neurology Flashcards

(179 cards)

1
Q

layers of the cerebral cortex

A

molecular layer
external granular layer
external pyramidal layer
internal granular layer
internal pyramidal layer
multiform layer

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2
Q

risk factors for stroke

A

age
hypertension
smoking
diabetes mellitus
cardiac disease

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3
Q

which type of stroke happens when an aneurysm ruptures

A

subarachnoid

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4
Q

which stroke is due to hypertension

A

intracerebral

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5
Q

effects of stroke involving anterior cerebral artery

A

paralysis of contralateral structure - leg
abulia - disturbances in intellect, judgement and executive function
loss of appropriate social behaviour

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6
Q

effects of stroke involving middle cerebral artery

A

hemiplegia of contralateral structure - arm
contralateral hemisensory deficits
hemianopia
aphasia (left sided lesion)
- expressive - broca’s area
- receptive - wernicke’s area

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7
Q

effects of stroke involving posterior cerebral artery

A

visual problems
- homonymous hemianopia
- visual agnosia

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8
Q

name 3 basal ganglia diseases

A

parkinsons
huntingtons
ballism

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9
Q

what is ballism

A

contralateral uncontrolled swinging of the extremities due to stroke affecting subthalamic nucleus

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10
Q

role of vestibulospinal tract

A

stabilises head during body movements
coordinates head and eye movements
mediates postural adjustments

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11
Q

role of reticulospinal tract

A

from medulla to pons
changes muscle tone associated with voluntary movements
postural stability

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12
Q

role of rubrospinal tract

A

from red nucleus of midbrain
innervates lower motor neurones which go to the flexors of the upper limb

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13
Q

role of tectospinal tract

A

from superior colliculus of midbrain
orientates head and neck during eye movements

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14
Q

what are the positive and negative signs of an upper motor neuron lesion

A

negative:
loss of voluntary movements (paresis)
plegia

positive:
clonus (involuntary rhythmic muscle contractions)
babinski’s sign (when bottom of foot is stroked big toe is dorsiflexed)
spasticity (stiffness - can cause jerky movements such as clonus)
hyper-reflexia

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15
Q

what are the signs of a lower motor neurone lesion

A

weakness
hyporeflxia
hypotonia
fasciculations
fibrillations

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16
Q

what and where is the supplementary motor area

A

anterior and medial to the primary motor area
involved in planning complex and internally cued movements

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17
Q

what and where is the premotor area

A

anterior to the primary motor cortex
involved in planning externally cued movements

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18
Q

what is the primary motor cortex

A

in the precentral gyrus, anterior to the central sulcus
involved in fine discrete voluntary movements

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19
Q

what is apraxia

A

disorder of skilled movements
happens when there is a lesion in frontal lobe or inferior parietal lobe
common causes are stroke and dementia

