Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Define epilepsy

A
  • Tendency to have recurrent, unprovoked seizures
  • Seizure is transient excessive electrical activity with motor, sensory or cognitive manifestations

Epilepsy is defined by

  • At least two unprovoked or reflex seizures occuring more than 24 hours apart
  • One unprovoked seizure with probability of further seizures
  • Diagnosis of an epilepsy syndrome
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2
Q

List types of seizures

A
  • Generalised, affecting the whole brain (tonic clonic, absence, atonic, tonic or rigid, clonic or convusive, myoclonic)
  • Partial, affecting a focal part of the brain (simple, where consciousness is unimpaired, or complex where the consciousness is impaired)
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3
Q

List symptoms of cauda equina syndrome

A
  • Increasing backpain
  • Bilateral sciatica
  • Sensory loss in a lumbosacral distribution
  • Flaccid, weakened lower limbs with reduced reflexes
  • Indicates a neurosurgical emergency.
  • Urinary symptoms, the anal sphincter is also likely to be involved
  • Gait disturbance
  • Erectile dysfunction
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4
Q

List causes of cauda equina syndrome

A
  • Bony metastasis
  • Myeloma
  • Epidural abscess
  • Disc prolapse
  • Epidural haematoma
  • Primary sacral tumour e.g. chordoma
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5
Q

How is cauda equina syndrome treated?

A
  • Urgent same day referral to surgeon
  • Imaging
  • Surgical decompression
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6
Q

List adverse effects of carbamezapine

A
  • Sedation
  • Nausea
  • Diarrhea
  • Rash
  • Leukopenia
  • Hyponatremia
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7
Q

Define stroke

A

Focal neurological deficit lasting more than 24 hours if not interviened

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8
Q

List types of stroke

A
  • Ischaemic (embolus, thrombus formation 80%)

- Haemorrhagic (burst aneurysm, 20%)

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9
Q

List risk factors of stroke

A
  • Ischaemic heart disease
  • Hypertension
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Diabetes
  • Previous stroke or TIA
  • Smoking
  • Excessive alcohol intake
  • Hypercoagulable disease (e.g. sickle cell anaemia, polycythemia vera)
  • Prosthetic heart valves
  • Carotid stenosis
  • Poor ventricular function
  • Migraine with aura
  • Combined oral contraceptive pill
  • Family history of stroke in first-degree relatives
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10
Q

List investigations of stroke

A
  • FBC
  • CRP
  • Lactate
  • Clotting screen
  • ECG (AF)
  • Patent foramen ovale screen
  • MDT (SALT, physio)
  • Head CT (haemorrhagic stroke appears white, while ischaemic stroke appears darker due to loss of density following swelling and bursting of cells. White dot may represent a clot)
  • ct angiogram for clot identification
  • Carotid Doppler
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11
Q

Describe treatment of ischaemic stroke

A

< 4.5 hours

  • CT: no haemorrhage
  • Thrombolysis (if no contraindications) using alteplase 10% as bolus then the rest over 1 hour

> 4.5 hours

  • CT head (exclude haemorrhage)
  • Aspirin (300mg), Swallow assessment
  • Thrombectomy within 6 hours
  • Maintain hydration, oxygenations, monitor glc

Secondary prevention

  • Warfarin prophylaxis for AF patients
  • Non-AF continue aspirin for 2 weeks then switch to lifelong clopidogrel
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12
Q

Describe epidemiology of stroke

A
  • In the UK, first ever stroke occurs in about 230/100,000 people per year and first-ever TIA in about 50/100,000 people per year.
  • Stroke is the fourth single cause of mortality in the UK
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13
Q

Define migraine

A
  • Recurrent episodes of a headache lasting 4-72 hours
  • Chronic
  • Severe effect on quality of life
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14
Q

