Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Presentation of a tension headache

A

Mild ache / pressure in a band like pattern around the head

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2
Q

Management of tension headache

A
  • Reassurance
  • Simple analgesia (e.g., ibuprofen or paracetamol)
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3
Q

4 associations with tension headahces

A

Stress
Depression
Alcohol
Skipping meals
Dehydration

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4
Q

Presentation of sinusitis and it’s management

A
  • Recent URTI
  • Tenderness and swelling on palpation
  • Prolonged cases (>10 days) = steroid nasal spray or Abx (phenoxymethylpenicillin)
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5
Q

Presentation of cervical spondylosis

A
  • Neck pain, worse with movements
  • Headahces
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6
Q

Presentation of trigeminal neuralgia and 1st line management ?

A
  • Electric shock like pain
  • Triggered by touch, talking, eating, shaving or cold
  • First line = carbamazepine
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7
Q

Presentation of a cluster headache

A
  • Unilateral severe pain
  • Red, swollen and watering eye
  • Miosis
  • Ptosis
  • Nasal discharge
  • Facial sweating
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8
Q

Management of acute cluster headache attacke

A

-> Triptans (e.g., subcutaneous or intranasal sumatriptan)
-> High-flow 100% oxygen (may be kept at home)

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9
Q

1st line prophylaxis of cluster headaches

A

Verapamil

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10
Q

Typical symptoms of a migraine

A

Last between 4 and 72 hrs

  • Usually unilateral
  • Moderate-severe intensity
  • Pounding or throbbing in nature
  • Photophobia (discomfort with lights)
  • Phonophobia (discomfort with loud noises)
  • Osmophobia (discomfort with strong smells)
  • Aura (visual changes)
  • N&V
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11
Q

common migraine triggers

A
  • Stress
  • Bright lights
  • Strong smells
  • Certain foods (e.g., chocolate, cheese and caffeine)
  • Dehydration
  • Menstruation
  • Disrupted sleep
  • Trauma
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12
Q

Presentation of hemiplegic migraine

A
  • Hemiplegia
  • Ataxia
  • Impaired consciousness
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13
Q

Acute management of migraine

A
  • NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen or naproxen)
  • Paracetamol
  • Triptans (e.g., sumatriptan)
  • Antiemetics if vomiting occurs (e.g., metoclopramide or prochlorperazine)
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14
Q

How do triptans work >

A

-> 5-HT receptor agonist, binding to serotonin receptors.
- > Cranial vasoconstriction, inhibit transmission of pain signals and inhibit release of inflammatory neuropeptides

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15
Q

3 prophylactic options for migraines

A
  • Propranolol (a non-selective beta blocker)
  • Amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant)
  • Topiramate (teratogenic and very effective contraception is needed)
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16
Q

Prophylaxis of menstrual migraines

A

Prophylactic triptans (e.g., frovatriptan or zolmitriptan)

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17
Q

definition of tuberous sclerosis and mutations involved

A
  • AD condition causing development of hamartomas
  • TSC1 gene on chromosome 9, which codes for hamartin
  • TSC2 gene on chromosome 16, which codes for tuberin
  • Leads to abnormal cell size and growth
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18
Q

skin features of tuberous sclerosis

A

-> Ash leaf spots (depigmented areas of skin shaped like an ash leaf)
-> Shagreen patches (thickened, dimpled, pigmented patches of skin)
-> Angiofibromas (small skin-coloured or pigmented papules that occur over the nose and cheeks)
-> Ungual fibromas (circular painless lumps that slowly grow from the nail bed and displace the nail)
-> Cafe-au-lait spots (light brown “coffee and milk” coloured flat pigmented lesions on the skin)
-> Poliosis (an isolated patch of white hair on the head, eyebrows, eyelashes or beard)

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19
Q

Neurological features of tuberous sclerosis

A

Epilepsy
Learning disability
Brain tumours - glioma

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20
Q

Define MS

A
  • Autoimmune demyelination of the CNS
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21
Q

What cells produce myelin in the CNS and in the PNS ?

A

-CNS : oligodendrocytes
-PNS : schwann

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22
Q

How do the episodes of demyelination present in MS?

A

-Episodes disseminated in time and space

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23
Q

What is optic neuritis ?