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20
Q

what is ataxia

A

poor muscle control that causes clumsy voluntary movements

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21
Q

what is dysmetria

A

inaproporiate force and distance for target-directed movements

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22
Q

what is scanning speech

A

staccato

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23
Q

what is disdiadochokinesia

A

inability to perform rapidly alternating movements

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24
Q

what is intention tremor

A

increasingly oscillatory trajectory of a limb in a target directed movement

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25
5 main signs of cerebellar dysfunction
dysdiadochokinesia intention tremor dysmetria scanning speech ataxia
26
what does motor neurone pool contain
all the alpha motor neurones innervating a single muscle
27
describe the size of responses to an action potential by the different types of motor units
1) slow - type 1 --> smallest reponse 2) fast fatigue resistant - type 2a ---> larger response 3) fast fatiguable - 2b --> largest response
28
what is the jendrassik manoeuvre
when you clench your teeth, make a fist, or try to pull apart locked fingers during your patella tendon being tapped, the reflex is larger
29
list tests for assessing cortical structure and function
structure: DTI (diffusion tensor imaging) function: fMRI, PET, EEG, MEG, TMS, tDCS
30
functions of the prefrontal cortex
attention, adjusting social behaviour, planning, personality expression, decision making
31
function of supplementary motor area
complex movements - internally cued
32
function of premotor area
externally cued movements
33
examples of commissural fibres
corpus callosum, anterior commissure
34
where/how do projection fibres travel
radiate as the corona radiata through internal capsule between thalamus and basal ganglia
35
limbic lobe functions
learning emotions memory motivation reward
36
insular cortex functions
visceral sensations, autonomic control, auditory processing, visual-vestibular integration, interoception
37
describe the microscopic organisation of the cerebral cortex
into columns ---> cortical columns and into layers ---> molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform
38
3 types of white matter tracts
association fibres, commissural fibres, projection fibres
39
5 types of association fibres
superior longitudinal fasciculus inferior longitudinal fasciculus arcuate fasciculus uncinate fasciculus short fibres
40
where does the corona radiata converge through from cortex to lower brain structures
converges through internal capsule between thalamus and basal ganglia
41
difference between primary and secondary cortices
primary: function is predictable, organised topographically, is symmetrical secondary: function is less predictable, not organised topographically, weak/absent symmetry
42
consequences of temporal lobe lesion
agnosia (inability to recognise) anterograde amnesia (inability to form new memories)
43
consequence of lesion in primary visual cortex of occipital lobe
blindness in corresponding visual field
44
what are the symptoms of MS
blurred vision, fatigue, difficulty walking, paraesthesia, muscle spams and stiffness
45
how do you find TMCT (total motor conduction time)
brain stimulation: find MEP latency - the time for stimulus to travel from brain to muscle
46
how does Brain stimulation and peripheral nerve stimulation prove that MS is a central ns issue
by brain stimulation, can find TMCT - which is longer than normal - shows that there is a problem with either upper or lower motor neurones by peripheral nerve stimulation, can find F latency - which is normal - shows that there is no problem with peripheral nerves so problem is with central nerves ---> autoimmune demyelination of central nerves
47
what are the 3 waves produced by peripheral nerve stimualtion
M wave: motor axon stimulated, fast response causing muscle to twitch H wave: sensory axon stimulated, impulse travels to spinal cord, activating the LMN in the spinal cord and causing muscle to twitch - reflex activation of muscle F wave: strong impulse causes signal to travel antichromically up the motor neurone to spinal cord, activating the LMN in the spinal cord (not a reflex)
48
what is the response of brain stimulation on an MEG
MEP (motor evoked potential)
49
how to calculated PMCT
(M latency + F latency - 1) / 2
50
what can you get from a middle cerebral artery stroke if it causes a left sided lesion
Aphasia
51
a stroke in which part of the brain causes "clumsy, wobbly, drunk - like" symptoms
cerebellum eg intracerebellar haemorrhage
52
list the phases of a migraine
premonitory, aura, headache, resolution, recovery
53
describe the premonitory phase of a migraine
neck pain concentration difficulty irritability mood disturbances polyuria photophobia yawning
54
describe the recovery phase of a migraine
food intolerance mood disturbance "hungover" like
55
which medications should be avoided for pharmacological management of migraines
mixed analgesics opiate-based medication
56
pharmacological management for migraines
NSAIDs pro kinetics triptans paracetamol
57
acute and long term treatment of cluster headache
