Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cerebrovascular accident?

A

Ischaemia or infarction of brain tissue secondary to inadequate blood supply
OR
Intracranial haemorrhage

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2
Q

What are the different types of cerebrovascular accidents?

A

Transient Ischaemic Attack(TIA)
Stroke:
Haemorrhagic
Ischaemic

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3
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Brief episode of neurological dysfunction due to temporary focal cerebral ischaemia without infarction.
Symptoms should have resolved within 24 hours.

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4
Q

What is a crescendo TIA?

A

where there are two or more TIAs within a week. This carries a high risk of developing in to a stroke.

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5
Q

What is the epidemiology of a TIA?

A

15% of first strokes are preceded by TIA
M > F
Black ethnicity is at greater risk due to their hypertension and atherosclerosis predisposition
20, 000 people have a TIA

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6
Q

What are the risk factors for a TIA?

A

Increasing age
Hypertension
Smoking
Diabetes
Hypercholesterolaemia
Atrial fibrillation
HTN
VSD
Carotid stenosis

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7
Q

What are the causes of a TIA?

A

Thrombus formation or embolus (for example in patients with atrial fibrillation)

Atherosclerosis + embolism from carotid

Shock

Vasculitis

Hyper viscosity - polycythaemia, sickle cell, myeloma

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8
Q

What artery is commonly the route of a TIA?

A

90% = ICA

10% = Vertebral

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9
Q

What are the Clinical features of a TIA?

A

Depends on the site of the TIA:

ICA:
Amourosis fugax
Aphasia
Hemiparesis
Hemisensory loss
Hemianopia

Vertebrobasilar:
Ataxia
Chocking
Diplopia
Hemisensory loss
Vertigo
Vomiting

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10
Q

What would be the signs of a TIA in the Anterior Cerebral artery?

A

Weak/numb contralateral leg

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11
Q

What would be the signs of a TIA in the Middle Cerebral Artery?

A

weak/Numb contralateral side of body
Face drooping w/ forehead spared

Dysphasia

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12
Q

What would be the signs of a TIA in the Posterior Cerebral Artery?

A

Vision loss:
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia w/ macula sparing = occipital cortex affected.

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13
Q

What would be the signs of a TIA in the Vertebral Artery?

A

Cerebellar Syndrome: DANISH w/ +tve romberg test

Dysdiadokinesia
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Slurred staccato speech
Hypotonia

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14
Q

What is Amaurosis Fugax?

A

a painless temporary loss of vision, usually in one eye

Due to occlusion/reduced blood flow to the retina through the ophthalmic, retinal or ciliary artery. (often due to emboli)

This is a bad sign as it often signals stroke is impending

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15
Q

What is the Primary investigation for a TIA?

A

Diagnosis is Clinically made: Usually TIA/Stroke is obvious
ABCD^2 assessment - not recommended anymore
FAST test

First Line: Diffusion weighted MRI

Second Line: Carotid Doppler USS - Look for Stenosis + angiography if found

Bloods:
Glucose, FBC, ESR, U&Es, cholesterol

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16
Q

What is the FAST acronym?

A

FACE
ARMS
SPEECH
TIME

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17
Q

What is the ABCD^2 scoring system for TIA/Stroke?

A

Not recommended anymore
Now anyone with a suspected TIA should have an urgent referral within 24 hours of symptom onset

ABCD2:
Age >60
BP >140/90
Clinical Sx - Unilateral Weakness (+2). Speech Disturbance w/o weakness (+1)
Duration >1hr (+2) / <1hr (+1)
DM

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18
Q

What would be a high or low risk score following ACBD^2 assessment for TIA/stroke?

A

High risk:
ABCD2 score of 4 or more
AF
More than TIA in one week
TIA whilst on anti-coagulation

Low risk:
None of the above
Present more than a week after their last symptoms have resolved

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19
Q

How can you distinguish between a TIA and a Stroke?

A

You cant until after recovery

TIA Sx resolve usually within/<24 hours

Stroke Sx last more than 24 hours

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20
Q

What is the management of a TIA?

A

Lower RFs - stop smoking, reduce alcohol, exercise and diet

Immediate Aspirin 300mg - refer immediately to specialists

1 TIA, No driving for 1 month and no need to inform DVLA
if multiple TIAs then no driving for 3 months and inform DVLA

Start secondary prevention of CVD:
Clopidogrel 75mg
Atorvastatin 80mg
Treat BP - Ramipril

Now ABCD2 risk isnt used and everyone is referred within 24 hours

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21
Q

What are the main complications of a TIA?

A

Increased risk of stroke
Increased risk of underlying CVD

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22
Q

What are the two types of stroke?

A

Ischaemic (85% of cases)
Haemorrhagic (15% of cases)

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23
Q

Define a stroke?

A

Rapid onset neurological deficits caused by focal, cerebral, spinal or retinal infarction lasting more than due to tissue infarction and where symptoms last >24 hours

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24
Q

What is the epidemiology of a stroke?

A

1.2 million people living with stroke in the UK
110, 000 people have a first or recurrent stroke per year

3rd most common cause of death world wide (20-25% mortality)

1 in 2 have permanent disability

More common in males than females and >40yrs

Incidence is falling due to more vigorous approach to risk factors in primary care e.g. statin use and BP control

