Fibrous dysplasia
Hemangiopericytoma This MRI demonstrates an invasive lesion that appears to be associated with the meninges. It has a look of a meningioma, but in this case was a hemangiopericytoma. When these tumors are based in the meninges, they can closely resemble meningiomas, but may appear much more vascular and may have more associated cerebral edema.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, intraventricular tumors.
Where are the lesions pictured below most often located within the brain?
A. Cortical surface
B. Gray–white matter junction
C. White matter
D. Ependymal lining
A. Cortical surface
B. Gray–white matter junction
C. White matter
D. Ependymal lining
This MRI demonstrates evidence of multiple metastatic lesions. These lesions most often are located at the gray–white matter junction as this is the level of the small capillaries that tend to filter out cells as they metastasize.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, metastatic brain tumors.
This MRI demonstrates a metastatic lesion with edema. What is the most likely primary source?
A. Skin
B. Lung
C. Breast
D. Colon
A. Skin
B. Lung
C. Breast
D. Colon
This MRI demonstrates a cerebral metastasis with significant edema and a fluid–fluid level within the mass suggestive of hemorrhage. The hemorrhagic nature of this mass makes it most likely to be melanoma out of the choices listed above. Renal cell metastases are also known to hemorrhage.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, metastatic brain tumors.
What chromosomal abnormality does the patient with the MRI findings below most likely have?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 17
D. 22
A. 3
B. 7
C. 17
D. 22
This MRI demonstrates bilateral vestibular schwannomas. This is very common in patients with NF2, caused by a chromosomal abnormality on chromosome 22.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, vestibular schwannomas.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Epidermoid cyst
C. Petrous meningioma
D. Ependymoma
A. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Epidermoid cyst
C. Petrous meningioma
D. Ependymoma
This diffusion-weighted MRI demonstrates a cerebellopontine (CP) angle mass that is bright on diffusion images. This finding is consistent with an epidermoid cyst of the CP angle. The diffusion scans are important to evaluate with CP angle masses to rule out epidermoid cysts, as they are the mass in this region that are bright on diffusion.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, skull base meningiomas and other tumors.
A 45-year-old man presents with headaches and persistent nausea prompting an MRI pictured below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Epidermoid cyst
C. Subependymoma
D. Ependymoma
A. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Epidermoid cyst
C. Subependymoma
D. Ependymoma
This gadolinium-enhanced MRI demonstrates an expansile mass with heterogenous enhancement within the fourth ventricle. It also extends laterally through the foramen of Luschka. This, along with the history of nausea at presentation, makes ependymoma the most likely diagnosis. Ependymomas are known to extend laterally, enhance, and cause nausea at presentation. There is also an association between these tumors and NF2.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, pediatric posterior fossa tumors.
A 45-year-old man presents with headaches and persistent nausea prompting an MRI pictured below. What foramen is this tumor extending through?
A. Magendie
B. Luschka
C. Magnum
D. Lacerum
A. Magendie
B. Luschka
C. Magnum
D. Lacerum
This gadolinium-enhanced MRI demonstrates an expansile mass with heterogenous enhancement within the fourth ventricle. It also extends laterally through the foramen of Luschka. This, along with the history of nausea at presentation, makes ependymoma the most likely diagnosis. Ependymomas are known to extend laterally, enhance, and cause nausea at presentation. There is also an association between these tumors and NF2.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, pediatric posterior fossa tumors.
A 52-year-old woman presents with persistent headaches prompting an MRI pictured below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ependymoma
B. Subependymoma
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. Medulloblastoma
A. Ependymoma
B. Subependymoma
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. Medulloblastoma
This gadolinium-enhanced MRI demonstrates a mass within the fourth ventricle that does not enhance. This is a classic picture for a subependymoma. While ependymomas can also present in the fourth ventricle, they generally have a heterogenous enhancement pattern.
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. NeuroOncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, intraventricular tumors.
A 52-year-old woman presents with a severe headache that resolves. An MRI is obtained and is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ependymoma
B. Subependymoma
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. PICA aneurysm
A. Ependymoma
B. Subependymoma
C. Vestibular schwannoma
D. PICA aneurysm
This T2 sequence axial MRI demonstrates a large mass in the posterior fossa. There is T2 hypointensity within the mass in a somewhat layered form. Given the location and the appearance on T2, this should be concerning for a posterior fossa aneurysm.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, surgical therapies for vertebral artery and posterior inferior cerebellar artery aneurysms.
A 28-year-old man has sudden onset of dysarthria and a left sixth nerve palsy. MRI is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dural arteriovenous fistula
B. Arteriovenous malformation
C. Cavernous malformation
D. Aneurysm
A. Dural arteriovenous fistula
B. Arteriovenous malformation
C. Cavernous malformation
D. Aneurysm
These MRI sequences demonstrate a mass within the brainstem consistent with a cavernous malformation. Cavernomas often appear very dark on gradient-echo (GRE) sequences owing to bleeding events.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, cavernous malformations: natural history, epidemiology, presentation, and treatment options.