acute: triptan high flow oxygen long term: verapamil (used for grater occipital nerve, get ECG first) greater occipital nerve block
58
what makes a tension headache different from a migrain
tension is always bilateral shorter, only lasts around 30 mins no nausea/vomiting not aggravated by movement no photophobia/phonophobia
59
describe the symptoms of aura
visual - elemental visual disturbance - expanding C's sensory - numbness - paraesthesia - weakness - speech arrest
60
is cluster headache aggravated by movement
no
61
associated symptoms of a cluster headache
facial sweating miosis (contracted pupils) ptosis (drooping eyelids) restlessness/agitation ipsilaterally - nasal congestion/rhinorrhea - conjunctival redness/lacrimation - eyelid oedema
62
which medications should you not offer for cluster headaches
NSAIDs, opioids, ORAL triptans, ergots, paracetamol
63
what are the roles of high and low order areas of the motor system
High order areas - programme and coordinate movements low order areas - execute movements
64
describe how the motor system is organised
hierarchical segregation: high order and low order areas functional segregation: different parts control different aspects fo movements
65
is ballism ipsilateral or contralateral
contralateral
66
pathology behind Parkinson's
degeneration of dopamingeric neurones from subtstantia nigra to striatum
67
pathology behind Huntignton's
degeneration of GABAergic neurons in caudate, striatum and putamen due to CAG repeat
68
symptoms of Huntington's
unstable gait choreic movements uncontrolled jerking swallowing difficulty speech impairment cognitive decline
69
cause of Ballism
stroke affecting subthalamic nucleus
70
causes of sensineural hearing loss
inner ear: prescubysis, noise, ototoxicity nerve: acoustic neuroma aka vestibular schwannoma
71
causes of conductive hearing loss
outer ear: foreign body, wax (cerumen impaction) middle ear: otitis, otosclerosis
72
what is the difference between outer and inner hair cells
outer: arranged in 3 rows, carry efferent signals from the brain - modulate the sensitivity of the response from the brain inner: arranged in single row, carry afferent signals to the brain - transduction of sound
73
which nerve are the outer and inner hair cells connected to
auditory nerve
74
what is the order of nerves/nuclei in the auditory pathway
cochlea --> vestibular cochlear nerve --> cochlea nucleus --> superior olive --> inferior colliculus --> medial geniculate body --> auditory cortex
75
what are the two clinical hearing tests using a tuning fork
weber test: place tuning fork on top of head Rinne test: place tuning fork in air in front of ear, and on mastoid behind ear
76
what is an audiogram used for
to test hearing thresholds to see if there is hearing loss or not
77
What are OAE's, how are they produced and what are they measured for
Otoacoustic emissions low frequency sounds produced by the cochlea when the outer hair cells expand and contract they are measured as part of newborn hearing test and hearing loss monitoring
78
what is contained within the maculae of the utricle and saccule
hair cells, gelatinous matrix, otoliths (carbonate crystals)
79
which direction is the macula placed in the utricle and saccule, and therefore which kind of movement do the utricle and saccule detect
utricle: macula is placed horizontally - detects horizontal linear movement saccule: macula is placed vertically - detects vertical linear movement
80
which liquid fills the semi circular canals
endolymph
81
describe the composition of the ampulla of the semi circular canals
contain ampullary crista on base to which the hair cells are attached then top of hair cells are attached to cupula which helps with transmitting the motion of the fluid (endolymph)
82
which is located next to the cochlea, utricle or saccule
saccule
83
name the two vestibular reflexes
vestibulo ocular reflex vestibulo spinal reflex
84
describe the vestibulo ocular reflex
keeps images fixed on retina eye moves in opposite direction to head but at same velocity and amplitude connection between vestibular nuclei and oculomotor nuclei
85
eye clinical test to check for problems with vestibular system
"skew": cover one eye, other pupil/irirs goes up uncover the eye, pupil/iris goes back down
86
how to differentiate between vestibular neuritis and stroke
HINTS exam - Head Impulse test - Nystagmus - Test of skew deviation
87
what are the acute vestibular balance disorders
vestibular neuritis stroke
88
what is the intermittent balance disorder
BPPV
89
what are the recurrent balance disorders
migraine meniere's disease
90
what is the border between the cornea and sclera called
limbus
91
what is the lipid layer of the tear film produced by
Meibomian glands along the eyelid margin
92
how is the conjunctiva nourished
has tiny blood vessels
93
how is the cornea nourished
oxygen from the air - dissolves into aqueous layer of tear film glucose from aqueous humour - fluid between cornea and iris
94
cornea has a low water content, what happens if you hydrate it
it changes from transparent to white
95
where does the eye's refractions power come from
2/3 from the cornea 1/3 from the lens
96
5 layers of the cornea
epithelium bowmans membrane stroma descemet's membrane endothelium
97
what is the role of the endothelium of the cornea
pumps fluid out of the cornea to prevent corneal oedema
98
what are the 3 parts of the uvea