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25
What is an Ischaemic Stroke?
85% of strokes An episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal cerebral, spinal or retinal infarction secondary to the occlusion of a blood vessel
26
What are the categories of Ischaemic Stroke?
Large Vessel Disease (50%) - Atherosclerosis Small Vessel Disease (25%) - Lacunar Cardioembolic (20%) - AF, IE, MI, Dissection Cryptogenic (<5%) Rare causes (<5%) - vasculitis
27
What are the main causes of Ischaemic stroke?
Large artery stenosis Cardiac emboli from AF, MI or infective endocarditis 🡪 blood stasis Atherothromboembolism e.g. from carotid artery Dissection of aorta/carotid Shock – reduced blow flow throughout body Vasculitis
28
What is a Haemorrhagic Stroke?
15% of strokes: Rapidly developing clinical signs of neurological dysfunction attributable to a focal collection of blood within the brain parenchyma or ventricular system not caused by trauma.
29
What are the subtypes of haemorrhagic stroke?
Primary Intracerebral: bleeding within the brain parenchyma Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: bleeding into the subarachnoid space Secondary haemorrhage (these are NOT strokes) - due to trauma, anti-coagulation (warfarin), Bleeding due to tumour
30
What are the main causes of a haemorrhagic stroke?
Hypertension Aneurysm rupture 🡪 SAH Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM) Amyloidosis
31
What is the 3rd leading cause of mortality in the US and UK?
Stroke
32
What are the risk factors for stroke?
Hypertension - greatest RF Increased age - 68-75 MC Male Smoking Diabetes Hypercholesterolaemia AF Heart disease FHx Medication
33
What are the symptoms of stroke?
Focal neurological deficit based on site of the infarct.
34
What would be an extra finding in haemorrhagic stroke?
Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) Causes midline shift
35
What is the pathophysiology of an increased ICP in haemorrhagic stroke?
- Increased blood - Puts pressure on skull, brain and blood vessels - CSF obstruction - hydrocephalus - Midline shift - Tentorial herniation - Coning - compression of the brainstem
36
What is a Lacunar Stroke?
Very common type of ischaemic stroke of the lenticulostriate arteries. These supply the deep brain structures (BG, IC, Thalamus, pons)
37
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery?
Contralateral weakness of lower limb Contralateral sensory loss of lower limb Truncal ataxia Incontinence Drowsiness Dysphasia (if dominant hemisphere) Logical thinking Personality
38
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the Middle cerebral artery?
Contralateral motor weakness – arms and legs Hemiplegia – paralysis of one side of the body Contralateral sensory loss Aphasia – inability to understand (Wernicke’s) or produce speech (Broca’s) Dysphasia (speech problems) – only if stroke is in dominant hemisphere (Broca’s) Facial droop
39
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the Posterior cerebral artery?
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing Visual agnosia Disorders of Perception
40
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the Vertebrobasilar artery?
Cerebellar signs Reduced consciousness Disorders of balance Coordination disorders Quadriplegia or hemiplegia
41
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in Weber’s syndrome (midbrain infarct; branches of posterior cerebral artery)
Oculomotor palsy and contralateral hemiplegia
42
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in Lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion)
Sudden vomiting and vertigo Ipsilateral Horners - Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis Dysphagia
43
What is horner's Syndrome?
Caused by a Lesion within the Sympathetic Pathway Presents as a unilateral triad of: Miosis: small pupil Ptosis: drooping eyelid Anhidrosis: lack of sweat
44
What are the clinical manifestations of a stroke in the Basilar Artery?
Locked in syndrome; Paralysed except for muscles that control eye movements. Px are consciously aware, can think and reason but cannot speak or move
45
What are the extra symptoms of a haemorragic stroke?
headache AMS (altered Mental Status) Seizures N+V
46
What are the primary investigations for a stroke?
CT Head: Ischaemic - mostly normal Haemorrhagic - Hyperdense blood Ix over first few days after stroke: MRI - with diffusion weighted imaging CT Angiography Carotid Doppler USS ECHO - for those with cardioembolic stroke ECG - For AF Bloods - rule out hypoglycaemia
47
What is the very first step in the acute management of a suspected stroke?
Determine if the stroke is haemorrhagic or ischaemic from the initial CT.
48
What is the management for an Ischaemic stroke?
immediate CT to exclude primary intracerebral haemorrhage If presents within 4.5hrs: Clot buster (thrombolysis) - IV Alteplase Presenting After 4.5 hrs Aspirin 300mg for 2 weeks Secondary prevention Prophylaxis - Lifelong clopidogrel (75mg)
49
What is the function of Alteplase? What are the contraindications?
Tissue plasminogen activator that rapidly breaks down clots and can reverse the effects of a stroke if given in time. CIs: Haemorrhage, Intracranial bleed, clotting disorders, aneurysms
50
What is the management of a Haemorrhagic Stroke?
STOP anticoagulant drugs + Vit K to reverse them Neurosurgery referral for larger bleeds Control BP - BB/ARB to <150 systolic Iv mannitol for increased ICP rehabilitation - Physio/OT Prevention: 1st - avoid RFs and AF 2nd - Lifestyle changes, BP, antiplatelets, anticoagulants
51
What type of stroke should be suspected if the patient is on oral anticoagulants?
Suspect Haemorrhagic until proven otherwise
52
What are some key differential diagnoses for strokes?
Hypoglycaemia Space occupying Lesions - tumour, AVM Syncope due to arrythmia Migraines Functional Neurological Disorders Infection - particularly in elderly
53
What is the prophylactic prevention of secondary strokes?
Clopidogrel 75mg once daily (alternatively dipyridamole 200mg twice daily) Atorvastatin 80mg should be started but not immediately Carotid endarterectomy or stenting in patients with carotid artery disease Treat modifiable risk factors such as hypertension and diabetes
54
What is a haematoma?
Describes a bleed that has mostly clotted and hardened
55
What is a Haemorrhage?
Describes an active ongoing bleed
56
Where can intracranial haemorrhages occur?
Extradural Subdural Subarachnoid Intracerebral
57
What are the main blood vessels within the meninges?
Extradural – middle meningeal artery - from maxillary artery Subdural – bridging veins Subarachnoid – circle of Willis Pia – no vessels as it forms part of the blood-brain barrier
58
What is an Extradural (Epidural) haemorrhage (EHD)?
Bleeding into the potential space between the skull and the dura mater. The blood then collects in this space and is referred to as an extradural haematoma (EDH).
59
What are the causes of Extradural haemorrhage?
Usually Trauma (blunt trauma): Arterial bleed - often middle meningeal artery Venous bleed - often due to dural venous sinus
60
What is the most common blood vessel damaged to cause an extradural bleed?
Middle meningeal artery due to damage to the temporoparietal region
61
What are some rarer causes of an EDH?
Non-traumatic: Haemorrhagic tumour Coagulopathy Infection Vascular Malformation
62
What are the risk factors for an EDH?
Younger age (20-30) Male Anticoagulant usage
63
Why is an EDH less likely to occur in the elderly?
The Dura matter is more firmly adhered to the skull so blood is less likely to accumulate in this region.
64
What is the typical presentation of an Extradural bleed?
Characteristic history: Head injury Loss of consciousness following trauma or initial drowsiness Lucid interval – period of time between traumatic brain injury and decrease in consciousness Signs of raised ICP – headache, vomiting, nausea, seizure ± hemiparesis with brisk reflexes Cushing's Triad - Bradycardia and raised BP and Respiratory Irregularity Ispilateral pupil dilation Decreased Glasgow coma scale Coning of brain through foramen magnum Death due to respiratory arrest
65
What are the cushings triad signs of an extradural haemorrhage?
Hypertension (Wide Systolic Pulse Pressure) Bradycardia Respiratory irregularity
66
What is the pathophysiology of cushing's Triad in a raised ICP?
- increased ICP - exceeds MABP of cerebral vessels - causes cerebral ischaemia - Cerebral ischaemia activates Symp NS - Increases adrenergic action on alpha1 receptors - increases vasoconstriction causing HTN - HTN activates baroreceptors of aortic arch - activates P.symp NS to decrease HR (bradycardia) - HTN presses on respiratory centre - causes irregular breathing
67
Why is there an increased ICP in an EDH?
Haemorrhage - increased volume decreased pressure old blood clots which can then take up water (osmotically active) Will increase in volume and raise ICP
68
What are the primary investigations of an EDH?
CT head: Lens shaped hyperdense bleed/haematoma Confined within suture lines Midline shift Skull XR - may show fracture
69
What is the management on an EDH?
Stabilise Px - ABCDE management (ventilation) Urgent Neurosurgery referral: - Burr Hole craniotomy - Ligation of bleeding vessel IV Mannitol to reduce ICP
70
What are the complications of an EDH?
Cerebral oedema Raised intracranial pressure and herniation Ischameia: can occur due to mass effect, herniation, hypoperfusion, vasospasm Seizures Infection
71
What is the Typical History of an EDH?
The typical history is a young patient with a traumatic head injury that has an ongoing headache. They have a period of improved neurological symptoms and consciousness followed by a rapid decline over hours as the haematoma gets large enough to compress the intracranial contents.
72
What are some Key differential Diagnoses of an EDH?
Subdural haematoma Subarachnoid haematoma Epilepsy Meningitis Carotid dissection Carbon monoxide poisoning – fit with lucid period
73
What is a Subdural Haemorrhage?
When blood accumulates in between the dura and arachnoid matter often due to rupture of the bridging veins
74
What are the causes of a Subdural haemorrhage?
Often due to the rupture of a bridging vein caused by trauma: Shearing deceleration injury Abused children (shaken baby sydrome)
75
What is the Epidemiology of a Subdural Haemorrhage?
Often in Px who have small brains: Alcoholics, Dementia, Children Occurs in Abused Children (Shaken Baby Syndrome)
76
What are the risk factors for a subdural haemorrhage?
Increased age alcoholics Trauma Cortical atrophy (due to age/dementia) Child abuse
77
What is the pathology of a SDH?
- Trauma either due to deceleration due to violent injury or due to dural metastases results in bleeding from bridging veins between cortex and venous sinuses - Bridging veins bleed and form a haematoma (solid swelling of clotted blood) between the dura and arachnoid - This reduces pressure 🡪 bleeding stops - Days/weeks later the haematoma starts to autolyse due to the massive increase in oncotic and osmotic pressure 🡪 water is sucked into the haematoma 🡪 haematoma enlargement 🡪 gradual rise in intra-cranial pressure (ICP) over many weeks - This shifts midline structures away from the side of the clot and can lead to tectorial herniation and coning (brain herniates through foramen magnum) if left untreated
78
What are the symptoms of a subdural haemorrhage?
Often gradual symptom onset with a latent period (can be days, weeks, months) Progressive confusion and cognitive deficit Headaches and vomiting Focal neurological deficit, e.g. weakness or fixed dilated pupil Fluctuating consciousness
79
What are the clinical signs of a subdural haemorrhage?
Signs of Raised ICP - headache, N+V, Seizure Cushing Triad - Wide PP, Bradycardia, Resp irregularity Fluctuating GSC Herniation - Supratentorial and infratentorial
80
What are the primary investigations of a subdural haemorrhage?
CT Head: Banana/Crescent shaped dense region. Not confined to suture lines. May have midline shift If acute - Hyperdense (bright) If Subacute - Isodense If Chronic - Hypodense (darker than brain
81
What is the treatment for a subdural haemorrhage?
Referral To Neurosurgeon IV mannitol - reduce ICP Burr hole / Craniotomy to relieve pressure
82
What is the difference in clinical presentation between an Extradural and Subdural Haematoma?
Extradural: young age recent traumatic injury Initial injury then lucid phase then rapid decline as rapid rise in ICP Subdural: Babies/Elderly/alcoholics Injury/event leads to bridging vein rupture Gradual onset of neurological decline over weeks/months Slow rising ICP
83
What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)?
Subarachnoid haemorrhage involves bleeding in to the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid is located, between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane. This is usually the result of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm.
84
What is the Epidemiology of a Sub Arachnoid Haemorrhage?
Typical age 35-65 – mean age 50 Account for ~5% of strokes 50% die straight away or soon after 8-12 per 100, 000/year
85
What are the possible causes of an SAH?
- Trauma - Idiopathic (spontaneous) - Berry Aneurysm from circle of Willis- MC of spontaneous SAH (70%) - AVM
86
Where do berry aneurysms often occur?
Usually at junctions of arteries within the circle of Willis. Often communicating junctions
87
What is the most common artery affected in an SAH?
Circle of Willis: Anterior communicating artery ACA junction
88
What are the risk factors for a SAH? What are some strong associations with SAH?
Increased age - >50yrs HTN Known Aneurysm PKD Trauma FHx Smoking Alcohol excess Strong associations with Cocaine Use and Sickle Cell
89
What is the Pathology of an SAH from a Berry Aneurysm?
- Rupture of the arteries forming the circle of Willis Rupture of the junction of the anterior communicating artery and the anterior cerebral artery or the posterior communicating artery and the internal carotid artery - Leads to tissue ischaemia (since less blood can reach the tissue) as well as rapid raised ICP as the blood acts like a space-occupying lesion and puts pressure on the brain 🡪 neurological deficits - pressure on the brain can irritate meninges - causing signs of meningism
90
What is the Pathology of an SAH from an AVM?
Atriovenous malformations (AVM) Vascular development malformation often with a fistula between arterial and venous systems causing high flow through the AVM and high-pressure arterialisation of draining veins 🡪 rupture
91
What are the symptoms of a SAH?
Occipital Thunderclap Headache Seizures Vomiting Loss of Consciousness - Coma/Drowsiness Meningism (mimics meningitis) Reduced GSC Nerve palsies - 3rd / 6th
92
What are the signs of an SAH?
Meningeal irritation: - Kernig’s sign – unable to extend patient’s leg at the knee when the thigh is flexed - Neck stiffness - Brudzinski’s sign – when patient’s neck is flexed, patient will flex their hips and knees Subhyaloid haemorrhages (bleeding between retina and vitreous membrane) ± papilloedema
93
What are the characteristics of the headache experienced in an SAH?
Occipital Thunderclap Headache Sudden onset Worst headache of their life (0-10 instantly) May have a sentinel headache preceding this
94
Why may you get nerve palsies in SAH?
3rd nerve palsy: An aneurysm arising from the posterior communicating artery will press on the 3rd nerve, causing a palsy with a fixed dilated pupil 6th nerve palsy: A non-specific sign which indicates raised intracranial pressure
95
What are the primary investigations in a SAH?
CT Head - diagnostic with 100% sensitivity if performed within 6 hrs. - star shaped sign If Negative but SAH still suspected: Lumbar Puncture (performed after 12hrs only if ICP is normal) will show xanthochromia / yellowish CSF due to RBC haemolysis Angiography (CT or MRI) can be used once a subarachnoid haemorrhage is confirmed to locate the source of the bleeding. ABG - Rule out hypoxia
96
Who do SAHs more commonly affect?
Black patients Female patients Age 45-70
97
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?
Tool for assessing consciousness: Based on Eyes, verbal and motor response. Normal - 15/15 Comatose - 8/15 Unresponsive - 3/15 Eyes: Spontaneous = 4 Speech = 3 Pain = 2 None = 1 Verbal response: Orientated = 5 Confused conversation = 4 Inappropriate words = 3 Incomprehensible sounds = 2 None = 1 Motor response: Obeys commands = 6 Localises pain = 5 Normal flexion = 4 Abnormal flexion = 3 Extends = 2 None = 1
98
What are important differential diagnoses of SAH?
Meningitis - no thunderclap headache in this Migraine - no meningism/thundercap headache in this
99
What is the treatment for an SAH?
1st line: Neurosurgery Referral: 1st - Endovascular coiling 2nd - Surgical clipping Give immediate Nimodipine (CCB) 60mg for 3 weeks - prevents vasospasm IV Fluids - maintain cerebral perfusion and for resuscitation Monitoring for complications
100
What are some complications of an SAH?
Re-bleeding Cerebral ischaemia - due to vasospasm Hydrocephalus – due to blockage of arachnoid granulations Hyponatraemia - due to urinary salt loss