Describe risk factors for migraine

A
  • Skipping meals.
  • Too much or too little sleep.
  • Stressful events.
  • Smoking.
  • Depression or anxiety.
  • Drinking too much alcohol, dehydration
  • Loud or sudden noises.
  • Caffeine, cheese, chocolate
  • Menstruation
  • Bright lights
  • Family history
  • Overuse of headache medication
  • Obesity
  • Female
  • Allergies or asthma
  • Hypertension
  • Hypothyroidism
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15
Q

List symptoms of migraine

A
  • Unilateral headache (bilateral in children) lasting 4 to 72 hours if untreated
  • Pulsating, throbbing, banging, pounding
  • Aggravated by routine activities of daily living
  • Nausea and or vomiting
  • Photophobia
  • Phonophobia
  • Aura (visual, sensory, speech or language symptoms, atypical)
  • Decreased ability to function
  • Sensitivity to noise
  • Aura

SULTANS - Severe unilateral throbbing activity impairing nausea and vomiting sensitivity to light and sound

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16
Q

Describe treatment of migraine

A

Acute episodes - A and E

  • Metclopramide or prochorperazine + diphenhydramine
  • OR Sumatriptan OR promethazine OR valproid acid OR paracetamol OR magnesium sulfate
  • (Antiemetic)
  • Oxygen
  • IV corticosteroid and secobarbital

Mild symptoms

  • NSAID
  • Antiemetic
  • Hydration
  • OR paracetamol

Severe symptoms

  • Triptan
  • Antiemetic
  • Hydration
  • NSAID

Avoid triggers

Prophylaxis

  • Propanolol
  • Amitriptyline
  • Tropicamate
  • Triptin
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17
Q

Define tension headache

A

Mild to moderate intensity headache which can last minutes to days and is not aggravated by routine physical activity such as walking.

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18
Q

List types of tension headache

A
  • Infrequent episodic tension-type headache — less than one day of headache per month.
  • Frequent episodic tension-type headache — at least 10 episodes of headache occurring on average 1–14 days per month for more than 3 months.
  • Chronic tension-type headache — 15 or more days of headache per month for 3 or more months.
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19
Q

List symptoms and signs of tension headache

A
  • Generalised headache across the whole head usually described as a pressure or tightness around the head which often spreads into or arises from the neck.
  • Mild to moderate intensity headache which can last minutes to days and is not aggravated by routine physical activity such as walking.
  • Pericranial tenderness which may be elicited on manual palpation
  • Normal neurological exam
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20
Q

Describe management of tension headache

A
  • Simple analgesia such as paracetamol, aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories
  • Avoidance of opioids.
  • Identification and appropriate management of associated co-morbidities such as mood disorders, chronic pain and sleep disorders.
  • Provision of patient information on tension-type headache and avoidance of medication overuse headache.
  • Headache diary

Preventative treatments that may be considered for chronic tension-type headache include:

  • A course of up to 10 sessions of acupuncture over 5–8weeks.
  • Low dose amitriptyline (off-label indication).
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21
Q

Describe aetiology of tension headache

A
  • Muscle contraction is either normal or slightly increased and the extent of muscle contraction does not correlate with the extent of head pain.
  • Psychological stress is the most common trigger for tension-type headache.
  • Extended periods of mental tension or psychological stress may play a role in central sensitisation and the development of chronic tension-type headache.
  • Disturbed sleep patterns can trigger an episodic tension-type headache
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22
Q

Describe epidemiology of tension headache

A
  • 42% mean global prevalence
  • Most common onset age 20-30
  • More common in females (2:3 male to female ratio)
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23
Q

Describe prognosis of tension headache

A
  • Infrequent episodic tension-type headache is self-limiting and simple analgesia is usually effective.
  • Chronic TTH can evolve from frequent episodic TTH, with daily or very frequent episodes of headache. It is a serious condition which decreases quality of life and leads to high disability.
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24
Q