iris choroid ciliary bodies
99
role of ciliary body
controls thickness of lens clears aqueous humour
100
what us it called when the lens loses elasticity with age
cataract
101
what is the innervation of tear production
afferent: ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve - from cornea to CNS efferent: parasympathetic fibres - from CNS to lacrimal gland neurotransmitter: Ach
102
describe how tear are drained
- tears drain into superior and inferior puncta - small openings on upper and lower medial lid margins - drain into superior and inferior cannaliculi - superior and inferior cannaliculi converge to form one canaliculus - drains into tear sac - drains into tear duct
103
what is the macula
in the centre of the retina responsible for detailed central vision no rod cells
104
what is the fovea
in centre of macula has the highest concentration of cones and the lowest concentration of rods only place with highest enough number of cones to be able to see in detail
105
what is central vision, how is it tested and what happens when it is lost
seeing detail in light and colour eg reading, facial recognition tested by visual acuity assessment if lost, have poor visual acuity
106
what is peripheral vision, how is it tested and what happens when it is lost
night vision, seeing shape, movement, navigating tested by visual acuity assessment if lost, have extensive loss of peripheral field and unable to navigate
107
contrast the sensitivity, response, and vision type for rods and cones
rods: slower response, higher sensitivity to light, scotopic vision (ie night vision) cones: faster response, less sensitive to light, photooptic vision (ie light vision)
108
describe the layers of the retina
1) 1st order neurones - photoreceptors (rods and cones) detect the light 2) 2nd order neurones - bipolar neurones local signal processing 3) 3rd order neurones - retinal ganglion neurones transmit signal form eye to brain
109
what colours do S, M, L cones detect
S - blue M - green L -red s-sea, l-love, m-me
110
what is the most common form of colour blindness
deuteranomaly / daltonism --> can't see colour red
111
what is the name for complete colour blindness
achromatopsia
112
how to calculate index of refraction
speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in medium
113
what effects do concave/convex lenses have on light rays
concave: spreads the rays out convex: converges the lenses, brings them to a point
114
what is emmetropia
adequate correlation between axial length and refractive power
115
what is ametropia and what are the 4 types
mismatch between axial length and refractive power - myopia - hyperopia - astigmatism - presbyopia
116
causes of myopia
excessive long globe excessive refractive power
117
myopia treatment
use a diverging/negative lens use contact lenses remove eye lens to reduce refractive power
118
hyperopia causes
excessively short globe insufficient refractive power
119
what is axial hyperopia
excessively short globe
120
what is refractive hyperopia
insufficient refractive power
121
symptoms of hyperopia
blurry vision - straight away when looking at close things OR intermittently --> is worsened by tiredness, poor light asthenopic symptoms: - headache in frontal region - eye pain - burning eye sensation - blepharoconjunctivitis (inflammation of eyelid margin and conjunctiva)
122
symptoms of hyperopia
blurry vision - straight away when looking at close things OR intermittently --> is worsened by tiredness, poor light asthenopic symptoms: - headache in frontal region - eye pain - burning eye sensation - blepharoconjunctivitis (inflammation of eyelid margin and conjunctiva)
123
what happens if hyperopia is left uncorrected
amblyopia - lazy eye
124
what is the circle of least confusion
in astigmatism the area between the focal points of the 2 meridians where the image is the least blurry
125
astigmatism symptoms
asthenopic symptoms blurred vision distorted vision head tilting and turning
126
treatment for regular astigmatism
cylindrical lens with or without spherical lens surgery
127
treatment for irregular astigmatism
rigid cylindrical lens surgery
128
what is the near response triad
pupillary miosis - sphincter pupillae - increase depth of visual field convergence - medial recti of both eyes - align eyes on a close object accomodation - circular ciliary muscles - increase refractive power of the lens
129
what is a zonule of the eye
the circumferential suspensory ligament that connects the lens of the eye to the ciliary body
130
what is presbyopia
loss of accommodation when looking at close objects due to age
131
treatment of presbyopia
convex lense to allow to see near objects - monodical or multifocal - reading glasses - bifocal glasses - trifocal glasses - progressive power glasses
132
complications of contact lenses
infectious keratitis giant papillary conjunctivitis severe chronic conjunctivitis corneal vascularisation
133
what are the options for surgical correction of eyesight problems
keratorefractive surgery - laser ICL (intra collated lens) implant on top of natural eye lens clear lens extraction and IOL (intraocular lens)
134
describe the process of keratorefracrive surgery
cut the corneal flap flip the corneal flap apply photo-refractive treatment reshape corneal stroma put corneal flap back into position
135
what is the disadvantage of intraocular lenses