101
What are some Differential Diagnoses of an SAH?
Migraine Meningitis Corticle vein thrombosis
102
What is an Intracerebral haemorrhage?
Intracerebral haemorrhage involves bleeding into the brain tissue. It presents similarly to an ischaemic stroke. Often has a headache/come and signs of raised ICP
103
Define Meningitis?
Inflammation of the meninges This is a notifiable condition to PHE
104
What are the different causes of Meningitis?
Viral: Enterovirus (coxsackie) HSV2 VZV Bacterial: N. Meningitidis S. pneumonia
105
What is the most common cause of meningitis?
Viral cause
106
What organism is the most common cause of viral and bacterial meningitis?
Viral - HSV/Enterovirus (coxsackie) Bacterial - S. pneumoniae
107
Which is a more severe form of meningitis?
Bacterial is more severe
108
What is the pathology of Meningitis?
- Brain and the CSF should be sterile – no bacteria - Bacteria can get in through different routes: - Neurosurgical complications: post-op, infected shunts, trauma - Extracranial infection: ear – otitis media, nasopharynx, sinuses – sinusitis - Via the blood stream: i.e. bacteraemic seeding - Once the CSF is infected the pathogen can multiply and replicate because there are no immune cells (as the BBB prevents the movement from the blood) - Eventually the WBCs enter into the CSF, meninges and brain due to the blood vessels becoming leaky - This causes meningeal inflammation +/- brain swelling
109
What are the main risk factors for meningitis?
Extremes of age (Infant/elderly) Immunocompromised Pregnancy Travel Crowded environment - barracks/uni Non-vaccinated
110
What is the most common bacterial cause of meningitis in neonates (0-3 months)?
Group B Strep (S. agalactiae) Due to the colonisation of mothers vagina which can cause infection in neonate at birth. Also E.coli and Listeria
111
What is the most common bacterial cause of Meningitis in Infants?
N. meningitidis S. pneumoniae H. Influenzae (now rare due to vaccine)
112
Why is Haemophilus influenzae now a less common cause of meningitis?
Due to vaccination
113
What are the common bacterial causes of meningitis in adults?
S. pneumoniae N. Meningitidis
114
What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in the elderly?
S. pneumoniae N. meningitidis Listeria
115
What are the most common bacterial causes of meningitis in the immunocompromised?
Listeria monocytogenes M. Tuberculosis
116
What vaccines are available for meningitis coverage?
N. Meningitidis - Men B + Men C + Men ACWY S. pneumoniae - PCV Vaccine
117
What is meningococcal Septicaemia?
N. meningitidis infection in the blood. This causes a non-blanching purpuric rash This is due to Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) and subcutaneous haemorrhages
118
What are the symptoms of Meningitis?
Meningism: Headache, Fever, Neck stiffness Non-Blanching Purpuric Rash Nausea + Vomiting Seizures Photophobia Purpuric Rash - Bacterial Meningitis Non-Blanching Purpuric Rash - Meningococcal Septicaemia
119
What are the clinical signs of meningitis?
Kernig's Sign: When the hip is flexed and the knee is at 90°, extension of the knee results in pain Brudzinski Sign: severe neck stiffness causes the hips and knees to flex when the neck is flexed
120
What are the primary investigations in meningitis?
1st Line: Bloods: FBC - raised WCC CRP - raised Blood glucose - compared with CSF Blood culture - to determine viral/bacterial CT Head - Look for Brain Lesions/Abscesses/CIs for LP GS DIAGNOSTIC = Lumbar Puncture (LP) + CSF Analysis
121
What are some contraindications for a lumbar puncture?
Raised ICP GCS <9 Focal Neurological signs
122
Where is a lumbar puncture usually taken from?
Between L3/L4 Since spinal cord ends L1/2
123
What would the results of an LP CSF sample analysis look like in bacterial meningitis?
CSF: Appearance - Cloudy WCC - High neutrophils Protein High Glucose - Low Culture - bacterial organism bacteria swimming in the CSF (cloudy) will release proteins (high) and use up the glucose (low). Immune response to bacteria is neutrophils
124
What would the results of an LP CSF sample analysis look like in Viral meningitis?
CSF: Appearance - Clear WCC - High Lymphocytes Protein - Normal/Mildly raised Glucose - Normal Culture - Negative Viruses cant be seen (clear) don’t use glucose (normal) but may release a small amount of protein (normal/mild inc). Immune response to viruses are lymphocytes
125
What are the immediate Empirical management steps for treating meningitis in hospital?
1. Assess GCS 2. Blood Cultures 3. Broad Spectrum Abx (Ceftriaxone) 4. Steroids - (IV Dexamethasone) 5. LP - (CI in Abnormal Clotting, Petechial Rah, Raised ICP) 6. Tailor Abx for specific organism 7. Notify PHE for Close Contacts
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What is the treatment for viral Meningitis?
Usually milder and so Supportive Tx If HSV/VZV infection then Acyclovir
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What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis in a hospital?
Broad Spec Abx - Cover All Likely Organisms: 1st Line - Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime (as they get through the BBB) WTIH OR AFTER IV Dexamethasone - Prevent neurological sequelae 2nd Line: Chloramphenicol Once Blood cultures have been done then can tailor Abx: Eg. IV Benzylpenicillin for N.Meningitidis
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What is the treatment for suspected meningitis w/ non-blanching Purpuric rash present in the community?
Suspected Meningococcal infection: Urgent/immediate IM Benzylpenicillin Prior to immediate transfer to a hospital (unless it will cause a delay)
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What are some complications of meningitis?
Hearing loss is a key complication Seizures and epilepsy Cognitive impairment and learning disability Memory loss Cerebral palsy, with focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity
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What are some Differential Diagnoses of Meningitis?
‘Worst headache ever’ - subarachnoid haemorrhage (especially if trauma, ‘thunderclap onset’) migraine Encephalitis flu and other viral illnesses sinusitis brain abscess malaria
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What are some specific complications related to meningococcal meningitis?
Risk of DIC Risk of Waterhouse Friedrichsen Syndrome
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What is Waterhouse Friedrichsen Syndrome?
Adrenal insufficiency caused by intra-adrenal haemorrhage as a result of meningococcal DIC
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What is the most common cause of fungal meningitis?
Cryptococcus Neoformans Candida Only really affects immunocompromised Px
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What can be given to close contacts of a Px who has Meningitis?
Oral Rifampicin + Ciprofloxacin
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What is Encephalitis?
infection of the brain leading to inflammation of the brain parenchyma
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What are the causes of Encephalitis?
Viral (most common) Also bacterial, fungal, parasitic, paraneoplastic
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What is the most common cause of encephalitis?
HSV-1 Accounts for 95% of the cases Also CMV, EBV, HIV, VZV
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What are the risk factors of encephalitis?
Immunocompromised Extremes of age Transfusion/Transplantation
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Why can close contact with cats be a risk factor for encephalitis?
Risk of toxoplasmosis infection
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What are the symptoms of encephalitis?
Px often has preceding flu like Sx Triad Of: Fever Headache Altered GCS: Behavioural changes/Psychotic behaviour/mood changes Confusion Focal Neurological deficit Memory loss Seizures
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What are the clinical signs of encephalitis?
Pyrexia Reduced GCS AMS Focal neurological deficit: Aphasia Hemiparesis Cerebellar signs
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What is the most common place to be affected by encephalitis?
Temporal and inferior frontal lobe
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What are the primary investigations for encephalitis?
Bloods - FBC, CRP, U&Es Throat Swap - Culture for Viral Organisms HIV TEST – acute phase viraemia can cause encephalitis **MRI head – to show swelling/ inflammation in medial temporal and inferior frontal lobes ± midline shifting due to raised ICP** **Lumbar puncture (after): raised lymphocytic CSF, viral PCR** EEG – shows periodic sharp and slow waves
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What is the treatment of encephalitis?
Mostly Supportive IV Acyclovir - for HSV/VZV (must be give fairly quickly)
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What are some different Symptoms between Meningitis and Encephalitis?
Encephalitis: Seizures Reduced GCS Lack of Rash
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What is multiple sclerosis?
Chronic progressive autoimmune, T-cell mediated inflammatory disorder of the CNS against the myelin basic protein of oligodendrocytes causing demyelination of CNS neurons. It occurs sporadically over years
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What type of reaction is MS?
Type 4 Hypersensitivity Reaction: T-Cell mediated
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What is the Epidemiology of MS?
Women to Men – 2:1 Usually diagnosed between 20-40 = disease of the young More common the further from the equator you go (possible a link to Vitamin D) – explains why it is exacerbated by heat
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What are the risk factors for MS?
Females 20-40 Autoimmune disease FHx - Associated with HLA-DR2 EBV exposure in childhood
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What is the pathophysiology of MS?
Type IV Hypersensitivity Rxn: T-cell mediated – T cells activate B cells to produce auto-antibodies against Basic myelin protein of oligodendrocytes The Abs will bind to the basic myelin protein and target oligodendrocytes for destruction by macrophages T Lymphocytes manage to cross the BBB, they can cause a cascade of destruction to the neuronal cells (oligodendrocytes) in the brain by recruiting other immune cells This results in plaques of demyelination and inflammation and therefore conduction disruption along axons Although the myelin sheath does regenerate, the new myelin is less efficient and temperature dependent Therefore Symptoms are exacerbated by heat
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Where do the plaques of Demyelination occur in MS?
Often Perivenular (but can occur anywhere in the CNS) Commonly at: Optic nerves - blurred vision Ventricles of the brain Corpus Callosum Brainstem and cerebellum connections Cervical Spinal Cord
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What are the features of pathological lesions in Active MS?
- Demyelination – breakdown products present - Variable oligodendrocytes - Hypercellular plaque edge due to infiltration of tissue with inflammatory cells - Perivenous inflammatory infiltrate (mainly macrophages and T-lymphocytes) - Extensive BBB disruption - Older active plaques may have central gliosis
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What are the features of pathological lesions in Inactive MS?
- Demyelination – breakdown products absent - Variable oligodendrocytes loss - Hypocellular plaque - Variable inflammatory infiltrate - Moderate to minor BBB disruption - Plaques gliosed
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What are the different Classifications of MS?
- Pattern 1 – macrophage mediated - Pattern 2 – antibody mediated Lots of inflammation, those patients respond to certain therapies such as plasma exchange - Pattern 3 – distal oligodendrogliopathy and apoptosis (ischaemic/toxic, virus induced) - Pattern 4 – primary oligodendroglia degeneration (metabolic defect)
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What are the types of MS Progression?
Relapse - Remitting: The most common pattern (85% of cases) Episodic flare-ups (may last days, weeks or months), separated by periods of remission Secondary Progressive: Starts with relapse remitting Gets progressively worse w/o remission Primary Progressive: Symptoms get progressively worse from disease onset with no periods of remission Progressive/relapsing: Progressive disease from onset, with clear acute relapses, with or without full recovery, with periods between relapses characterised by continuing progression
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What is Uhtohoff's Phenomenon?
worsening of neurological symptoms in MS when body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas and hot tubs, showers
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What percentage of MS patients progress from relapse remitting to secondary progressive MS?
60-75% progress within 15 years
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What are the causes of MS?
Unclear cause for demyelination but: Multiple genes Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) Low vitamin D Smoking Obesity combination of these have an influence
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What is the presentation of MS?
Variable presentation depending on region affected Sx progress over 24 hrs and can last days-weeks and then Improve
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What are the General symptoms of MS?
Spinal cord - Weakness - Paraplegia - Spasticity - Tingling - Numbness Optic nerves - Impaired vision - Eye pain - Medulla and pons - Dysarthria - Double vision - Vertigo - Nystagmus Cerebellar white matter Charcot's Triad: - Dysarthria - Plaques in the brainstem - Intention Tremor - Plaques along motor pathways - Nystagmus - Plaques in nerves of eyes - Ataxia
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What are the clinical signs of MS?
- Typical – LOSS NB L - Lhermitte’s sign - electric shock runs down back and radiates to limbs O - Optic neuritis – impaired vision and eye pain S - Spasticity and other pyramidal signs S - Sensory symptoms and signs N - Nystagmus, double vision and vertigo - 6th nerve palsy B - Bladder and sexual dysfunction - Exacerbated by heat – showers, hot weather, saunas (Uhthoff’s phenomenon) - Improved by cool temperatures
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What are the primary investigations for MS?
Clinical Dx (using McDonald criteria) and Sx progression/remission Contrast MRI of Brain and spinal cord: Used to support Dx by identification of demyelinating plaques LP w/ CSF Electrophoresis - may show oligoclonal IgG bands in CSF Evoked Potentials - Test length of time of impulse travel
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What is the McDonald Criteria?
Criteria used to diagnose MS: - 2 or more CNS lesions disseminated in time and space - Need to be sure it affects two parts of nervous system e.g. brain and spinal cord, optic nerve and brain - More than one attack spaced out in time e.g. optic neuritis last year, now present with weakness in both legs
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What would the results of the McDonald Criteria be to diagnose MS?
2 or more relapses AND EITHER Objective clinical evidence of 2 or more lesions OR Objective clinical evidence of one lesion WITH a reasonable history of a previous relapse (Objective evidence’ is defined as an abnormality on neurological exam, MRI or visual evoked potential)
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Who manages MS?
MDT: including neurologists, specialist nurses, physiotherapy, occupational therapy and others.
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How can acute relapses of MS be treated (Relapse-Remitting MS)?
Steroids: IV Methylprednisolone + Sx treatment of Complications: Depression - SSRIs Neuropathic pain - Gabapentin Exercise - maintain strength
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How can Chronic MS be treated long term?
1st line (frequent relapse): – SC beta interferon and glatiramer acetate 2nd line (disease modifying): - DMARDS - IV alemtuzumab – CD52 monoclonal antibody that targets T cells - IV natalizumab – acts against VLA-4 receptors that allow immune cells to cross the BBB and therefore reduces number of immune cells that can enter the CNS and cause damage
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What are the side effects to Beta Interferon injections used to treat MS?
Injection site reactions Flu-like symptoms Mild intermittent lymphopenia Mild to moderate rises in liver enzymes Most common S/E (e.g. flu-like symptoms) tend to decrease after the first few months of treatment
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What is Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is an autoimmune, rapidly progressive demyelinating condition of the peripheral nervous system, often triggered by infection (URTI/GI) "Equivalent to MS for the PNS"