A

-Unilateral painful reduced vision developing over hrs to days.

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24
Q

Give 4 key features of optic neuritis

A

-Central scotoma (blind spot)
-Pain on eye movement
-Impaired colour vision
-Relative afferent pupillary defect

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25
Give 7 other causes of optic neuritis other than MS
-Sarcoidosis -SLE -DM -Syphilis -Measles -Mumps -Lyme disease
26
What investigations can support a diagnosis of MS
- MRI with contrast -> demyelinating lesions - LP -> oligoclonal bans in CSF - McDonald criteria for diagnosing
27
Give the 4 disease patterns of MS
-Clinically isolated syndrome -Relapsing-Remitting -Secondary progressive -Primary progressive
28
Explain the relapsing-remitting pattern of MS
-Episodes of disease followed by recovery. Classified on whether active and/or worsening -Active : new symptoms developing -Not active : no new symptoms developing -Worsening : overall worsening of disability over time -Not worsening : no worsening of disability over time
29
Explain secondary progressive pattern of MS
-Was relapsing/remitting but now a progressive worsening of symptoms -Can also be classified as active and/or worsening
30
Explain primary progressive pattern of MS
-Worsening of disease and neurological symptoms from the point of diagnosis without initial relapses and remissions
31
Give two common characteristics of MS
-Lhermitte's sign : tingling electric shock shooting up the spine when flexing the neck -Uhthoff's phenomenon : symptoms are worse when hpt (e.g. in bath, hot weather, exercise).
32
What can be used to treat relapses in MS?
-Methylprednisolone -500mg orally for 5 days or 1g IV for 3-5 days if treatment fails
33
What is the pathophysiology behind MND?
-Progressive degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurones -Sensory neurones are spared
34
What can increase the risk of MND?
-Smoking -Exposure to heavy metals -Certain persticides
35
What is a typical presentation of MND
- Late middle aged man - Insidious, progressive weakness of the muscles throughout the body affecting the limbs, trunk, face and speech - Weakness often first noticed in upper limbs - Fatigue when exercising
36
Give 4 signs of lower MND
-Muscle wasting -Reduced tone -Fasciculations -Reduced reflexes
37
GIve 3 signs of upper MND
-Increased tone or spasticity -Brisk reflexes -Upgoing plantar responses
38
What is the most common presentation of MND ?
-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) - Typically LMN signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs
39
What can be used to slow the progression of MND ?
-Riluzole : prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors
40
Signs seen in primary lateral sclerosis (MND)
UMN signs only
41
Signs seen in progressive muscular atrophy (MND)
LMN signs only affects distal muscles before proximal carries best prognosis
42
Signs seen in progressive bulbar palsy
- Palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei - Carries worst prognosis
43
What is myasthenia Gravis ?
-Autoimmune condition that causes muscle weakness that gets progressively worse with activity and improves with rest - Affects the NMJ
44
What is strongly associated with myasthenia Gravis?
-Thyoma : tumour of the thymus gland
45
Explain the pathophysiology behind myasthenia gravis
-In most cases, acetylcholine receptor antibodies are produced -These bind to the postsynaptic receptors -This prevents the stimulation of the receptor and so prevents muscle contraction -The antibodies also activate the complement system, leading to damage to the cells of the postsynaptic membrane further worsening the symptoms
46
Why do the symptoms of myasthenia gravis get worse with exercise ?
-The receptors are used more during muscle activity and so more of them become blocked up. -This leads to less effective stimulation of the muscle with increased activity -There is more muscle weakness the more the muscles are used -This improves with rest as more receptors are freed up again for use
47
What are 2 other antibodies involved in myasthenia gravis?
-Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) -Low density lipoprotein receptor-related protein (LRP4) -These proteins are imprtant for the creation of acetylcholine receptor -Destruction of these by the antibodies leads to inadequate acetylcholine receptors
48
What is a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis
-Weakness that gets worse with muscle use and improves with rest
49
What muscles are most affected in myasthenia gravis ?
-Proximal muscles and small muscles of the head and neck
50
Give 8 common symptoms of myasthenia gravis
- Diplopia : extraocular muscle weakness - Ptosis - Weak upwards gaze - Weakness in facial movements - Difficulty with swallowing - Fatigue in the jaw when chewing - Slurred speech - Progressive weakness with repetitive movements