A patient is set to undergo a Wada test to determine language dominance. Before the procedure commences, a standard angiogram is performed. In this lateral DSA of the internal carotid artery, what is demonstrated?
A. PICA aneurysm
B. Dural arteriovenous malformation
C. Fetal posterior cerebral artery
D. Persistent trigeminal artery
A. PICA aneurysm
B. Dural arteriovenous malformation
C. Fetal posterior cerebral artery
**D. Persistent trigeminal artery
**
This lateral DSA of the ICA demonstrates filling of both the ICA and posterior circulation simultaneously. There is a persistent trigeminal artery connecting the ICA to the basilar artery. It is the most common persistent connection between the ICA and basilar systems. A fetal PCA would be an enlarged posterior communicating artery with an absent ipsilateral P1 segment.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, cranial vascular anatomy of the posterior circulation.
A 54-year-old woman has an abnormality discovered on routine MRI and undergoes a formal cerebral angiogram, which is pictured below. What type of aneurysm is this?
A. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. Carotid-ophthalmic aneurysm
C. Superior hypophyseal aneurysm
D. Cavernous sinus aneurysm
A. Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. Carotid-ophthalmic aneurysm
C. Superior hypophyseal aneurysm
D. Cavernous sinus aneurysm
This DSA of the ICA demonstrates an aneurysm of the ophthalmic segment of the ICA. It is superiorly projecting, which makes it most likely a carotid ophthalmic aneurysm. Superior hypophyseal aneurysms can arise in the same location, but tend to project inferomedially rather than superolaterally.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, endovascular treatment of carotid-ophthalmic aneurysms.
Where is this aneurysm located?
A. Intracranial/intradural
B. Intracranial/extradural
C. Extracranial/intradural
D. Extracranial/extradural
A. Intracranial/intradural
B. Intracranial/extradural
C. Extracranial/intradural
D. Extracranial/extradural
This angiogram of the ICA demonstrates a petrous/cavernous segment fusiform aneurysm, making it intracranial, but extradural. This makes these aneurysms much more stable and in some cases, they do not require treatment (mainly for stable cavernous segment aneurysms). When they rupture, a direct/indirect CC fistula can occur and patients can present with paralysis of the eye, as well as chemosis, proptosis, and venous congestion on the ipsilateral eye.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, endovascular therapies for aneurysms of the internal carotid artery.
What structure is demonstrated (arrows, not arrowheads) in this angiogram in a patient with a sagittal sinus thrombosis?
A. Anastomotic vein of Trolard
B. Anastomotic vein of Labb
C. Vein of Galen
D. Petrosal sinus
A. Anastomotic vein of Trolard
B. Anastomotic vein of Labbé
C. Vein of Galen
D. Petrosal sinus
The arrows in this magnetic resonance venography (MRV) are demonstrating the inferior anastomotic vein (of Labbé). It is an important structure as damage the vein of Labbé can lead to venous infarction of the temporal lobe.
Further Reading: Spetzler, Kalani, Nakaji. Neurovascular Surgery, 2nd edition, 2015, cranial venous anatomy.
What characteristic macroadenoma?
A. Encirclement of the carotid
B. Optic nerve compression
C. Size greater than 1 cm
D. Size greater than 2.0 cm
A. Encirclement of the carotid
B. Optic nerve compression
C. Size greater than 10 cm
D. Size greater than 2.0 cm
This coronal MRI demonstrates a pituitary macroadenoma given that the size of the adenoma is greater than 1.0 cm.
Further Reading: Schwartz, Anand. Endoscopic Pituitary Surgery, 2012, radiographic evaluation of pituitary tumors.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pituitary macroadenoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Tuberculum meningioma
D. Chordoma
A. Pituitary macroadenoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Tuberculum meningioma
D. Chordoma
This enhanced MRI demonstrates a suprasellar mass. It is most consistent with a tuberculum meningioma due to the dural tail.
Further Reading: Di Ieva, Lee, Cusimano. Handbook of Skull Base Surgery, 2016, endoscopic transsphenoidal approaches.
An 8-year-old boy is developing slowly progressive visual loss prompting an MRI shown below. What condition is this mass associated with?
A. NF1
B. NF2
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Cowden’s syndrome
A. NF1
B. NF2
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Cowden’s syndrome
This MRI demonstrates enlargement of the optic nerve in a pediatric patient consistent with an optic pathway glioma. These tumors are highly associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1).
Further Reading: Bernstein, Berger. Neuro-Oncology: The Essentials, 3rd edition, 2015, pediatric supratentorial tumors.