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What is the Epidemiology of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
More common in males Peak ages 15-35 and 50-75 Most common acute polyneuropathy
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What are the causes of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Usually triggered post infection (6 weeks) and strongly associated with: Campylobacter jejuni (most common) CMV EBV
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What is the most common cause of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Post C. jejuni infection
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What is the most common type of Guillain Barre Syndrome? What are the 3 classical symptoms of this type?
Acute demyelinating inflammatory polyneuropathy (ADIP) in 90% of cases Presents with: Progressive symmetrical weakness in limbs Reduced or absent tendon reflexes Reduced sensation
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What is the pathophysiology of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Molecular Mimicry: A pathogenic antigen (e.g. Campylobacter jejuni) resembles myelin gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system The immune system targets the antigen of pathogen and subsequently and attacks the similar antigen of the myelin sheath of sensory and motor nerves Schwann Cells Nerve cell damage consists of damage to the Schwann cells and therefore segmental demyelination 🡪 reduction in peripheral nerve conduction 🡪 an acute polyneuropathy This autoimmune process involves the production of anti-ganglioside antibodies (anti-GMI is positive in 25% of patients) The demyelination causes polyneuropathy
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What are the risk factors for Guillain Barre Syndrome?
History of respiratory or GI infections 1-3 weeks prior to onset Vaccinations have been implicated e.g. flu vaccine Post pregnancy – incidence decreases during pregnancy but increases in months after delivery
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What are the symptoms of Guillain Barre syndrome?
Recent Hx of Infection (GI/URTI) Paraesthesia and numbness Muscle weakness Back and limb pain CN involvement – diplopia and dysarthria Respiratory – affects diaphragm 🡪 death - Autonomic features Sweating Raised pulse Postural hypotension Arrhythmias
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What are the clinical signs of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Reduced sensation in limbs Ascending Symmetrical weakness - lower extremities first (proximal then distal) Loss of deep tendon reflexes (hyporeflexia) Autonomic dysfunction - Tachycardia, HTN, postural hypotension etc. Respiratory distress - RF in 35% of patients
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What are the primary investigations for Guillain Barre syndrome?
Nerve conduction studies: Slow Conduction velocity reduced/blocked Lumbar Puncture (L4) - Raised protein + normal WCC = inflammation but no infection Blood serology: Anti-GM1 antibodies (anti-ganglioside) Lung Function Tests (spirometry) - Decreased FVC
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What investigations can aid to confirm the diagnosis of Guillain Barre?
Ix to exclude other causes: TFTs - Hypothyroidism for cause of weakness U&Es - Electrolytes for neuropathic issues Spirometry - measure lung function
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What is the management of Guillain Barre syndrone?
First line: IV Ig (immunoglobulin) for 5 days - reduces duration and severity of paralysis OR Plasmapheresis - to remove autoantibodies LMWH (enoxaparin) reduce risk of venous thrombosis
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What is the prognosis of Guillain Barre?
Good prognosis 85% make a full recovery
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When may Ig treatment for Guillain Barre be contraindicated?
If patient is IgA deficient May cause an allergic reaction
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What are some Differential Diagnoses of Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Other causes of NM paralysis Hypokalaemia Polymyositis Myasthenia gravis Botulism Poliomyelitis
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What is Huntington's Chorea (HD)?
A Neurodegenerative Autosomal dominant genetic condition causing chorea characterised by the lack of the main inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA
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What is the penetrance of HD?
Full penetrance: All genotypes of Huntington's will express the phenotype Also shows Anticipation
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What are the genetics related to HD?
Huntington’s chorea is a “trinucleotide repeat disorder” that involves a genetic mutation in the Huntingtin (HTT) gene on chromosome 4. Need >36 Triplet CAG repeats affecting HTT gene to be diagnostic of HD
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What is a common feature of tri-nucleotide repeat disorders in terms of prevalence?
They Show anticipation: where successive generations have more repeats in the gene, resulting in: Earlier age of onset Increased severity of disease
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What is the Pathology of Huntington's Chorea?
Repeated CAG sequence leads to translation of an expanded polyglutamine repeat sequence in the huntingtin gene The more CAG repeats present, the earlier symptoms present Faulty Huntingtin protein builds up in the striatum causing cell death and loss of cholinergic and GABA-nergic neurons 🡪 decreased ACH and GABA synthesis in striatum Less GABA causes less regulation of dopamine to striatum causing increased dopamine levels resulting in excessive thalamic stimulation and subsequently increased movement (chorea)
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When do symptoms of HD usually present?
Often ASx in patients under 30 yrs Sx present between 30-50 yrs initially with a prodromal phase of mild Sx People with HD will have more severe symptoms typically around 60+ yrs
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What are the symptoms of HD?
Insidious progressive worsening: Starts with cognitive, psychiatric and mood problems (around middle age) Then can progress to: Chorea (involuntary, abnormal movements) Eye movement disorders dysarthria dysphagia
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How is a Diagnosis of HD made?
Clinical diagnosis with FHx HD and subsequent generations showing anticipation. Genetic testing - >36 CAG repeats on chromosome 4 MRI/CT - Shows atrophy of striatum
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What is the treatment of HD?
No Tx to stop or progress HD Provide Extensive counselling and support Can provide Sx treatment for chorea: Chorea: Antipsychotics (Risperidone) - Dopamine Receptor antagonists Benzodiazepines (diazepam) Dopamine-depleting agents (tetrabenazine) Depression - SSRI (sertraline) Psychosis - Haloperidol
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What is the prognosis of HD?
Progressive uncurable condition Life expectancy of 15-20 years post diagnosis Death in HD most commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia or Suicide
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What are some differential diagnoses for chorea such as in HD?
HD Sydenham’s chorea (rheumatic fever) SLE Basal ganglia stroke Wilson’s disease
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What are the causes of depression?
Psychiatric: Anxiety Alcohol abuse Substance misuse Grief Physical: Parkinson’s MS Endocrine Medication – Beta-blockers, combined OCP CV accident (stroke) Learning difficulties
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What are the symptoms of Depression?
Low mood – loss of interest in activities they used to enjoy Appetite and weight change Sleep pattern changes – sleeping too much/difficult sleeping Fatigue Lack of concentration or making decisions Feelings of worthlessness or excessive/inappropriate guilt Self-harm and suicide
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How can Depression be treated/managed?
Mental health team – crisis team - IAPT CBT Counselling Medication Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors e.g. fluoxetine, sertraline Prevent the presynaptic neuron from reabsorbing serotonin so more remains in synaptic cleft and can stimulate receptors on post synaptic neuron (in pre-frontal cortex) Tricyclic antidepressants e.g. amitriptyline and amoxapine Act on muscarinic receptors Information/education
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What is Parkinson's Disease (PD)?
A progressive neurodegenerative movement disorder characterised by loss of dopaminergic neurones within the substantia nigra pars compacta (SNPC) of the basal ganglia (nigrostriatal pathway).
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What is the Epidemiology of PD?
The second most common neurodegenerative disorder after dementia Prevalence increases with age (peak onset 55-65) More common in males
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What are the risk factors for PD?
Increased age Male FHx
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What are the causes of PD?
Idiopathic condition but potentially related to genetics and susceptibility gene s There are secondary causes of parkinsonism: Drugs/Toxins - CO Wilsons disease Infections - Encephalitis, Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease
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What are the genetic factors related to PD?
Mutation in Parkin Gene Mutation in alpha-Synuclein gene
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What is the pathogenesis of PD?
- Neurodegenerative loss of dopamine secreting cells from the pars compacta of the substantia nigra that project to the striatum - Reduced striatal dopamine levels - Less dopamine means the thalamus will be inhibited resulting in a decrease in movement - symptoms of Parkinson’s - Under the microscope you will see the presence of intracytoplasmic intrusion bodies in the remaining neurones: Lewy bodies
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What is the peak age of onset for PD?
55-65 yrs
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What are the typical Parkinsonism Symptoms?
Bradykinesia Resting Tremor Rigidity
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What are the symptoms of PD?
Progressive Sx onset with neurodegeneration presenting asymmetrically Parkinsonism (bradykinesia, Resting Tremor, Rigidity) Postural Instability Anosmia - early sign Hypomimia - Blank facial expressions Later Sx: Constipation Sleep disturbances Cognitive/memory problems Depression
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Give some examples of bradykinesia symptoms
walking deterioration - dragging leg Reduced arm swing problems doing up buttons writing problems
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What are the clinical signs of PD?
Signs are often Asymmetrical (unilateral) Pin rolling tremor of thumb Lead pipe arm (reduced arm swing) Shuffling gait Cogwheel movement
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What makes up a diagnosis of PD?
DaTSCAN - Imaging to dopaminergic terminals in Str Clinical Dx based on Sx and Examination and Hx - Bradykinesia + 1 or more other Cardinal Sx MRI/Head CT - may show SNpc Atrophy
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What is the treatment for PD?
Young onset + biologically fit: 1. Da Agonist - Bromocriptine/Cabergoline 2. MOA-B Inhibitor - Selegiline 3. L-DOPA + carbidopa Biologically Frain and comorbidities: 1. L-DOPA + carbidopa (carledopa) 2. MOA-B inhibitor (selegiline/rasagiline) 3. COMT (Tolcapone/ Entacapone) No cure or disease modifying treatment so Sx management - Levodopa (synthetic precursor Dopamine) to increase levels (as dopamine cannot cross BBB) + Benserazide or Carbidopa - Dopa Decarboxylase inhibitors (eg. Carledopa (Levodopa + Carbidopa)) Surgical - Deep Brain Stimulation
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What is the issue with using levodopa to treat PD?
Initially works well but soon the Px becomes resistant to it and the effects wear off. Therefore want to only use it when Sx are bad enough to prevent early resistance.
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What is an important differential diagnosis to PD?
Lewy body dementia (often associated with parkinsonism) Parkinson Sx then Dementia = Parkinson dementia Dementia then Parkinson Sx = Lewy body dementia w/ Parkinsonism. Essential Tremor
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what is essential tremor?
Essential tremor occurs on action. This is not due to neurodegeneration Tx - primidone, gabapentin, Beta Blockers Can be treated with deep brain stimulation
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Fill out this for Parkinson's Tremor: Symmetry: Hz: Rest: Movement: Other features present: Alcohol:
Symmetry: Asymmetrical Hz: 4-6 hertz Rest: Worse at rest Movement: Improves with intention movement Other features present: Yes (parkinsonism) Alcohol: no change with alcohol
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Fill out this for Benign Essential Tremor: Symmetry: Hz: Rest: Movement: Other features present: Alcohol:
Symmetry: Symmetrical Hz: 5-8 hertz Rest: Improves at Rest Movement: Worse with intentional movement Other features present: No other Parkinson features Alcohol: Improves with alcohol
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What is dementia?
A syndrome caused by neurodegeneration of various causes resulting in progressive reduction of cognition and difficulty with ADLs
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What is the epidemiology of dementia?
Rare under 55 years Prevalence rises with age Alzheimer’s most common – more common in females Vascular and mixed dementias are more common in males Autosomal dominant – 10-20% of developing it
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What is the commonest cause of dementia?
Alzheimer's Disease (AD) Accounts for 60-75% of all dementias
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What is the epidemiology of AD?
Rarely affects under 65yrs (otherwise EOAD which accounts for 3% of cases) Affects more females than males Prevalence significantly rises with age
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What is the pathophysiology of AD?
Accumulation of Beta amyloid plaques (Ab plaques) and Tau Neurofibrillary tangles (NFT) in the cerebral cortex. This leads to cortical scarring and brain atrophy Additionally, damage to ACh neurons leading to poor neurotransmission
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What is the APP protein?
Amyloid Precursor protein that is pathologically cleaved into Beta Amyloid plaques that accumulate in the brain (AD) and other tissues (in amyloidosis)
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What are the risk factors for AD?
Increasing age Downs Syndrome APP gene mutation APOE4 allele for familial AD (linked to EOAD)
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What are the symptoms of AD?
Agnosia - cant recognise things Apraxia - Cant do basic motor skills Aphasia - Speech difficulties Amnesia - Memory impairment
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What is the progression of cognitive decline like in AD?
Steady progressive decline
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What is the second most common cause of dementia?
Vascular Dementia Accounts for roughly 20% of cases
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What is Vascular Dementia?
Cognitive decline that occurs in a stepwise manner due to a Hx of cerebrovascular events.
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What is the pathophysiology of Vascular dementia?
Hx of cerebrovascular events leads to infarction and loss of brain cells/damaged tissue. Neurons cannot regenerate so the neurodegeneration is permanent. Increased risk of secondary cerebrovascular events can lead to further brain damage and cognitive decline.
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What are the symptoms, Ix and Tx of vascular dementia?
Signs of vascular pathology: Raised BP Hx of cerebrovascular events Focal CNS signs General cognitive decline in a stepwise manner Ix - MRI Brain showing infarcts Tx - Manage predisposing RFs
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What is Lewy Body Dementia?
3rd most common form of dementia Alpha-Synuclein and Ubiquiting aggregates accumulate in the brainstem and neocortex Results in cognitive decline.
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What are the symptoms and Tx of Lewy Body Dementia?
Cognitive decline Hallucinations of small people or animals + Parkinsonism Tx - AChEi
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What is Frontotemporal dementia?