51
Give 3 things to assess of examination for myasthenia gravis
-Thymectomy scar -FVC -Elicit fatiguability of muscles : repeated blinking will exacerbate ptosis ; prolonged upward gaze with exacerbate diplopia ; repeated abduction of one arm 20 times with result in unilateral weaknes when comparing both sides
52
Give 3 investigations for diagnosing myasthenia gravis
- Test for antibodies - CT/MRI of the thymus to check for thymoma - Edrophonium test if in doubt (tensilon)
53
What is the edrophonium test
-Used to aid diagnosis of myasthenia gravis -IV edrophonium chloride is given which will prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine -Acetycholine levels will rise giving temporary relief from the weakness
54
Give 3 treatment options for myasthenia gravis
-Pyridostigmine -> reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors -> increase the amount of acetylcholine at the junction (or rivastigmine) -Immunosuppression with prednislone or azathioprine : suppress antibody production -Thymectomy
55
What 2 monoclonal antibodies can be used in myasthenia gravis ?
-Rituximab -> targets b cells reducing antibody production -Eculizumab -> targets complement protein C5.
56
What is a myasthenic crisis?
-Acute worsening of symptoms often triggered by a viral infection -Can lead to resp failure due to weakness in the muscle of respiration - FVC needs monitoring
57
What is used in the management of a myasthenic crisis?
- IV immunoglobulins - Plasmapheresis If needed : - BiPAP - Intubation and ventilation
58
what drugs can exacerbate myasthenia ?
- penicillamine - quinidine, procainamide - beta-blockers - lithium - phenytoin - antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines
59
What is Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome ?
autoimmune condition affecting the neuromuscular junction
60
Who is usually affected by Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome ?
-Patients with small cell lung cancer
61
Explain the pathophysiology behind Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome
- Antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels in the SCLC are produced. - These target and damage the same channels in the presynaptic terminals of the neuromuscular junction - This results in less acetylcholine being released into the synapse
62
How does lambert-eaton syndrome present ?
-Proximal muscles most affected -> leg muscle weakness (difficulty climbing stairs) - Reduced or absent tendon reflexes -Autonomic dysfunction : dry mouth, blurred vision, impotence and dizziness -Double vision -Ptosis -Dysphagia
63
What is post-tetanic potentiation ?
-In lambert-eaton syndrome, tendon reflexes are normally reduced -They can become temporarily normal for a short period following a period of strong muscle contraction
64
How is lambert-eaton syndrome managed?
-Treat underlying malignancy if present -Amifampridine -Immunosuppressants -IV immunoglobulins -Plasmaphersis
65
How does amifampridine work in the treatment of Lambert-Eaton?
-It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels in the presynaptic cells -This prolongs the depolarisation of the cell membrane and assists calcium channels in carrying out their action
66
Define Gullian-Barre syndrome (GBS)
-Acute paralytic polyneuropathy affecting the peripheral nervous system
67
What usually triggers GBS ?
-Infection -Campylobacter jejuni (food poisoning), cytomegalovirus, EBV
68
How does GBS present ?
- Back/leg pain in initial stages - Symmetrical ascending weakness - Reduced reflexes -+/- peripheral loss of sensation or neuropathic pain - May progress to cranial nerves and cause diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy and oropharyngeal weakness
69
What is the clinical course of GBS?
-Preceding infection -Symptoms begin 4 wks later -Symptoms peak after 2-4 wks -Recovery period lasting mnths to years
70
What investigations support the diagnosis of GBS?
-Once clinically diagnosed using Brighton criteria : -Nerve conduction studies showing reduced signal through the nerves -LP : raised protein with normal cell count and glucose
71
How is GBS managed ?
- IV immunoglobulins - Plasmapheresis can be an alternative to IVIG - VTE prophylaxis with LMWH
72
What are the features of a benign essential tremor ? (6)
-Fine tremor -Symmetrical - 6-12 Hz -MORE prominent on VOLUNTARY movement -Worse when tired, stressed or after caffeine -Improved by alcohol -Absent during sleep
73
Give 6 differentials of a tremor
-Parkinson's -MS -Huntington's chorea -Hyperthyroidism -Fever -Medications (e.g. antipsychotics)
74
What 2 medications can improve the symptoms of a benign essential tremor ?
- First line = Propranolol - Primidone
75
What is the cause of parkinson's ?
- Progressive reduction of dopamine in the basal ganglia - Leads to disorders of movement - Symptoms are ASYMMETRICAL