List headache red flags

A
  • Sudden onset, severe thunderclap headache (subarachnoid haemorrhage)
  • New onset over 50 years
  • Significant change in characteristic
  • Fever, rash, photophobia, neck stiffness (meningism)
  • Visual disturbance
  • Vomiting
  • Recent head trauma
  • Triggered by valsalva (eg. cough) or changes in posture
  • Neurological deficit
  • History of malignancy or immunosuppression
  • Symptoms suggestive of GCA
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25
Q

List signs and symptoms of spinal cord compression/cauda equina

A
  • Bilateral sciatica
  • Leg weakness
  • LMN at level of the lesion, UMN below the lesion (eg. Hyperreflexia, hypertonic) - not cauda equina
  • Urinary hesitance or incontinence
  • Faecal incontinence
  • Sensory disturbance including saddle anaesthesia
  • Reduced anal tone
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26
Q

List signs and symptoms of spinal fracture

A
  • Sudden onset, central spinal pain
  • Relieved on lying down
  • History of trauma
  • Risk factors including steroid use
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27
Q

List signs and symptoms of malignancy in the spine

A
  • Age over 50
  • Gradual onset
  • Night pain
  • Localised spinal tenderness
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • History of cancer
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28
Q

List signs and symptoms of infection in the spine

A
  • Fever
  • History of infection (TB, recent UTI)
  • Diabetes
  • IV drug use
  • HIV infection
  • Immunosuppressive therapy
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29
Q

Compare cauda equina and spinal cord compression

A

Cauda equina

  • Flaccid paralysis asymmetrical
  • Decreased or absent reflexes
  • Saddle anaesthesia which is asymmetrical
  • Faecal incontinence/urinary retention

Spinal cord compression (UMN)

  • Spastic paralysis, symmetrical
  • Increased reflexes
  • Specific anatomical level of sensory defect which si symmetrical
  • Faecal/urinary incontinence
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30
Q

List causes of tremor

A
  • Physiological
  • Essential (hereditary)
  • Parkinsons
  • Intention
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31
Q

Describe physiological tremor

A
  • Fine, fast postural tremor

- Similar to hyperthyroidism, alcohol/caffeine excess, side effect of beta agonist bronchodilators

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32
Q

Describe essential tremor

A
  • Postural, worse when arms are outstretched
  • Improved by alcohol and rest, worsened by stress, caffeine and sleep deprivation
  • Titubation (head nodding)
  • Family history (autosomal dominant)
  • Presents over age 40
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33
Q

Describe parkinsons tremor

A
  • Slow, coarse, pill rolling
  • Worse at rest
  • Reduced with voluntary movement
  • Upper limbs more affected
  • Asymmetrical
  • Doesn’t affect head
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34
Q

Describe intention tremor

A
  • Absent at rest
  • Maximal on movement and approaching target
  • Cerebellar pathology
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35
Q

Define bells palsy

A

An acute, unilateral facial nerve weakness or paralysis of rapid onset (less than 72 hours) and unknown cause.

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36
Q

Describe aetiology of bells palsy

A

Herpes simplex virus, varicella zoster virus, and autoimmunity may contribute to the development of Bell’s palsy, but the significance of these factors remains unclear.

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37
Q

Describe epidemiology of bells palsy

A
  • Affects 20–30 people per 100,000 each year.

- It most common between 15 and 45 years of age.

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38
Q

List possible complications of bells palsy

A
  • Eye injury
  • Face pain
  • Dry mouth
  • Intolerance to loud noises
  • Abnormal facial muscle contraction during voluntary movements
  • Psychological sequelae
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39
Q

List symptoms of bells palsy

A
  • Rapid onset (less than 72 hours).
  • Facial muscle weakness (almost always unilateral) involving the upper and lower parts of the face. This causes a reduction in movement on the affected side, often with drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth and loss of the nasolabial fold.
  • Ear and postauricular region pain on the affected side.
  • Difficulty chewing, dry mouth, and changes in taste.
  • Incomplete eye closure, dry eye, eye pain, or excessive tearing.
  • Numbness or tingling of the cheek and/or mouth.
  • Speech articulation problems, drooling.
  • Hyperacusis.
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40
Q