An uncommon form of dementia (5% of cases) Specific degeneration of frontotemporal lobes often causing - speech and language deterioration (progressive aphasia) - Thinking/memory problems (early memory preservation) - Disinhibition/personality change
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What are the risk factors for Frontotemporal dementia?
FHx Autosomal dominant mutation in Tau protein (chromosome 17) FHx of MND (TDP-43)
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What is the Diagnostic test for dementia?
Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) /30 >25 = normal 18-25 = impaired <17 = severely impaired Brain MRI - May show cortical atrophy
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What is the treatment for dementia?
Mostly Conservative: Social stimulation/interaction Exercise and healthier lifestyle
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What pharmacological treatment can be given to aid Alzheimer's Disease?
Sx management: First line: AChE inhibitors (rivastigmine, neostigmine) NMDA antagonist - memantine SSRIs - treat BPSD (behaviour and psychological Sx of dementia)
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What Pharmacological therapy can be given to aid vascular dementia?
Antihypertensives - Ramipril To reduce risk of subsequent cerebrovascular events Control CVD risk factors
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What are the primary headaches?
No underlying cause relevant to headache: Migraine Cluster Tension (Trigeminal Neuralgia)
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What are the secondary Headaches?
Due to underlying conditions: Vasculitis - GCA Infection SAH Trauma Cerebrovascular disease Eye, Ear Sinus pathology Drug overdose
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What are the RED FLAG signs for Headaches?
Worst headache ever "thunderclap" Epilepsy/other neurological signs Onset >50 Severe/quick onset Abnormal pattern of migraine
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Define a Migraine?
Recurrent throbbing headache often preceded by an aura and associated with nausea, vomiting and visual changes
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What is the epidemiology of a Migraine?
Most common cause of episodic (recurrent) headaches More common in females 90% onset in under 40 yrs (if onset > 50 yrs then think pathological)
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What happens to Migraine severity with age?
Severity of Migraine typically decreases with advancing age
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What are the potential triggers of a migraine?
CHOCOLATE: - Chocolate - Hangovers - Orgasms - Cheese - Oral contraceptives - Lie-ins - Alcohol - Tumult - loud noise - Exercise
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What are the different Types of migraine?
Migraine without aura Migraine with aura Silent migraine (migraine with aura but without a headache) Hemiplegic migraine
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What is the typical progression of migraines?
Occur in attacks that tend to follow a typical pattern: Prodrome Aura Throbbing headache Resolution Post-dromal/recovery
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Explain the progression of a Migraine?
Prodrome: Days prior to attack Mood changes Aura: last for 60mins Vision changes minutes before attack (attack follows soon after) ZigZag lines paraesthesia, pins & needles Throbbing Headache: 4-72hrs (Hemiplegic in some cases) Resolution: Headache fades away slowly Recovery
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What is the Clinical Dx of a migraine?
2 or more of: Unilateral pain Throbbing Motion Sickness Mood severely intense PLUS 1 or more of: Nausea Vomiting Photophobia/Phonophobia W/ A NORMAL NEURO EXAM
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What is the diagnostic criteria for a Migraine without Aura?
4 diagnostic criteria (ABCD): A – 5 attacks fulfilling B-D B - attacks last 4-72 hours C – two of the following Unilateral Pulsing Moderate/severe Aggravated by routine physical activity D – during headache at least one of Nausea and/or vomiting Photophobia (light sensitive) and phonophobia (sound sensitive)
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What is the Diagnostic Criteria for a Migraine with an Aura?
3 diagnostic criteria (ABC): A – at least 2 attacks fulfilling B and C B - > 1 reversible aura symptom Visual – zigzags, spots Unilateral sensory – tingling, numbness Speech – aphasia Motor weakness – known as “hemiplegic migraine” so rule out stroke and TIA C > 2 of the following 4 - > 1 aura symptoms spread gradually over 5 minutes and/or > 2 aura symptoms occurring in successions - Each aura symptom lasts 5-60 minutes - > 1 aura symptom is unilateral - Aura accompanied/followed within 60 minutes by headache
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How are migraines diagnosed?
Clinical Dx unless pathology is suspected where you do tests to exclude DDx: Neuro imaging LP
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What are the treatment for Migraines?
Conservative - Avoid Triggers Acute Mx: Mild - Paracetamol/NSAIDs - ibuprofen/Naproxen Severe - Triptans - sumatriptan Anti-emetics - metoclopramide
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What is the prophylaxis of a migraine?
Prophylaxis: 1st line – Propranolol (beta-blocker) or Topiramate (anti-convulsant) 2nd line – acupuncture 3rd line – Amitriptyline (tricyclic anti-depressant) 4th line – Botulinum toxin type A (only if not responded to 3 prior Tx)
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What is the mechanism of action of Triptans? Why are they used for migraines?
5-HT receptor agonists (serotonin) that are used to abort migraines when they start to develop
254
What are cluster headaches?
Severe unilateral headaches often periorbital that come in clusters of attacks
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How long can a cluster headache last for?
15-180 minutes Attacks can last for weeks/months before a pain free period follows which may last for years
256
What is the primary feature of a cluster headache?
Periorbital unilateral pain Extremely painful (most disabling of primary headaches)
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Who typically presents with Cluster headaches?
Males 30-50 yrs old
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What are the risk factors for cluster headaches?
Male Smokers 30-50yrs old Genetics (autosomal dominant link)
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What are the types of Cluster headaches?
Episodic - > 2 cluster periods lasting 7 days to 1 year separated by pain free periods lasting > 1 month Chronic – attack occur for > 1 year without remission or with remission lasting <1 month
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What is the Clinical Dx of cluster headaches?
- Cluster headache – can take 3 years to get a diagnosis - A – At least 5 headache attacks fulfilling B-D - B – Severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-180 minutes if untreated and rises to crescendo - C – headache is accompanied by ipsilateral cranial autonomic features and/or sense of restlessness or agitation - D – attacks have a frequency from 1 every other day to 8 per day Deemed to have a boring/hot poker characteristic
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What is Classical presentation of cluster headaches?
- Severe or very severe unilateral orbital headaches - last 15-180 Mins - Hot poker/Boring characteristics - Associated with eye lacrimation, redness, ptosis - usually Occur In the middle of the night/early morning
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What is the treatment of cluster headaches? What is the prophylaxis of cluster headaches?
Acute Mx: Triptans - SC Sumatriptan or IM Zolmitriptan High flow 15L 100% oxygen for 15mins via non-rebreather mask Prophylaxis: Verapamil (CCB)
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What are Tension Headaches?
The most common form of a primary headache which has a characteristic rubber band feeling around the head.
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What is the Epidemiology of Tension headaches?
Most common primary headache Can be episodic (<15 days/month) or chronic (>15 days a month for at least 3 months)
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What are the causes of Tension Headaches?
Neurovascular irritation which refers to scalp muscles and soft tissues MC SCOLD: Missed meals Conflict Stress Clenched jaw Overexertion Lack of sleep Depression
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What is the Presentation of a Tension headache?
- Pressing/tight band around the head - Usually Bilateral - Lasts from 30 mins to 7 days - Mild/moderate intensity pain - No extra features (Vomiting, Nausea, Photo/phonophobia)
267
What is the diagnosis for a tension headache?
- A - > 10 attacks occurring <1 day/month (<12 days/year) and fulfilling B-D - B - Headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days - C – headache has two of the following Bilateral Pressing/tightening (non-pulsatile) quality Mild or moderate intensity/pain Not aggravated by routine physical activity (e.g. walking or climbing stairs) - D – both of the following No nausea or vomiting (anorexia may occur) No more than one of photophobia and phonophobia - E – not attributed to another disorder
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What is the treatment for a Tension headache?
Stress relief Avoid triggers Simple analgesia: Aspirin/Paracetamol
269
What is the main risk factor/trigger for a tension headache?
STRESS
270
What is Trigeminal Neuralgia?
A chronic, debilitating condition resulting in intense and extreme episodes of pain around the innervation region of the Trigeminal Nerve
271
What are the risk factors for Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Increased age MS Female HTN
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What is the Epidemiology of Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Females 50-60 yrs Increases with age Almost always Unilateral
273
What are the causes of Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Compression of the trigeminal Nerve that leads to excitation and erratic pain: - Vein or artery compressing CN5 - Local Pathology pressing on CN5 (tumours/Aneurysms) - CN5 nerve lesion
274
What is the headache like in Trigeminal Neuralgia?
Electric Shock Pain that lasts for seconds to minutes across the face 90% unilateral 10% bilateral
275
What is the diagnostic criteria for trigeminal neuralgia?
Clinical Dx 3 or more attacks with characteristic unilateral facial pain and Symptoms MRI - exclude secondary causes/other pathology
276
What are the treatment options for trigeminal neuralgia?
First Line: Carbamazepine (anticonvulsant) Second Line: Phenytoin/Gabapentin (analgesic targeted for neuropathic pain) Surgery possible to decompress/intentionally damage nerve
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Overview of Primary Headache Features: Duration Site Character Severity Acute Tx
Duration: MH - 4-72 hrs TH - Minutes to days CH - 15-180 mins TGN - Few seconds Site: MH - Unilateral TH - Bilateral CH - Retro-orbital/unilateral TGN - unilateral V1/2/3 distribution Character: MH - Throbbing TH - Pressing/tight band CH - Hot poker/boring TGN - Electric shock/stabbing Severity: MH - Moderate-severe TH - Mild to moderate CH - Severe to very severe TGN - Severe to very severe Acute Tx: MH - Triptan TH - Paracetamol CH - Triptan/100% O2 TGN - Carbamazepine
278
Define a Seizure?
A Paroxysmal/Transient alteration of neurological function due to excessive or Synchronous discharge of neurons within the brain
279
Define Epilepsy?
A neurological disorder characterised by an increased tendency to have recurrent seizures that are idiopathic and unprovoked. (>2 episodes more than 24hrs apart)
280
What are the different causes of seizures?
VITAMIN DE: Vascular - Stroke, HTN Infection - Meningitis, Encephalitis Trauma/Toxins - Drugs/alcohol Autoimmune - SLE Metabolic - Hypocalcaemia, Hypoglycaemia, Hypo/hypernatraemia Idiopathic - Epilepsy Neoplasms Dementia + Drugs (cocaine) Eclampsia + everything else
281
What are the risk factors for developing epilepsy?
FHx Head Trauma Premature babies Cerebral Infections Dementia (10x more likely) Drug use - cocaine Cerebrovascular events
282
What is the epidemiology of epilepsy?
One of the most common neurological disorders 2% of UK population will have 2 or more seizures Highest prevalence at extremes of life (<20yr or >60yrs)
283
What is the pathophysiology of seizures?
Disrupted neurological function resulting in an imbalance between inhibition and excitation of neurons. Balance of GABA and Glutamate shifts towards glutamate Therefore more excitatory stimulation
284
What are the different types of seizures?
Epileptic vs Non-Epileptic: Generalised Focal
285
How can Seizures be classified?
1. Area of the Brain with Excessive Neurological Activity: Generalised - Begin involving both hemispheres of brain OR Focal - Begin in one hemisphere of the brain OR Focal to Bilateral - Begin in one hemisphere and then spread to involve both 2. Based on Awareness (Only applies to focal as bilateral always impair awareness): Focal- aware OR Focal Unaware 3. Based on motor involvement: Motor Or No Motor 4. Type of motor movement: Stiffening - Tonic Jerking - Clonic (convulsions) Automatic Movements - Licking lips, Rubbing hands
286
What is the Jacksonian March?
Where Focal Seizures may start with one muscle group being affected however this then spreads to involve other muscle groups as the abnormal electrical activity spreads. Associated with Frontal lobe focal seizures
287
Define an Epileptic Seizure
Paroxysmal event in which changes of behaviour, sensation or cognitive processes are caused by excessive (too much voltage), hypersynchronous neuronal discharges in the brain (unprovoked)
288
What are the characteristics of an epileptic seizure?
- Duration – 30-120 seconds - Positive ictal symptoms – excess of something Seeing/hearing something that isn’t there Feeling touch when you aren’t being touched - Positive postictal symptoms - May occur from sleep - May be associated with other brain dysfunction – bleeds, stroke, tumours etc. - Typical seizure phenomena – lateral tongue bite, déjà v
289
Define a Non-Epileptic Seizure?
Paroxysmal event in which changes in behaviour, sensation and cognitive function caused by mental processes associated with psychosocial distress
290
What are the characteristics of a Non-epileptic Seizure?
Situational Duration 1 – 20 mins Dramatic motor phenomena or prolonged atonia Eyes closed Ictal crying and speaking Surprisingly rapid or slow postictal recovery History of psychiatric illness, other somatoform disorders
291
What are the subtypes of generalised seizures?
Tonic Clonic Absence Tonic Myoclonic Atonic
292
What are the subtypes of Focal Seizures?
Simple (aware) focal complex (unaware) focal
293
How are Seizures classified?
Where the seizures began Level of awareness during the seizure Other features of the seizure e.g. motor
294
What are generalised seizures?
A seizure that starts within both hemispheres of the brain at onset. They are bilateral ALWAYS a loss of consciousness
295
What are Focal Seizures?
Seizures that originate within one side of the brain and are usually confined to one region. They may progress to secondary lobes (Focal-bilateral seizures)
296
What is the clinical progression of an epileptic seizure?
Prodrome: (days before) Mood changes Pre-Ictal: (minutes before) Aura - flashing lights, strange smells Seizure trigger Automatisms - lip smacking/rapid blinking Ictal Event: The Seizure Post-Ictal Period: (30 mins after) Headaches Confusion / reduced GCS Todd's Paralysis Amnesia Sore tongue
297
What is Todd's Paralysis?
Period after an epileptic seizure in which the patient experiences temporary paralysis
298
What are the features of a Tonic Clonic seizure?
No aura Loss of consciousness Tonic phase - rigidity/muscle tensing (fall to floor) Clonic phase - Jerking of limbs/muscles Upgazing open eyes Incontinence Tongue bitten
299
What is the management of a Tonic Clonic Seizure?
First line: sodium valproate Second line: lamotrigine or carbamazepine
300
What is an Absence Seizure?
Typically in children: A type of Generalised Non-Motor Seizure Px stares blankly into space (seconds to mins) Unaware of surrounds and will not respond. Will then carry on as normal after the seizure.
301
What is a tonic seizure?
A seizure where there is just rigidity/muscle tensing
302
What is a Myoclonic seizure?
Myoclonic: A seizure where there is short jerking in parts of the body Clonic: Periods of excessive shaking or jerking parts of the body
303
What is an Atonic Seizure?
Sudden floppy limbs and muscles They may be indicative of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
304
What is a febrile convulsion?
Seizures that occur in children whilst they have a fever. They are not caused by epilepsy or underlying pathology.