76
What is the classic triad of parkinson's
- Cogwheel rigidity - Pill-rolling resting tremor (4-6Hz) - Bradykinesia : smaller handwriting, shuffling gate, difficulty initiating movements, reduced facial expressions (hypomimia) postural instability is an extra
77
Where is dopamine produced ?
-Substantia nigra of the basal ganglia
78
Give 5 other features of parkinson's
-Depression -Sleep disturbance and insomnia -Anosmia -Postural instability (caused by autonomic failure) -Cognitive impairment and memory problems
79
Describe a parkinson's tremor
-Asymmetrical / unilateral -WORSE at REST -IMPROVES with INTENTIONAL movement -No change with alcohol
80
Give 4 treatment options for parkinson's
- Co-benyldopa or co-careldopa - COMT inhibitors - Dopamine agonists - Monoamine Oxidase-B Inhibitors
81
Explain how levodopa works
-Synthetic dopamine -Most effective but becomes less effective over time
82
What is usually given with levodopa and why?
-Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor -Stops is being broken down before it reaches the brain -Examples : carbidopa, benserazide
83
What is the main side effect of levodopa?
- Too high dopamine = dyskinesias = abnormal movements associated with excessive motor activity. - E.g. dystonia, chorea, athetosis
84
How do COMT inhibitors work?
-Example : entacapone -Inhibits catechol-o-methyltransferase which is responsible for metabolising levodopa -Extends to duration of levodopa
85
How do dopamine agonists work ?
- Mimic dopamine in the basal ganglia and stimulate dopamine receptors - Less effective than levodopa - Examples : bromocryptine, pergolide, cabergoline
86
What is the most notable side effect of dopamine agonists with prolonged use ?
- Pulmonary fibrosis
87
How do monoamine Oxidase-B Inhibitors work?
-They block Monoamine Oxidase-B enzyme which is responsible for breaking down dopamine -Examples are selegiline and rasagiline
88
what can be given with levodopa to help with the dyskinesia ?
-> Amantadine (glutamate antagonist)
89
what causes multiple system atrophy and how does it present
-> Neurones in various areas of brain degenerate -> Parkinsonism -> Autonomic disturbance : erectile dysfunction: often an early feature, postural hypotension, atonic bladder -> Cerebellar signs : ataxia
90
Presentation of lewy body dementia
-> Progressive cognitive impairment FOLLOWED BY parkinsonism -> Visual hallucinations -> Delusions - > REM sleep disorders -> Fluctuating consciousness
91
Features of progressive supranuclear palsy
-> postural instability and falls -> Impairment of vertical gaze (down gaze worse than up gaze - patients may complain of difficultly reading or descending stairs) -> Parkinsonism : bradykinesia is prominent -> Cognitive impairment : primarily frontal lobe dysfunction
92
what usually causes an extradural haemorrhage
- Rupture of the middle meningeal artery in the temporoparietal region - Often associated with fracture of temporal bone
93
What does an extradural haemorrhage look on a CT ?
- Bi-convex shape - Limited by cranial sutures - Hyperdense
94
Typical history of an extradural haematoma
- Pt with traumatic head injury - Period of improved neurological Sx and consciousness - Followed by rapid decline over hrs
95
Cause of a subdural haematoma
Rupture of bridging veins in outermost layer
96
Appearance of subdural haemorrhage on CT
Crescent shaped Can cross suture lines
97
Who often presents with subdural haemorrhages
- Elderly or alcoholic patients - Atrophy in their brains make the vessels more prone to rupture
98
Presentation of subarachnoid haemorrhage
- Sudden onset occipital headache during strenuous activity - N&V - Meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness) - Coma - Seizures
99
first line investigation for subarachnoid haemorrhage
Non contrast CT
100
Investigation required if CT is done >6 hrs after onset of SAH symptoms and is normal
- LP - Needs to be done 12 hrs after start of symptoms
101
LP results in SAH
-> Raised red cell count (a decreasing red cell count on successive bottles may be due to a traumatic procedure) -> Xanthochromia (a yellow colour to the CSF caused by bilirubin)
102
usual cause of SAH
Cerebral aneurysm
103
Management options of SAH
- Endovascular coiling OR - Neurosurgical clipping
104
3 common complications of SAH and necessary treatment options
1. Vasospasm -> Nimodipine (CCB) 2. Seizures -> anti-epileptic meds 3. Hydrocephalus -> LP, external ventricular drain, ventriculoperitoneal (VP)V shunt.
105
Presentation of intracerebral haemorrhage
- Sudden onset focal neurological symptoms (e.g. limb or facial weakness, dysphasia or vision loss)
106
What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and what is the usual inheritance pattern?
- Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy - Autosomal dominant
107
Give 7 features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth ?