Describe diagnosis of bells palsy

A

Made when no other medical condition is found to be causing facial weakness or paralysis

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41
Q

Describe management of bells palsy

A
  • Keep the affected eye lubricated by using lubricating eye drops during the day and ointment at night. The eye should be taped closed at bedtime using microporous tape, if the ability to close the eye at night is impaired.
  • For people presenting within 72 hours of the onset of symptoms, prescription of prednisolone should be considered.
  • Antiviral treatment alone is not recommended, but it may have a small benefit in combination with a corticosteroid; specialist advice is recommended if this is being considered.
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42
Q

Define horners syndrome

A

A neurological disorder characterized by a symptom triad of miosis, partial ptosis), and facial anhidrosis.

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43
Q

Define cluster headache

A

Cluster headache is a rare but severe headache disorder which may be:

  • Episodic cluster headache — attacks occur in periods lasting from 7 days to 1 year and are separated by pain-free periods lasting at least 1 month.
  • Chronic cluster headache — attacks occur for more than 1 year without remission, or with remission periods lasting less than 1 month.
  • Often occur at the same time of day, waking the person from sleep

Most common trigeminal autonomic cephalalgia

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44
Q

Describe aetiology and risk factors for cluster headache

A
  • The aetiology of cluster headaches is not fully understood — acute attacks involve activation in the region of the posterior hypothalamic grey matter.
  • Acute cluster headache may be inherited as an autosomal dominant condition in about 5% of people.
  • Factors such as previous head trauma, cigarette smoking and alcohol intake have been associated but no causal relationship identified.
  • There may be an interaction between genetic and environmental factors.
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45
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cluster headaches

A
  • Estimated one-year prevalence of 53 per 100,000 adults and a lifetime prevalence of 124 per 100,000.
  • The typical age of onset of cluster headache is 20 to 40 years.
  • 70% of patients report onset before 30 years of age.
  • Males are affected about four times more than females overall.
  • The male-to-female ratio is markedly higher for chronic cluster headache (15:1) than for episodic cluster headache (3.8:1).
  • Most people (80-90%) have episodic cluster headache with recurrent bouts separated by remission periods of more than a month.
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46
Q

List symptoms of cluster headaches

A
  • Unilateral periorbital pain.
  • Ipsilateral autonomic symptoms such as conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation, nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea, eyelid oedema, forehead and facial sweating or flushing.
  • Pain may be described as pulsating, boring, burning, or pressure-like.
  • Attacks last between 15 and 180 minutes.
  • Trigger for attacks (eg. alcohol, histamine, physical exertion, sleep or the smell of volatile substances such as perfume or petrol)
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47
Q

List signs of cluster headaches

A

During an attack the person is characteristically restless or agitated, cannot lie still and may pace the floor.

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48
Q

Describe investigations of cluster headaches

A

Clinical diagnosis

  • At least five attacks of severe or very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15–180 minutes and
  • Headache associated with at least one of: ipsilateral conjunctival injection and/or lacrimation; nasal congestion and/or rhinorrhoea; eyelid oedema; forehead and facial sweating or flushing; a sensation of fullness in the ear; or miosis and/or ptosis; and/or a sense of restlessness or agitation.
  • Attacks occur between one every other day and eight per day for more than half of the time when the disorder is active.
  • The headache is not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis.
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49
Q

Define Guillian Barre syndrome

A
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome is an acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP).
  • It typically comes on several weeks after viral infection, usually, GI or URTI . HIV is also known to be a cause.
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50
Q

Describe epidemiology of Guillian Barre syndrome

A
  • 1-2 per 100 000/ 1 in 50000 per annum

- In 40% of cases, no cause is found

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51
Q

Describe aetiology and risk factors for Guillian Barre

A
  • It typically comes on several weeks after viral infection, usually, GI or URTI (also sometimes flu vaccine [controversial]). Causal pathogens include campylobacter jejune, CMV and HIV
  • HIV is also known to be a cause.
  • The viral infection causes the production of auto-immune antibodies against peripheral nerves. Myelin is damaged, and transmission is reduced or even blocked.
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52
Q