305
What parts of the brain are affected in a generalised Seizure?
All the cortex and deep brain structures bilaterally affected.
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What parts of the brain are affected in a simple focal seizure?
The Focal region of cortex NO basal ganglia/thalamus involvement
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What parts of the brain are affected in a complex focal seizure?
The focal region of cortex Basal ganglia and thalamus are involved.
308
What is a Simple (aware) Focal Seizure?
No Loss of consciousness The patient is awake and aware Will have uncontrollable muscle jerking and may be unable to speak
309
What is a Complex (unaware) Focal Seizure?
There is loss of Consciousness Patient is unaware
310
What are the symptoms of Focal seizures?
Dependent on where the focal deficit is located
311
What is the most common region affected in a focal seizure?
Temporal lobe
312
What are the features of a Temporal focal seizure?
Oral automatism: lip smacking, chewing, swallowing Manual automatisms: picking, fumbling Automatic behaviour: running, walking Auras: déjà vu, feeling of fear, unpleasant smells Auditory: buzzing, ringing, vertigo
313
What are the features of a Frontal focal seizure?
Predominantly motor symptoms: pelvic thrusting, bicycling, tonic posturing Sexual automatisms Bizarre behaviour Jacksonian March Todd's Paralysis Vocalisations
314
What are the features of a Parietal focal seizure?
Parasthesias Visual hallucinations Visual illusions More subjective and difficult to diagnose than other areas
315
What are the features of a Occipital focal seizure?
Visual hallucinations Transient blindness Rapid and forced blinking Movement of head or eyes to the opposite side
316
What are the investigations for Seizures?
Hx - of seizure and post ictal state Physical Exam - Tongue Biting Bloods: Blood Glucose/ U&Es Imaging: CT/MRI EEG: Epilepsy Syndrome Investigation.
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What is required for a diagnosis of Epilepsy?
Must have had 2 or more Unprovoked seizures MORE THAN 24 hrs apart to be considered: CT/MRI head - Examine HIPPOCAMPUS, check for bleeds and trauma EEG: 3H2 wave in absence Bloods: rule out metabolic/infection
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What is the Treatment for epilepsy and seizures? Generalised Tonic-Clonic Focal Absence Atonic Myoclonic
Give Sodium Valproate unless: FOCAL seizure or FEMALE OF CHILDBEARING AGE then give LAMOTRIGINE Generalised Tonic-Clonic 1st - Sodium Valproate 2nd - Lamotrigine/Carbamazepine Focal 1st - Lamotrigine 2nd - Sodium Valproate Absence 1st - Ethosuximide Atonic 1st - Sodium Valproate 2nd - Lamotrigine Myoclonic 1st - Sodium Valproate 2nd - Lamotrigine
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What further treatment can be done after pharmacological management of seizures and epilepsy?
Surgery - remove cause of seizure - eg. specific part of brain Nerve stimulation
320
What is the MOA of Carbamazepine?
Inhibits VG Na channels to reduce excitability of neurones. Used to treat Focal seizures and 1st line in Trigeminal Neuralgia
321
What is the MOA of Phenytoin/Gabapentin?
Inhibit VG Ca channels to prevent neurotransmitter released. Used to treat neuropathic pain (such as trigeminal neuralgia)
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What is the MOA of Benzodiazepines?
Target the GABA receptor and increase its activity to reduce neuronal excitability.
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What is a contraindication for using Sodium Valporate?
All females of childbearing age (15-45) Sodium Valporate is Teratogenic Instead use Lamotrigine
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What is a complication of Epilepsy?
Status Epilepticus (NEURO EMERGENCY) Multiple Epileptic seizures without a break back to back (without regaining consciousness) OR Seizure lasting >5 minutes
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What are the symptoms of STATUS EPILEPTICUS?
Post ictal confusion Todd’s palsy – paralysis in arms or leg (usually isolated to one side of the body Can last ~15 hours and usually subsides in around ~2 days Temporary and severe suppression of seizure-affected area
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What is the treatment for Status Epilepticus?
Benzodiazepines: Lorazepam 4mg IV If not worked then Lorazepam again. Then Phenytoin if second dose doesnt work.
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What are the differences between an epileptic and non-epileptic seizure?
Epileptic Seizures have: Eyes OPEN Synchronous Movements Can occur in sleep
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What must you do if you are diagnosed with Seizures?
Inform DVLA Cannot drive until seizure free for one year
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What is the length of the spinal cord?
From C1-L1/2
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Where is the conus medullaris and cauda equina?
At L1/2
331
Define Hemiplegia?
Paralysis to one side of the body (usually due to a brain lesion)
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Define Paraplegia?
Paralysis of both legs/lower body (usually due to a spinal cord lesion)
333
What does the DCML tract convey information for?
Ascending tract for fine touch, 2pt discrimination and proprioception.
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What is the pathway for the DCML
Travels in dorsal route (Fasciculus Gracilis/Cuneatus) Decussates in the medulla
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What does the spinothalamic tract convey information for?
Ventral: Crude Touch and pressure Lateral: Pain and temperature
336
What is the pathway for the spinothalamic tract?
Ascending: Enters at spinal level of nerve ascends 1-2 spinal levels and then decussates
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What information does the corticospinal tract convey?
Upper motor neurons for movement. Decussates at the medulla
338
What are the nerve routes for the Knee jerk reflex?
L3/4
339
What are the nerve routes for the Big toe reflex?
L5
340
What are the nerve routes for the ankle Jerk reflex?
S1/2
341
What are the commonest causes of spinal cord injury?
Trauma Vertebral compression fractures Intervertebral disc disease - prolapse/herniation Tumours Infection
342
What are the common vertebral body neoplasms that can cause spinal compression?
Mets from: Lungs Breast RCC Melanoma
343
What are the different types of spinal cord injury?
Complete SC injury Anterior SC injury Posterior SC injury Central SC injury Brown-Sequard Syndrome
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What is Spinal Cord Compression?
Compression of the spinal cord resulting in upper neurone signs and specific symptoms dependent on where compression is
345
What is the commonest cause of acute spinal cord compression?
Vertebral body neoplasms
346
What are the main causes of Spinal Cord Compression (myelopathy)?
Tumour (slow onset) Osteophytes Disc prolapse (slower onset) Nucleus pulposus moves and presses against the annulus but it doesn’t escape outside the annulus Can produce a bulge in the disc which, sometimes, can result in pressure (less pressure than herniation) on nerve root resulting in pain Disc herniation - centre of disc (nucleus pulposus) has moved out through the annulus (outer part of disc) resulting in pressure on nerve root and pain
347
What are the symptoms of spinal cord compression?
- Back pain may precede weakness and sensory loss due to pathology (disc prolapse/herniation/Neoplasm) - 60-80% occur in Thoracic spine and 20% in lumbar spine Sx depend on level of cord compression: UMN signs below level of lesion – everything goes up Sensory loss 1-2 spinal segments below level of lesion LMN signs AT level Bladder sphincter involvement – hesitancy, frequency, painless retention
348
What is the concern if there is sphincter involvement in spinal cord compression
This is a late and bad sign signalling a poorer prognosis
349
What would be the features of a complete spinal cord compression?
All motor and sensory function below the SCI level
350
What would be the features of an anterior spinal cord compression?
Disruption of anterior spinal cord or anterior spinal artery Loss of motor function below the level Loss of pain and temperature sensation (anterior column) Preservation of fine touch and proprioception (posterior column)
351
What would be the features of a posterior spinal cord compression?
Disruption of posterior spinal cord or posterior spinal artery (rare) Loss of fine touch and proprioception (posterior column) Preservation of pain and temperature sensation (anterior column)
352
What are some differential Diagnoses for Spinal Cord Compression?
Transverse myelitis MS Cord vasculitis Trauma Dissecting aneurysm
353
What is the primary investigation if suspecting a Spinal cord compression?
MRI Spinal cord ASAP: (risk of permanent damage) CT CAP - if malignancy suspected + biopsy to identify nature
354
What is the treatment for spinal cord compression?
Neurosurgery to decompress cord Dexamethasone to reduce inflammation
355
What is Brown Sequard Syndrome?
Hemi-section of the spinal cord and therefore loss of sensations of pain temperature and touch and motor movement
356
What are the causes of Brown-Sequard Syndrome?
Space occupying lesions Intervertebral disc prolapses Vertebral bone fractures Trauma – gunshot wounds, knife wounds Infectious – HIV MS
357
What would be the clinical features of brown-Sequard syndrome?
- (Ipsilateral Corticospinal) Ipsilateral weakness and loss of motor function below the lesion. - (Ipsilateral DCML) Ipsilateral loss of proprioception, 2-point discrimination and fine touch. - (Contralateral Spinothalamic) Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation 1-2 spinal segments below the lesion.
358
What is the Investigation and Treatment for Brown Sequard Syndrome?
Ix - MRI Spine Tx - Supportive (physical/occupational therapy) and Steroids (Dexamethasone)
359
What is Sciatica?
Sciatica refers to the symptoms associated with irritation of the sciatic nerve.
360
What spinal nerves form the sciatic nerve? Where is the most common region of compression to cause Sciatica?
L4-S3 spinal roots Most common region of compression at L5/S1
361
What is the innervation of the sciatic nerve?
The sciatic nerve supplies sensation to the lateral lower leg and the foot. (below the knee) It supplies motor function to the posterior thigh, lower leg and foot. (Hamstring muscles and all muscles below the knee)
362
What nerves are branches of the sciatic nerve?
Common peroneal nerve Tibial nerve
363
What are the Signs and Symptoms of Sciatica?
- Unilateral pain from the buttock radiating down the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet - Paraesthesia (pins and needles), numbness and motor weakness - Reflexes may be affected depending on spinal root affected Signs: Unilateral Weak plantar flexion Absent right ankle jerk Decreased sensation over lateral edge and sole of right foot
364
What are the signs of a Tibial Nerve Lesion?
L4-S3 (originals from sciatic nerve above the knee) Inability to: Plantarflexion Invert foot Flex toes Sensory loss over sole of foot
365
What are the signs of a Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion?
L4-S1 (Originates from sciatic nerve just above the knee) Foot drop Weak ankle dorsiflexion and eversion Sensory loss over dorsal foot If Ankle inversion/hip adduction affected it could be L5 radiculopathy
366
What are the main causes of Sciatica?
Intervertebral Herniated/prolapsed disc Tumours Piriformis Syndrome Spondylolisthesis Spinal stenosis
367
What is Bilateral sciatica a red flag for?
Cauda Equina syndrome
368
What is the Socrates mnemonic for?
Assessing pain S – Site O – Onset C – Character R – Radiation A – Associations T – Timing E – Exacerbating and relieving factors S – Severity
369
What are the diagnostic investigations for sciatica?
Clinical Dx generally: Can't Do straight leg raise test without pain May have: XR CT MRI - if cauda equina suspected
370
What is the main treatment for sciatica?
Physiotherapy + Analgesia: Amitriptyline (TCA) Duloxetine (SNRI)
371
What are the side effects Amitriptyline?
constipation. Blurred vision/dizziness dry mouth. feeling sleepy. Confusion Urinary retention headache
372
What is Cauda Equina Syndrome (CES)?
Surgical emergency where the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine are compressed below the conus medullaris (L2)
373
What do the nerves of the cauda equina supply?
Sensation to the lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum Motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
374
What are the main causes of CES?
Large Central Herniated disc (the most common cause) Tumours, particularly metastasis Spondylolisthesis (anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below) Abscess (infection) Trauma
375
What is the most common cause of CES?
Lumber Herniation L4/5 or L5/S1
376
What are the main symptoms of CES?
Leg weakness w/ difficulty walking. Saddle anaesthesia - perianal numbness Bladder/Bowel dysfunction + sphincter involvement Erectile Dysfunction
377
What are the main Signs of CES?
Bilateral LMN Sx: Areflexia Fasciculations Loss of Lower Limb sensation Loss of bowel/bladder control Palpable bladder due to Urinary retention
378
What is the diagnostic investigation for CES?
MRI spinal cord (diagnostic) Testing nerve roots/reflexes
379
What is the treatment for CES?
Refer to neurosurgeon ASAP to relive pressure Surgical decompression High dose dexamethasone Corticosteroids
380
What are the red flag signs in CES?
Bilateral sciatica Bilateral flaccid leg weakness Saddle anaesthesia Bladder and bowel dysfunction Erectile dysfunction Areflexia
381
What is the main difference between Cauda Equina Syndrome and spinal cord lesions above the Cauda Equina?
Major difference between cauda equina and lesions higher up in the cord is that leg weakness is flaccid and areflexic (LMN lesion) and not spastic and hyperreflexic (UMN lesion)
382
Where do the cranial Nerves arise from?
CN1 - Olfactory Bulb CN2 - Optic Chiasm CN3 - Interpeduncular fossa CN4 - Dorsal aspect of Midbrain CN5 - Lateral Pons CN6 - Pontomedullary Junction CN7 - Pontomedullary Junction CN8 - Pontomedullary Junction CN9 - Medulla CN10 - Medulla CN11 - Medulla (below CN12) CN12 - Medulla (Above CN11)
383
What is the causes of Cranial nerve lesions?
Damage to the brainstem: - Tumour - MS - Trauma - Aneurysm - Vertebral artery dissection resulting in infarction - Infection - cerebellar abscess from ear
384
What are the Symptoms of a CN1 Palsy?
Anosmia - Cant smell
385
What are the Symptoms of a CN2 Palsy?
Visual Field Defects depending on where in the optic tract the lesion is: Optic Nerve itself will have Loss of vision in the eye of optic nerve lesion
386
What are the symptoms of a CN3 palsy?
Ptosis Down and out eye Fixed and dilated pupil
387
Why do you get a down and out eye in a CN3 palsy?
Unopposed action of the Trochlear (CN4) and Abducens (CN6) cranial nerves
388
Why do you get a fixed and dilated pupil in a CN3 palsy?
Loss of parasympathetic outflow from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus supplying the pupillary sphincter and ciliary bodies.
389
What are the causes of a CN3 palsy?
* Raised ICP * Diabetes * Hypertension * Giant cell arteritis
390
What are the symptoms of a CN4 palsy?
Diplopia (double vision) when looking down "walking down stairs"
391
What are the causes of a CN4 palsy?
Rare: Due to trauma of the orbit
392
What are the symptoms of a CN5 palsy?
- Jaw deviates to side of lesion - Loss of corneal reflex
393
What are the causes of a CN5 Palsy?
Trigeminal Neuralgia (pain but no sensory loss) VZV nasopharyngeal cancer
394
What are the symptoms of a CN6 palsy?
Adducted eye
395
What are the causes of a CN6 palsy?
Raised ICP MS Wernicke's Encephalopathy Pontine Stroke
396
What are the symptoms of a combined CN3,4,6 palsy?
Non-Functional Eye
397
What are the causes of a combined CN3,4,6 palsy?
* Pontine Stroke * Tumours * Wernicke’s encephalopathy
398
What are the signs of a CN7 palsy?
unilateral facial weakness (motor component), altered taste (sensory component), and a dry mouth (parasympathetic component).
399
What are the causes of a CN7 palsy?
Bells Palsy Fractures to pteroid bone Parotic inflammation Otitis Media
400
What is Bells Palsy?
Neurological condition that presents with a rapid onset of unilateral facial paralysis
401
What is clinically relevant about the control of the facial muscles?
The lower half of the faces only has contralateral innervation Top half has bilateral. forehead sparing
402
How can you tell if a bells palsy is an UMN or LMN lesion?
UMN injured, lower half on contralateral side is weak but forehead is not as it has contralateral and ipsilateral innervation (bilateral) LMN - weakness of all the muscles on the ipsilateral side of the face
403
How do you determine the level of CN7 lesion?