-High foot arches (pes cavus) -Distal muscle wasting causing 'inverted champagne bottle legs' -Weakness in lower legs, particularly loss of ankle dorsifelxion (with high stepping gait due to foot drop) -Weakness in the hands -Reduced muscle tone -Reduced tendon reflexes -Peripheral sensory loss
108
Give 5 causes of peripheral neuropathy
-A : alcohol -B : B12 deficiency -C : cancer and chronic kidney disease -D : diabetes and drugs (e.g isoniazid, amiodarone & cisplatin) -E : every vasculitis
109
Explain the facial nerve pathway
-> Exits brainstem at cerebellopontine angle -> Passes through the temporal bone and parotid gland -> Divides into 5 branches : ~ Temporal ~ Zygomatic ~ Buccal ~ Marginal mandibular ~ Cervical
110
Motor function of the facial nerve
- Facial expression - Stapedius in the inner ear - Posterior digastric, stylohyoid and platysma muscles
111
Sensory function of facial nerve
Taste from anterior 2/3 of the tongue
112
Parasympathetic function of the facial nerve
-> Submandibular and sublingual salivary glands -> Lacrimal gland (stimulating tear production)
113
Explain the differing presentations of UMN and LMN lesions after the facial nerve
-> UMN = forehead sparing -> LMN = NO forehead sparing - Each side of the forehead has UMN innervation from BOTH sides of the brain but LMN innervation from ONE side
114
what is Bell's palsy
-> Acute idiopathic unilateral LMN facial palsy -> Forehead affected, drooping of eyelide, loss of nasolabial fold
115
Management of Bell's palsy
If pt presents with 72 hrs : PREDNISOLONE either : -> 50mg for 10 days -> 60mg for 5 days followed by a 5-day reducing regime, dropping the dose by 10mg per day + -> Artificial tears
116
Cause of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome
Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV)
117
Presentation of Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome
- Unilateral LMN faical nerve palsy - Painful and tender vesicular rash in the ear canal, pinna and around the ear on affected side
118
Management of ramsay-Hunt syndrome
-> Oral aciclovir and prednisolone. -> Patients also require lubricating eye drops.
119
Role and inheritance of neurofibromatosis type 1 gene
- Found on chromosome 17 - Codes for neurofibromin -> tumour suppressor protein - Inherited in AD pattern
120
Diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1
CRABBING : - C – Café-au-lait spots (more than 15mm diameter is significant in adults) - R – Relative with NF1 - A – Axillary or inguinal freckling - BB – Bony dysplasia, such as Bowing of a long bone or sphenoid wing dysplasia - I – Iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), which are yellow-brown spots on the iris - N – Neurofibromas - G – Glioma of the optic pathway
121
2 unique complications of NF1
1. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath (MPNST) 2. Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GIST)
122
Role and inheritance of neurofibromatosis type 2
- Chromosome 22 - Codes for merlin -> tumour suppressor protein important in Schwann cells
123
Common finding in neurofibromatosis type 2
- Bilateral vestibular schwannomas (tumours of the auditory nerve) - Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss (often the first symptom) - Unilateral tinnitus - Dizziness or imbalance - Sensation of fullness in the ear - Facial nerve palsy (if the tumour grows large enough to compress the facial nerve)
124
Cause of Huntington's disease
- AD genetic condition - Caused by trinucleotide repeat disorder affecting the HTT gene on chromosome 4
125
Define anticipation and what disease is it seen in ?
- Successive generations have more repeats resulting in " 1. Earlier age of onset 2. Increased severity of disease
126
Presentation of Huntington's
Usually cognitive / psychiatric / mood problems FOLLOWED by movement disorders : - Chorea (involuntary, random, irregular and abnormal body movements) - Dystonia (abnormal muscle tone, leading to abnormal postures) - Rigidity (increased resistance to the passive movement of a joint) - Eye movement disorders - Dysarthria (speech difficulties) - Dysphagia (swallowing difficulties)
127
Explain generalised seizures and the different specific types
- Involve both sides of the brain - > Tonic-clonic (grand mal) - > Tonic - > Clonic - > Typical absence (petit mal) - > Atonic
128
Explain focal seizures
- Involve specific area, on one side of the brain - Simple/focal aware - Complex/ focal impaired awareness
129
Seizure type seen in those affecting temporal lobe
-> Typically a rising epigastric sensation - > Deja vu - > Hallucinations -> Automatisms (lip smacking/grabbing/plucking) -> Post-ictal dyspahsia
130
Seizure type seen in frontal lobe seizures
- Head/leg movements - Post-ictal weakness - Jacksonian march
131
Features of parietal lobe seizure
Paraesthesia
132
Features of occipital lobe seizure