lose accommodation so will need reading glasses
136
describe the signal transmission along the visual pathway from the eye to the brain
eye (photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells) optic nerve optic chiasm optic tract lateral geniculate nucleus optic radiation visual cortex
137
cause of homonymous hemianopia
stroke
138
cause of bitemporal hemianopia
pituitary gland enlargement/tumour
139
name for when you're blind in only one eye
monocular blindness
140
name for being blind in the inner field of your right eye
right nasal hemianopia
141
name for being blind in one quadrant of each eyes visual field
quadrant hemianopia
142
cause of contrallateral homonymous hemianopia with macula soaring
stroke affecting primary visual cortex macula is not affected as has dual blood supply from posterior cerebral arteries on both sides
143
difference between crossed and uncrossed fibres (their origin and which visual filed they are responsible for)
crossed - originate in nasal retina - responsible for temporal visual field uncrossed - originate in temporal retina - responsible for nasal visual field
144
consequence of damage at the optic chiasm
homonymous hemianopia
145
consequence of damage on the left side, posterior to optic chiasm
right homonymous hemianopia
146
consequence of damage on the right side, posterior to optic chiasm
left homonymous hemianopia
147
are constriction/dilatation mediated by the sympathetic/parasympathetic systems
constriction - parasympathetic dilatation - sympathetic
148
which muscles contract in pupil constriction/dilation
pupil constriction - circular muscles contract pupil dilatation - radial muscles contract
149
describe the efferent pathway from the brain to the eye
Edinger westphal nucleus oculomotor nerve efferent ciliary ganglion short posterior ciliary nerve pupillary sphincter
150
what is the pupillary constriction response with a right afferent defect
afferent is eye to brain so right pupil doesn't construct when light is shone in right eye (as can't sense the light) but constricts when light is shine in left eye (consensual reflex)
151
what is the pupillary constriction response with a right efferent defect
efferent is brain to eye so right pupil doesn't constrict whether light is shone in left or right eye but left pupil constricts when light is shone in either left or right eye
152
how to test for relative afferent pupillary defect and results
swinging torch test both pupils constrict when light is shone in undamaged eye both pupils dilate when light is shone in damaged eye
152
how to test for relative afferent pupillary defect and results
swinging torch test both pupils constrict when light is shone in undamaged eye both pupils dilate when light is shone in damaged eye
153
where is the superior oblique muscle attached and how does it move the eye
attached high on the temporal side of the eye moves eye down and out
154
where is the inferior oblique muscle attached and how does it move the eye
attached low on the nasal side of the eye moves the eye up and out
155
medial rectus innervation
inferior branch of oculomotor
156
superior rectus innervation
superior branch of oculomotor
157
inferior oblique innervation
inferior branch of oculomotor
158
lateral rectus innervation
abducens
159
superior oblique innervation
trochlear nerve
160
inferior rectus innervation
inferior branch of oculomotor nerve
161
how to test for superior rectus
elevation and abduction
162
how to test for inferior rectus
depression and abduction
163
how to test for superior oblique
depression and adduction
164
how to test for inferior oblique
elevation and adduction
165
what is eye torsion
rotation of the eye around its anterior posterior axis
166
what is dextroversion
movement of both eyes to right
167
what is levoversion
movement fo both eyes to left
168
what is the role and innervation of levator palpebrae superioris
raises the eye lid superior branch of the oculomotor nerve
169
how to test visual acuity in preverbal children
test the optokinetic nystagmus reflex
170
what is optokinetic nystagmus
smooth pursuit followed by fast phase reset saccade
171
what is nystagmus
oscillatory eye movement
172
what are the signs of 3rd nerve palsy
droopy eyelid affected eye is moved down and out
173
what are the signs of 6th nerve palsy
affected eye deviates inwards and cannot be abdcuted
174
a pts pupil is dilated and cannot constrict, which nerve is affected
(parasympathetic part of) inferior branch of oculomotor
175
causes of third nerve palsy
medical causes surgical causes eg posterior communicating artery aneurysm
176
which cause of third nerve palsy is pupil sparing and why
medical cause the inner portion is more affected, parasympathetic fibres are found in the outer surface of the nerve - in surgical causes, the aneurysm causes compression of the nerve from the outside, so it affects the parasympathetic fibres and is not pupil sparing
177
what is the site if damage that causes absent knee jerk reflex and impaired sweating
dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord
178
what is Adie's pupil and what is the cause
light near dissociation (have miosis in response to acommodation but not light) it is due to abnormal reinnervation that takes place as a result of ciliary body damage --> the fibres target the iris instead of the ciliary body