Proximal to pons - loss of all function (lacrimation, salivation, taste, facial weakness) Lesion above chorda tympani (same as previous but does have lacrimation) Distal Lesion to the stylomastoid foramen (facial weakness only)
404
How do you determine the level of CN7 lesion?
Proximal to pons - loss of all function (lacrimation, salivation, taste, facial weakness) Lesion above chorda tympani (same as previous but does have lacrimation) Distal Lesion to the stylomastoid foramen (facial weakness only)
405
What are the symptoms of a CN8 palsy?
Hearing impairment Vertigo Loss of balance
406
What are the causes of a CN8 palsy?
Skull fracture Otitis Media Tumours Compression
407
What are the symptoms of a CN9 and CN10 palsy?
- Gag reflex issues - Swallowing issues - Vocal issues - hoarse voce
408
What are the causes of a CN9/CN10 palsy?
Jugular foramen lesion
409
What are the symptoms of a CN11 palsy?
Can't shrug shoulders/turn head against resistance
410
What are the symptoms of a CN12 palsy?
Tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion
411
Define Weakness/paresis
impaired ability to move a body part in response to will
412
Define Paralysis?
ability to move a body part in response to will is completely lost
413
Define Ataxia/
willed movements are clumsy, ill-directioned or uncontrolled (usually due to an issue with the cerebellum)
414
Define Apraxia?
disorder of consciously organised patterns of movement or impaired ability to recall acquired motor skills
415
What is a Motor Unit?
Basic functional unit of muscle activity Alpha motor neuron (LMN) + axon + skeletal muscle fibres it innervates Number of muscles fibres depends on sophistication of the movement e.g. hands and eyes (finely controlled), each motor neuron will only control a few muscle fibres whereas in bulky muscles, each motor neuron will supply more muscle fibres
416
What is the organisation of Movement?
Idea of movement – association areas of cortex Activation of upper motor neurons in the pre-central gyrus Impulses travel to lower motor neurons and their motor units via the corticospinal (pyramidal) tracts Modulating activity of the cerebellum and basal ganglia Hence why individuals with cerebellar and basal ganglia disorders can’t control movements properly Further modification of movement depending on sensory feedback
417
How is Muscle Tone Regulated?
Stretch receptors in muscle (muscle spindles) innervated by gamma motor neurons Muscle stretched 🡪 afferent impulses from muscle spindles which 🡪 reflex partial contraction of muscle Disease states e.g. spasticity and extrapyramidal rigidity alter muscle tone by altering the sensitivity of this reflex
418
What is Motor Neuron Disease (MND)
Progressive neurodegenerative disease where both upper and lower motor neurons stop functioning but there is no effect on the sensory neurons.
419
What is the most common form of MND?
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Accounts for 50% of cases
420
What are the risk factors of MND?
Increased age >60 yrs Male FHx Smoking RUGBY
421
What genetic mutation is linked with MND?
SOD-1 mutation
422
What is the main motor tract in the body?
Corticospinal tract UMN from precentral gyrus Anterior (10% - no decussation) Lateral (90% - Decussation in Medullary pyramids)
423
What are the different types of MND?
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) Progressive Muscular Atrophy (PMA) Primary Lateral Sclerosis (PLS) Progressive Bulbar Palsy (PBP)
424
What is the Epidemiology of MND?
More common in men Most commonly affects people in middle age ALS - most common type of MND Most die within 3 years of diagnosis – usually from respiratory failure as a result of bulbar palsy and pneumonia
425
What are the signs of ALS?
UMN and LMN signs
426
What are the signs of PMA?
LMN only Has best prognosis
427
What are the signs of PLS?
UMN signs only
428
What are the signs of PBP?
CN9-12 affected Speech and swallowing issues Worst prognosis
429
What is the pathology of MND?
Degenerative condition selectively affecting motor neurons – mainly in the anterior horn cells, motor cortex or cranial nerve nuclei There is relentless and UNEXPLAINED destruction of UMN and anterior horn cells in the brain and spinal cord Causes both UMN and LMN dysfunction UMN and LMN affected but no sensory or sphincter loss – distinguishes from MS Never affects eye movements – distinguishable from myasthenia gravis
430
What are the signs of an Upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
Hypertonia Rigidity + spasticity Hyperreflexia Babinski Reflex Positive - Big toe goes up when stroking foot Power: Arms - Flexors > Extensors Legs - Flexors < Extensors
431
What are the signs of a Lower Motor Neuron (LMN) Lesion?
Hypotonia Flaccidity + muscle wasting Hyporeflexia Fasciculations Babinski Reflex Negative - big toe goes down when stroking foot Generally loss of power
432
What should you think if you see a patient with mixed Upper and lower motor neuron signs?
MND!!
433
Where is an UMN lesion?
Anywhere on a motor nerve between the pre-central gyrus to the anterior spinal cord
434
Where is a LMN lesion?
Anywhere on a motor nerve between the anterior spinal cord and the innervated muscle
435
What is NEVER affected in MND?
Eye muscles: Affected in MS and MG Sensory Function and Sphincters: Affected in MS and Polyneuropathies
436
What are the symptoms of MND?
Progressive weakness Falls Speech and swallowing issues (in PBP)
437
What is split hand sign?
Disproportionate wasting of the thenar muscles compared to the hypothenar muscles commonly seen in ALS
438
What are the clinical signs of MND?
Mixed UMN and LMN signs Dysarthria / Dysphagia Fasciculations Split Hand Sign
439
What is the primary investigation for MND?
Clinical Dx due to mixed UMN/LMN picture - LMN/UMN signs in 3 regions EMG - fibrillation potentials May carry out MRI for exclusion of spinal cord compression/myelopathy May Carry out CSF examinations for exclusion of Inflammatory cause
440
What are some good diagnostic tips to exclude DDx of MND?
No sensory loss = rules out MS or myelopathy No disturbances in eye movements = rules out Myasthenia Gravis or MS No sphincter disturbances = rules out MS
441
What is the management of MND?
No cure - progressive MDT Supportive therapy + end of life care: Physiotherapy Analgesia Breathing support if needed Pharmacological Tx: Riluzole - anti-glutaminergic (prolongs survival by 2-4 months)
442
What are the differential Diagnoses for MND?
- **Multiple sclerosis** - **Polyneuropathies** - **Myasthenia gravis** - **Diabetic amyotrophy** - **Guillain-Barre syndrome** - **Spinal cord tumours**
443
What are the complications of MND?
Aspiration pneumonia Respiratory failure
444
What is Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
Autoimmune condition characterised by Autoantibodies against the nicotinic Acetylcholine receptors (nAChR) at the neuromuscular Junction.
445
What type of Hypersensitivity reaction is Myasthenia Gravis?
Type 2
446
What are the risk factors for MG?
Females FHx Autoimmunity Thymoma/ Thymic Hyperplasia
447
What is the epidemiology of MG?
Generally more common in Females Female peak (20-30yrs) - associated with autoimmune disease Male peak (50-60yrs) - associated with Thymoma
448
What is the pathophysiology of MG?
85% Anti-nACh Receptors: - Bind to post synaptic receptor and competitively inhibit ACh binding. - ACh cannot bind during exertion and therefore there is progressive weakness of muscles - Auto-ABs Will also bind to complement factors and cause NMJ destruction 15% Anti MuSK: Inhibit MuSK from synthesising ACh Receptors so there is reduced expression on post synaptic membrane.
449
What are the symptoms of MG?
Lethargy Muscle weakness that starts at head/neck and moves downwards Weak eye muscles - diplopia Ptosis Jaw fatiguability - slurred speech/ chewing difficulties Swallowing difficult
450
What is the progression of weakness like in MG?
Worse during the day/with exertion Better with rest Due to more AChRs being required in exertion and therefore greater inhibiton
451
What are the clinical signs of MG?
ptosis Head drop Myasthenic Snarl - difficulty smiling
452
What is the primary investigation for MG?
Serology - Ab testing: Anti-nACh-R Abs (85%) Anti-MuSK Abs (15%) Bedside tests - Count to 50 and as they reach higher numbers their voice becomes less audible Nerve Stimulation Evoked potential Tests (EMG) - decrement in evoked potential after motor nerve stimulation Edrophonium Test CT Thorax/MRI - look for Thymoma
453
What is the Edrophonium Test?
Give Edrophonium (neostigmine) and AChE inhibitor to increase ACh Will give brief/temporary relief of Sx and increase muscle power Rarely used due to increased risk of heart block
454
What is the first line treatment for MG?
1st Line: Reversible AChE inhibitors: Rivastigmine, Neostigmine Pyridostigmine 2nd Line: Prednisolone Immunosuppressant 3rd Line: Azathioprine If these options fail: Potentially Monoclonal Abs (Rituximab)
455
What is the main complication of MG?
Myasthenic Crisis: Severe acute worsening of Sx Often Triggered by another illness (URTI) Severe Respiratory weakness
456
What is the Treatment for Myasthenic Crisis?
IV Ig (immunoglobulin) and Plasmapheresis Non-invasive ventilation: BiPAP for Resp failure
457
What is a differential Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis?
Lambert Eaton Syndrome
458
What is Lambert Eaton Syndrome?
A NMJ syndrome which has similar Sx to MG. Autoimmunity against VG-Ca channels thereby reducing ACh release at the NMJ causing muscle weakness.
459
What is the cause of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?
Unclear but likely a paraneoplastic syndrome: Typically occurs in Px with Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)
460
What is the presentation of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?
Proximal muscle weakness that develops more slowly Sx start at extremities and progress towards the head Shares most of same Sx with MG
461
What is the difference between MG and Lambert Eaton Syndrome clinically?
Lambert Eaton Syndrome symptoms tend to improve following a period of strong muscle contraction. Post Tetanic Potentiation
462
What is the Treatment for Lambert Eaton Syndrome?
Dx and Tx underlying condition (often SCLC) Amifampridine - blocks K+ channels and increases ACh release + Steroids and Immunosuppressants
463
What is Syncope?
Paroxysmal Event in which there is a transient loss of consciousness caused by an insufficient blood or oxygen supply to the brain. (vasovagal episodes)
464
What are the classifications of the causes of syncope?
Neurally mediated: Vasovagal Orthostatic (postural) syncope Cardiac syncope Structural Arrythmias
465
What is vasovagal syncope?
Vagus nerve receives a strong signal: Emotion, pain, temperature change Activates Parasympathetic NS Dilates blood vessels reducing cerebral perfusion causing hypoperfusion of the brain leading to collapse
466
What is the prodrome of syncope (presyncope Symptoms)?
Hot or clammy Sweaty Heavy Dizzy or lightheaded Vision going blurry or dark Headache
467
What are the causes of primary syncope?
Dehydration Missed meals Extended standing in a warm environment, such as a school assembly A vasovagal response to a stimuli, such as sudden surprise, pain or the sight of blood
468
What are the causes of secondary syncope?
Hypoglycaemia Anaemia Infection Anaphylaxis Arrhythmias Valvular heart disease Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
469
What is Orthostatic syncope?
Syncope due to postural change (standing from sitting) Occurs due to: Upon standing blood pools in the lower limbs/lower abdomen → venous return decreases → transient ↓cardiac output Sympathetic activation increases SV. reduction of Parasympathetic stimulation further increases HR and CO. Failure of these mechanisms leads to orthostatic syncope
470
What are the classical characteristics of syncope?
Situational Typically, from sitting or standing Rarely from sleep Presyncopal symptoms Occipital – see stars, dizzy and light headed, vision goes black Temporal – noises may sound distorted Back of brain most sensitive to oxygen Duration – 5-30 seconds Recovery within 30 seconds Cardiogenic syncope – less warning, history of heart disease
471
What are the primary investigations for syncope?
Clinical Hx and examination Ix to rule out pathological causes: Bloods - infection FBC - anaemia ECG- arrythmia Glucose - Hypoglycaemia B-hCG - ectopic pregnancy
472
What is the management of Syncope?
Confirm Dx to exclude underlying pathology Avoid Dehydration Avoid missing meals Avoid standing still
473
What are the different functions of the different nerve fibre types?
A-alpha – proprioception A-beta – light touch, pressure, vibration A – delta – dull pain and cold C – fibres – sharp pain and warmth
474
What is a mononeuropathy?
A process of nerve damage that affects a single nerve
475
What is polyneuropathy?
Disorders of peripheral or cranial nerves, whose distribution is usually symmetrical and widespread (multi-systemic) Often due to: Diabetes MS Guillain Barre
476
What is Mononeuritis Multiplex?
A type of peripheral neuropathy where there is damage to several individual nerves due to systemic causes.
477
What are the causes of Mononeuritis Multiplex?
WARDS PLC: - Wegener’s granulomatosis - Aids/Amyloid - Rheumatoid arthritis - Diabetes mellitus - Sarcoidosis - Polyarteritis nodosa - Leprosy - Carcinoma
478
What is Peripheral Neuropathy? What are the types of peripheral nerve disease?
Nerve pathology outside of the CNS that affects the peripheral nerves Mononeuropathy Polyneuropathy
479
What are some causes of peripheral nerve disease?
DAVIDE: Diabetes Alcohol Vitamin B12 Deficiency Infective - Guillain Barre/Charcot Marie Tooth Drugs - isoniazid Every vasculitis
480
What are the mechanisms of Peripheral Neuropathy?
Demyelination Axonal Damage - Nerve cut Nerve Compression Vasa Nervorum Infarction Wallerian Degeneration (Nerve lesion and distal end dies)
481
What are the 6 mechanisms of peripheral neuropathy and how do they occur?
- Demyelination o Schwann cell damage leads to myelin sheath disruption o Results in marked slowing of conduction e.g. in Guillain Barre syndrome - Axonal degeneration o Axonal damage causes the nerve fibre to die back from periphery o Conduction velocity initially remains mortal because axonal continuity is maintained in surviving fibres o Axonal degeneration occurs in toxic neuropathies - Compression o Focal demyelination at the point of compression causes disruption of conduction o Typically occurs in entrapment neuropathies e.g. carpal tunnel syndrome - Infarction o Micro-infarction of vasa nervorum occurs in diabetes and arteritis such as polyarteritis nodosa and eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) - Infiltration o Infiltration occurs by inflammatory cells in leprosy and granulomas such as sarcoid and by neoplastic cells (cancer) - Wallerian degeneration o Process that results when a nerve fibre is cut or crash and the distal part of the axon that is separated from the neuron’s body degenerates
482
Give some examples of Mononeuropathies
- Carpal tunnel syndrome (medial nerve) – most common - Ulnar neuropathy (entrapment at the cubital tunnel) - Peroneal neuropathy (entrapment at the fibular head) - Cranial mononeuropathies (III or VII cranial nerve palsy) Idiopathic Immune mediated Ischaemic
483
What are the investigations for a peripheral neuropathy?
- History - Clinical examination Reduced or absent tendon reflexes Sensory deficit Weakness – muscle atrophies - Neurophysiological examination i.e. Nerve conduction studies/QST Demyelinating 🡪 Slow conduction velocities Axonal 🡪 Reduced amplitudes of the potential
484
What is the management for peripheral neuropathy?
Symptomatic Tx: Pain – give anti-neuralgic (GAP) - Gabapentin, Amitriptyline, Pregabalin Cramps - Quinine Balance - Physiotherapy/walking aids Aim is to identify any reversible cause and stop disease progression if possible
485
What is the most common Mononeuropathy?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
486
What is the pathophysiology of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Compression/pressure of the Median Nerve as it passes through the Flexor Retinaculum "carpal tunnel"
487
What are the causes of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Mostly Idiopathic Also: (HODPARAR) Hypothyroidism Obesity Diabetes Pregnancy Acromegaly Rheumatoid Arthritis Amyloidosis Repetitive Strain Injury
488
Who is more likely affected by Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Females due to narrower wrists so more likely to have compression Over 30s
489
What is the presentation of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Gradual Onset of Sx Start off as intermittent Sx Worse at night
490
What are the Symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Sensory Symptoms: Burning, paraesthesia, tingling, numbness Where: Palmer aspects and full fingertips of: Thumb Index and middle finger The lateral half of ring finger Motor Symptoms: Thenar Muscles Flexor Pollicis Brevis Abductor Pollicis Opponens Pollicis
491
What are the sensory symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Numbness Paraesthesia (pins and needles or tingling) Burning sensation Pain