Floaters / flashes
133
Management of generalised tonic clonic seizures
- Male : SV - Female : Lamotrigine / Levetiracetam
134
Management of focal seizures
1st : Lamotrigine / levetiracetam 2nd : Carbamazepine
135
Management of absence seizures
1st : ethosuximide
136
Management of myoclonic seizures
- Male : SV - Female : levetiracetam
137
Management of tonic or atonic seizures
- Male : SV - Female : Lamotrigine
138
How does sodium valporate work ?
- Increasing activity of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) -> which has a calming effect on the brain
139
5 notable SE of sodium valporate
- Teratogenic - Liver damage and hepatitis - Hair loss - Tremor - Reduce fertility
140
what advice should be given to women planning on becoming pregnancy with epilepsy
Take 5mg folic acid
141
Definition of status epilepticus
- A seizure lasting more than 5 minutes - Multiple seizures without regaining consciousness in the interim
142
Medical management of status epilepticus
-> A benzodiazepine (IV lorazepam) first-line, repeated after 5-10 minutes if the seizure continues -> Second-line options (after two doses of benzodiazepine) are IV levetiracetam, phenytoin or sodium valproate -> Third-line options are phenobarbital or general anaesthesia
143
Dosage of rectal diazepam for status epilepticus based on age
- Neonate : 1.25 - 2.5 mg - Child 1 month - 1 year : 5 mg - Child 2 years - 11 years : 5 - 10 mg - Child 12 years - 17 years : 10 mg - Adult : 10 - 20 mg (max. 30 mg) - Elderly : 10 mg (max. 15 mg)
144
Explain the analgesic ladder
- > Step 1: Non-opioid medications such as paracetamol and NSAIDs -> Step 2: Weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol -> Step 3: Strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl and buprenorphine
145
Key SE of NSAIDs
- Gastritis with dyspepsia (indigestion) - Stomach ulcers - Exacerbation of asthma - Hypertension - Renal impairment - Coronary artery disease, heart failure and strokes (rarely) PPI co-prescribed to reduce GI effects
146
CI to NSAIDs
Asthma Renal impairment Heart disease Uncontrolled hypertension Stomach ulcers
147
5 SE of opioids
- Constipation - Pruritus - Nausea - Altered mental state (sedation, cognitive impairment or confusion) - Respiratory depression (usually only with larger doses in opioid-naive patients)
148
What is used for opioid overdose
Naloxone
149
Explain the combination of opioids used to control pain in palliative patients
-> Background opioids -> Rescue doses for breakthrough pain - The dose of the rescue opioid should be 1/6th of the background dose
150
what do the NICE guidelines clearly state in regards to chronic primary pain
- Avoid essentially all forms of analgesia in chronic primary pain, except antidepressants.
151
Typical features of neuropathic pain
Burning Tingling Pins and needles Electric shock like sensation
152
Causes of neuropathic pain
- Post-herpetic neuralgia from shingles is in the distribution of a dermatome and usually on the trunk - Nerve damage from surgery - Multiple sclerosis - Diabetic neuralgia (typically affecting the feet) -Trigeminal neuralgia - Complex regional pain syndrome
153
four first line treatments for neuropathic pain
- Amitriptyline – a tricyclic antidepressant - Duloxetine – an SNRI antidepressant - Gabapentin – an anticonvulsant - Pregabalin – an anticonvulsant Should be used as monotherapy, if one doesn't work SWITCH don't add
154
which tumours most commonly spread to the brain
lung (most common) breast bowel skin (namely melanoma) kidney (renal cell carcinoma)
155
What is the most common primary brain tumour in adults and how do they appear on imaging
- Glioblastoma - Solid tumours with central necrosis and a rim that enhances with contrast
156
How do brain tumours present ?
- Progressive focal neurological symptoms - Signs and symptoms of raised ICP
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What concerning features of a headache might suggest raised ICP
Constant headache Nocturnal (occurring at night) Worse on waking Worse on coughing, straining or bending forward Vomiting Papilloedema on fundoscopy
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Other than a headache, what are the other features of raised ICP
Altered mental state Visual field defects Seizures (particularly partial seizures) Unilateral ptosis (drooping upper eyelid) Third and sixth nerve palsies
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First line investigation for a brain tumur
MRI
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what criteria is used to assess the type of stroke ?
Bamford classification, assesses : 1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg 2. homonymous hemianopia 3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
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Total anterior circulation infarct