492
What are the motor symptoms of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Weakness of thumb movements Weakness of grip strength Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb Wasting of the thenar muscles (muscle atrophy)
493
What nerve is affected in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome? Which branch is involved for the sensory symptoms?
MEDIAN Nerve Sensory Sx: Palmer Digital Cutaneous Branch
494
What are the tests to diagnose Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Phalen Test Tinel Test
495
What is the Phalen Test?
Put the backs of their hands together in front of them with the wrists bent inwards at 90 degrees. The test is positive when this position triggers the sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel, with numbness and paraesthesia in the median nerve distribution.
496
What is the Tinel Test?
Tapping Median nerve in carpal tunnel causes sensory Sx (Tinels = Tapping)
497
What is the management for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Wrist splints that maintain a neutral position Steroid injections (hydrocortisone) Surgery - decompression by cutting the carpal ligament
498
What are the nerve roots for the Median Nerve?
C6-T1
499
What can lead to compression of the Median Nerve to cause Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?
Swelling of contents within Carpal Tunnel Narrowing of the Carpal Tunnel
500
What is the nerve roots of the radial nerve?
C5-T1
501
What is the classical presentation of a radial nerve palsy?
Wrist drop (with elbow flexed and arm pronated
502
What muscles are innervated by the Radial Nerve?
BEST: Brachioradialis Extensors of forearm Supinator Triceps
503
What muscles are innervated by the Median Nerve?
2LOAF: - 2 Lumbricals - Opponens pollicis - Abductor pollicis brevis - Flexor pollicis brevis
504
What can cause wrist drop?
Damage to the radial nerve Compression of the radial nerve at the humerus
505
What is the nerve roots of the Ulnar Nerve?
C8-T1
506
What is the classical presentation of an ulnar nerve palsy?
Claw hand (4th/5th fingers claw up)
507
What is the treatment of Wrist drop and Claw hand?
Splint Analgesia
508
What are the nerve roots for the common peroneal nerve?
L4-S1 (Branch off the Sciatic nerve)
509
What is the sign of a Sciatic/Common peroneal nerve Palsy?
Foot drop
510
What Drugs can cause peripheral Neuropathy?
amiodarone isoniazid vincristine nitrofurantoin metronidazole
511
What are the main symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?
numbness and tingling in the feet or hands burning, stabbing or shooting pain in affected areas loss of balance and co-ordination muscle weakness, especially in the feet
512
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Inherited sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy disease caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in PUP22 gene on chromosome17
513
What are the genetics of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Mutation in PUP22 gene Chromosome 17 + multiple others
514
What is the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Generally mutations cause dysfunction of the myelin or axons leading to neuropathy Different mutations in different genes have different pathophysiology's.
515
When do symptoms onset in Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Usually before the age of 10. May appear after 40yrs
516
What are the classical features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Foot Drop (common peroneal palsy) Distal muscle wasting (stork legs) Hammer Toes (toes always curled up) Pes Cavus (high foot arches) Peripheral sensory loss Reduce tendon reflexes
517
What is the Diagnostic investigation for Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Clinical Dx Nerve biopsy Genetic Testing
518
What is the treatment for Charcot-Marie-Tooth Syndrome?
Supportive Tx: Physiotherapists Orthopaedics Occupational Therapists
519
What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
X-Linked recessive condition caused by a mutation in the Dystrophin Gene
520
Who presents with DMD?
Boys Exclusively: Age of onset is around 3-5 years old
521
Explain the genetics of DMD?
X linked Recessive condition. Therefore mother with 1 faulty gene: Daughters - 50% chance of being carrier Sons - 50% chance of being affected
522
What is the pathophysiology of DMD?
Lack of Dystrophin gene (vital part of muscle fibre) means that the muscles are not protected from being broken down by enzymes Therefore in DMD you get progressive wasting and weakness of muscle as they are broken down. The muscle tissue is then replaced by fibrofatty tissue Most Px in wheelchair by teenage years
523
What cardiovascular condition is associated with DMD?
DCM Dystrophin gene in heart muscle not present which is normally involved in membrane stability. Therefore in DMD there is damage to the cellular mechanisms causing dilation of ventricles due to wasting of the cardiac muscle causing cardiomyopathy
524
What are the symptoms of DMD?
Child struggles to get up from lying down (GOWER'S sign) Skeletal deformities - scoliosis
525
What are the diagnostic tests for DMD?
Prenatal tests and DNA genetic testing
526
What is Gower's Sign?
Children with proximal muscle wasting stand up in a specific way: They get onto their hands and knees, then push their hips up and backwards like the “downward dog” yoga pose. They then shift their weight backwards and transfer their hands to their knees. Whilst keeping their legs mostly straight they walk their hands up their legs to get their upper body erect
527
What is the treatment for DMD?
Purely Supportive: No cure Physiotherapy Occupational Therapy Medical appliances - Wheelchairs Tx of complications - Scoliosis/DCM
528
What is the life expectancy of a child with DMD?
25-35 years
529
What may be used to slow DMD muscular progression?
Oral steroids have been shown to delay progression by 2 years. Creatine Supplements may improve some strength
530
What is Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Reversible severe cognitive decline due to severe Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency.
531
What is the cause of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Alcohol abuse Alcohol massively decreases Thiamine levels leading to deficiency
532
What is the classic triad of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Ataxia Confusion Ophthalmoplegia
533
How is Wernicke's Encephalopathy Diagnosed?
Clinically Recognised Macrocytic Anaemia Deranged LFTs
534
What is the treatment of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Parenteral PABRINEX (Vit B1) for 5 days. Oral thiamine Prophylactically
535
What is the main complication of Wernicke's Encephalopathy?
Korsakoff Syndrome: Caused when WE left for too long without Tx Leads to Sx with disproportionate memory loss and irreversible damage.
536
What bacteria causes Tetanus?
Clostridium Tetani (Gram +tve Bacillus anaerobe) Inoculation from dirty soil
537
What is the Pathophysiology of Tetanus?
Tetanospasmin Toxin produced. Travels up axons (retrograde) Blocks the release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine resulting in continuous motor neuron activity → continuous muscle contraction → Causes Lock Jaw and Opisthotonos (back muscles contracted)
538
What is the Treatment for Tetanus?
Primary Vaccine (prevention better than cure) Sx treatment: Muscle relaxants Analgesics - paracetamol Immunoglobulin - Mop up Toxins Metronidazole - remove residual bacteria
539
What is Creutzfeldt-Jakub disease?
Prion disease "Mad cow Disease" Idiopathic misfolded prion proteins deposited in the cerebrum and cerebellum This leads to severe cerebellar Dysfunction. There is NO Tx
540
How does Creutzfeldt-Jakub Disease Present?
Ataxia Poor memory Behavioural changes Muscle weakness Myoclonus Dementia
541
What is the affect of Botulinum toxin?
Blocks acetylcholine (ACh) release leading to flaccid paralysis
542
What is the epidemiology of brain tumours?
10,000+ new cases per year in the UK 55% are malignant 9th most common cancer (3% of all cancers)
543
What are the main Primary Brian tumours?
Gliomas - Tumour of brain intrinsic tissue (subdivided into tissue type; Astrocytoma, Oligodendroglioma, Ependymoma) Meningioma - tumour of brain lining (meninges) Schwannoma (CN tumours)
544
What is the most common Primary brain tumour?
Astrocytoma (90% of Primary brain tumours) 2nd Most common Paediatric cancer
545
What are the common causes of secondary brain tumours?
Metastases from: Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC) Breast Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC) Melanoma RCC Gastric Cancer
546
What is the most common cause of a brain tumour?
Secondary brain tumour from a NSCLC
547
What is the treatment for Secondary brain tumours?
Often Palliative Care (due to being mets from high grade tumours) Chemotherapy
548
What is the WHO grading for an astrocytoma (and other brain tumours)? What is the prognosis for each grade?
Graded 1-4 1 = Benign Pilocytic astrocytoma - Good prognosis 2 = Diffuse Astrocytoma - >5 yrs (10 years average) 3 = Anaplastic Astrocytoma - 2-5 yrs 4 = Glioblastoma - <1 yr
549
How are Brain tumours classified into the WHO grade?
Classified histologically - Cellularity - Mitotic activity - Vascular proliferation - Necrosis
550
What is a Glioma?
A tumour made arising from the Glial cells: Astrocytoma (glioblastoma multiforme is the most common) Oligodendroglioma Ependymoma
551
What are the symptoms of a brain tumour?
Often ASx when small - progress to varied presentations depending on type and location of tumour. Focal neurological Sx as they develop Will often RAISE ICP causing Headaches: Woken by headache Worse in morning Worse Lying down Associated with N+V Exacerbated by coughing, sneezing and drowsiness Papilledema (due to raised ICP) Cushing Triad (Increased PP, Bradycardia, Irregular Breathing) Epileptic Seizures Cancer Sx: Lethargy Malaise Weight Loss
552
What are the red flag signs of a brain tumour?
Headaches: With features of raised ICP (including papilloedema) With focal neurology, check for field defect
553
When would you carry out an urgent referal for a suspected brian tumour?
Other urgent referrals: - New onset focal seizure - Rapidly progressive focal neurology (without headache) - Past history of other cancer
554
What is papilloedema?
Swelling of the optic disc that occurs secondary to a raised ICP. This is often picked up on Fundoscopy
555
What is a Glioblastoma multiforme?
Glioblastoma (GBM), also referred to as a grade IV astrocytoma, is a fast-growing and aggressive brain tumour Often fatal within 1 year of Dx
556
What are the investigations for a brain tumour?
MRI head - locate tumour Biopsy - determine grade Fundoscopy - Papilloedema due to raised ICP NO LP as this is CI in raised ICP
557
What is the management of brain tumours?
Depends on Type, Grade and Site: Tx is non-curative except for Grade I tumours Surgical removal if possible/reduce ICP (dexamethasone to reduce oedema) Chemotherapy/Radiotherapy Before/during/after surgery. (Radiotherapy is mainstay of treatment) Palliative Care
558
What are the differential Diagnoses of a brain tumour?
Aneurysm Abscess Cyst Haemorrhage Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
559
What are Pituitary Tumours?
- Pituitary gland – sits in pituitary fossa (behind nose and below base of brain) - Tumours are almost always benign and usually curable - Excessive effects of tumour - Local effects of tumour – bitemporal hemianopia - Inadequate hormone production by the remaining pituitary gland - Treated with Transsphenoidal surgical resection
560
- What does Cn1 innervate? - What are it's functions? What is its test?
Olfactory - Innervates: olfactory epithelium. - Function: olfaction. - Test each nostril for smell sensation
561
- What does Cn2 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Optic: - Innervates: retina. - Function: vision. pupillary light reflex Visual Acuity Visual Fields
562
- What does Cn3 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Occulomotor: - Innervates: medial, superior and inferior rectus muscles and inferior oblique and levator palpebrae superioris. - Motor function: movement of eyeball. - Parasympathetic function: constriction and accommodation. pupillary light reflex lateral deviation
563
- What does Cn4 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Trochlear: - Innervates: superior oblique. - Functions: movement of eyeball. Elevation of the eye
564
- What does Cn5 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Trigeminal: - Sensory innervation: face, scalp, cornea, nasal and oral cavities, anterior 2/3 of tongue, dura mater. - Motor innervation: muscles of mastication and tensor tympani. - Sensory function: general sensation. - Motor functions: open and close the mouth. Tenses tympanic membrane. Corneal Reflex Open and close mouth
565
- What does Cn6 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Abducens: - Innervates: lateral rectus. - Function: eye movement, abduction. Medial deviation
566
- What does Cn7 innervate? | What are its tests?
Facial: - Special sensory innervation: anterior 2/3 of tongue - taste. - Motor innervation: muscles of facial expression and stapedius. - Parasympathetic innervation: submandibular and sublingual and lacrimal glands. lacrimation Facial Weakness? UMN or LMN Hearing - hyperacusis Corneal Reflex
567
- What does Cn8 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Vestibulocochlear: - Innervation: cochlea and vestibular apparatus. - Functions: hearing and proprioception of head and balance. Cover ear and whisper into the opposite one caloric test
568
- What does Cn9 innervate? | What are its tests?
Glossopharyngeal: - Sensory innervation: posterior 1/3 of tongue, middle ear, pharynx, carotid bodies. - Motor innervation: stylopharyngeus. - Parasympathetic innervation: parotid gland. examined with CNX
569
- What does Cn10 innervate? | What are its tests?
Vagus: - Sensory innervation: pharynx, larynx, oesophagus, external ear, aortic bodies, thoracic and abdominal viscera. - Motor innervation: soft palate, larynx, pharynx. - Parasympathetic innervation: CV, respiratory and GI systems. hoarseness of voice / nasal sound Gag reflex (afferent CNIX and efferent CNX) contraction of the palate and deviation away from lesion
570
- What are the functions of Cn10?
- Sensory functions: general sensation. - Motor functions: speech and swallowing. - Parasympathetic functions: control over CV, respiratory and GI systems.
571
- What are the functions of Cn9?
- Sensory functions: general sensation, taste, chemo/baroreception. - Motor functions: Swallowing (larynx and pharynx are elevated). - Parasympathetic function: salivation.
572
- What are the functions of Cn7?
- Sensory function: taste. - Motor function: facial movement and tension of ossicles. - Parasympathetic function: salivation and lacrimation.
573
- What does Cn11 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Accessory: - Innervation: trapezius and sternocleidomastoid. - Functions: movement of head and shoulders. turn head against resistance shrug shoulders
574
- What does Cn12 innervate? - What are it's functions? What are its tests?
Hypoglossal - Innervation: intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. - Function: movement of the tongue. stick tongue out look for signs of deviation. ipsilateral side is paralysed
575
What are the immediate Empirical management steps for treating meningitis in hospital?
1. Assess GCS 2. Blood Cultures 3. Broad Spectrum Abx (Ceftriaxone) 4. Steroids - (IV Dexamethasone) 5. LP - (CI in Abnormal Clotting, Petechial Rah, Raised ICP)
576
What further treatment can be done after pharmacological management of seizures and epilepsy?
Surgery - remove cause of seizure - eg. specific part of brain Nerve stimulation
577
What is Ataxia?
Loss of control of body movements
578
What are the causes of Ataxia?
Acquired: Alcohol/Drugs Vitamin Deficiencies Paraneoplastic cerebellar atrophy Post Infection Tumours Inherited: AR - Friederichs Ataxia, SPG7
579
What is Friederichs Ataxia?
A rare inherited disease that causes progressive damage to your nervous system and movement problems. Nerve fibres in your spinal cord and peripheral nerves degenerate, becoming thinner
580
What are the signs and symptoms of cerebellar ataxia?
DANISH: Dysdiadokinesia Ataxia Nystagmus Intention Tremor Slurred Staccato Speech Hypotonia (later stage)
581
How is Ataxia severity assessed?
Scale for the Assessment and Rating of Ataxia (SARA) Mild - mobilised with 1 walking aid Moderate - Mobilised with 2 walking aids Severe - Predominantly Wheelchair
582
How is Ataxia Diagnosed?
Clinical suspected Dx Blood tests - FBC, U&Es, LFTs, ESR/CRP Brain MRI - diagnostic/can rule out other causes Autoimmune Screen Copper/caeruloplasmin studies
583
How are cerebellar ataxias managed?
Non-Curative Progressive condition. Long term care with GP, ataxia specialist, MDT and allied speciality services
584
What is the treatment for a heroin addiction?
Methadone
585