- Involves middle and anterior cerebral arteries - All 3 of bamford criteria
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Partial anterior circulation infarct
- Involves smaller arteries of anterior circulation e.g. upper or lower division of middle cerebral artery - 2 of the bamford classification
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Lacunar infarcts
- Involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia presents with 1 of the following: 1. unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three. 2. pure sensory stroke. 3. Ataxic hemiparesis
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Posterior circulation stroke
- Involves vertebrobasilar arteries presents with 1 of the following: 1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes 2. loss of consciousness 3. isolated homonymous hemianopia
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Lateral medullary syndrome stroke
-> Involves posterior inferior cerebellar artery (Wallenberg's syndrome) - Ipsilateral: ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy e.g. Horner's - Contralateral: limb sensory loss
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Weber's syndrome (stroke)
- Ipsilateral CN III palsy - Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity Stroke in the branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain
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Management of TIA
- > Aspirin 300mg daily (started immediately) -> Referral for specialist assessment within 24 hours (within 7 days if more than 7 days since the episode) -> Diffusion-weighted MRI scan is the imaging investigation of choice.
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What score is used to assess probablity of a stroke ?
ROSIER (one or more = stroke is possible)
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Initial management of suspected stroke
- Exclude hypoglycaemia - Immediate non contrast CT head to exclude haemorrhage - Aspirin 300mg daily for two weeks (started after haemorrhage is excluded with a CT) - Admission to a specialist stroke centre
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when should thrombolysis with alteplase and thrombectomy be considered for acute stroke management
-> If it can be administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms -> Haemorrhage has been definitively excluded (i.e. Imaging has been performed)
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when can thrombectomy be offered for the management of acute stroke
- In patients with a confirmed blockage of the proximal anterior circulation or proximal posterior circulation. -> It may be considered within 24 hours of the symptom onset and alongside IV thrombolysis.
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What underlying conditions are all patients with a TIA or stroke investigated for ?
-> Carotid artery stenosis : Carotid imaging (e.g., carotid ultrasound, or CT or MRI angiogram) -> AF : ECG or ambulatory ECG monitoring
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Secondary prevention following a stroke
-> Clopidogrel 75mg once daily (alternatively aspirin plus dipyridamole) -> Atorvastatin 20-80mg (not started immediately – usually delayed at least 48 hours) -> Blood pressure and diabetes control -> Addressing modifiable risk factors (e.g., smoking, obesity and exercise)
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Anterior cerebral artery stroke
- Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, - - Lower extremity > upper
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Middle cerebral artery stroke
- Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, - - Upper extremity > lower - Contralateral homonymous hemianopia - Aphasia
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Posterior cerebral artery stroke
- Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing - Visual agnosia
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Most important causes of status epilepticus to rule our first
Hypoxia Hypoglycaemia
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Management of status epilepticus in a pre hospital setting
PR diazepam or buccal midazolam
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Underlying condition that can cause prolonged reliance on a ventilator following anaesthesia
Myasthenia gravis
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What other symptom could be elicited on cranial nerve examination in Bell's palsy
- Loss of taste on anterior two-thirds of the tongue (one same side as facial weakness).
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simple initial management of raised ICP
Elevate the bed to 30 degrees
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long term prophylaxis of stroke / TIA ?
Antiplatelet therapy -> clopidogrel
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Common trigger for cluster headaches
Alochol
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Headache associated with valsalva manoeuvres suggests what underlying cause and what would be the investigation of choice
- Raised ICP - Ix = CT head (LP is CI until raised ICP excluded).
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Explain the therapeutic guidelines for what anti-emetic is used depending on the underlying cause
- Ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced nausea - Haloperidol for intracranial causes (raised ICP, direct effect of tumour) - Prochlorperazine for vestibular causes - Metoclopramide for gastrointestinal causes
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How does onsansetron work
5-HT-3 receptor antagonist (serotonin receptor)
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Points in glasgow coma scale
M : motor response /6 V : verbal response /5 E : eye opening /4
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Motor response in GCS
6 : Obeys commands 5 : Localises to pain 4 : Withdraws from pain 3 : flexes to pain 2 : extends to pain 1 : none
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Verbal response in GCS
5 : Orientated 4 : Confused 3 : words 2 : sounds 1 : none
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Eye opening in GCS
4 : spontaneous 3 : to voice 2 : to pain 1 : none
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what is often spared in MND
Eye movements
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what medication should be avoided in myasthenia gravis and why
Bisoprolol Can worsen MG and cause drop in FVC
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Signs of a fourth nerve palsy (Trochlear)
- Vertical diplopia (WORSE ON GOING DOWNSTAIRS). - When looking straight, the affected eye may deviate upwards and rotate outwards - May develop head tilt
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Action of fourth nerve on eyeb
Trochlear = superior oblique Depresses eye and move inwards
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example of a medication that should be stopped following dementia diagnosis
Amitriptyline - can worsen cognitive impairment
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Illicit drug, blood condition and kidney condition associated with SAH
- Drug = cocaine - Blood condition = sickle cell - Kidney condition = ADPKD
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Presentation of complex regional pain syndrome
- Previous injury (e.g. fracture) - Pain, skin flushing, swelling and abnormal hair growth in the area
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Name for experiencing pain from stimuli that are not normally painful
Allodynia
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Most malignant brain tumour
Glioblastoma
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4 secondary mets of a brain tumour
Renal cell carcinoma Breast Lung Melanoma
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3 presenting symptoms of acoustic neuroma
Tinnitus Unilateral hearing loss Balance problems
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pathology in the heart, brains, kidneys, retina and lungs in tuberous slerosis
- Heart : rhabdomyomas - Brain : gliomas - Kidneys : polycystic kidneys - Retina : hamartomas - Lungs : Lymphangioleimyomatosis
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Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension
- Weight loss - Topiramate - Acetazolamide - LP and drainage - CN II decompression
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Mechanism of action of acetazolamide
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
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Presentation of a third nerve palsy
- 'Down and out' eye - Ptosis - Dilated pupil - Absent light reflex but intact consensual constriction (third nerve carries efferent fibres hence absent light reflex but afferent still in tact = consensual)
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most common long term complication of bacterial meningitis
Sensorinerual hearing loss
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Typical presentation of a brain abscess
- Triad : fever, headache and focal neurological deficit - Can also present with seizure
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likely nerve injury followung mid-shaft humeral fracture and how to test it
- Radial - Extend the wrist
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Signs and symptoms of a pontine haemorrhage
- Reduced GCS - Paralysis - Bilateral small / pin point pupils - Hx of long standing HTN
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3 investigations you would do in someone with suspected TIA
ECG : AF Head CT / MRI Carotid artery doppler USS
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3 TIA RF
Smoking DM HTHN