List symptoms of Guillian Barre syndrome

A
  • Symmetrical muscle weakness, that usually begins in the lower legs, and ascends to the upper limbs, and even the face.
  • Usually it progresses over about 4 weeks before recovery
  • It may advance very quickly, affecting all limbs at once, and resulting in paralysis
  • Pain is common
  • Difficulty swallowing, breathing, moving
  • Miller Fischer syndrome optjalmoplegia, areflexia and ataxia with no muscle weakness
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53
Q

List signs on examination of Guillian Barre syndrome

A
  • Trunk, respiratory and cranial nerves can also be affected – again helping differentiate from other neuropathies.
  • Autonomic signs – sweating, tachycardia, dysrythmias, respiratory involvement
  • Sensory signs often absent, reflexes absent or reduced
  • Reduced power, problems with balance and coordination
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54
Q

List investigations performed for Guillian Barre syndrome and their results

A
  • Lumbar puncture – increased protein in the CSF, white cell count normal (albuminocytologic dissociation)
  • Nerve conduction studies/ EMG – slowed. MRI spine.
  • FVC to monitor lung function - if less than 2 call ITU
  • Bloods (anti-ganglioside antibodies in Miller Fischer and 25% GB)
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55
Q

Define myasthenia gravis

A

Myasthenia Gravis is an acquired, autoimmune disease of the neuromuscular junction due to antibodies produced against nicotininc acetylcholine receptor(fatigability)

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56
Q

Describe aetiology and risk factors of myasthenia gravis

A
  • Antibodies attack the Acetylcholine receptor.
  • Therefore, the nerve signal is not fully transmitted, and the resultant muscle weakness is a result of incomplete stimulation, rather than an inherent disorder within the muscle.
  • Strong association with disorders of thymus, with 75% patients having thymus hyperplasia/atrophy
  • Personal or family history of autoimmune diseases.
  • Under 50 commoner in females, over 50 commoner in males
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57
Q

Describe epidemiology of myasthenia gravis

A
  • The prevalence of Myasthenia Gravis is about 1 in 5,000.

- Although anyone is susceptible to it, there are two main subgroups, young women (20-35) and older men (60-75).

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58
Q

List symptoms and signs of myasthenia gravis

A
  • Ocular- Diplopia and ptosis
  • Bulbar-Dysphagia, Dysphonia, Dysarthria and weak/droopy face
  • Proximal muscle weakness- Shoulders and Thighs
  • Axial weakness – Neck and trunk, but also muscles involved in Respiration
  • Generally periods of remission and crises
  • Weakness is worse with use (therefore, worst at the end of the day)
  • Limb reflexes are usually normal or brisk, and there are no sensory abnormalities.
  • Muscle wasting is usually not present, unless there is severe disease, or the patient has had the condition for a long time.
  • Fatiguability
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59
Q

Describe investigations for myasthenia gravis and their results

A
  • TENSILON test, in which patients are given two drugs, Edrophionium, which prevents breakdown of acetylcholine, and atropine to prevent cardiac side effects associated with Edrophionium. If the patient has myasthenia gravis, then within seconds there is a dramatic symptomatic improvement, however this goes after a couple of minutes.
  • Blood tests for serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies are positive in over 85% of patients with Myasthenia gravis, and there may also be other autoantibodies present, usually against muscle, joints or the thyroid.
  • Electromyography is used to measure how fatigable a muscle is. Electricity is used to repeatedly stimulate a muscle, fatigue can be seen. Single fibre electromyography is usually preferred, as stimulating a single motor unit (remember those, a motor neurone and the muscle fibres it supplies), a variability called a ‘jitter’ can be found.
  • CT/ MRI scans are used to image the thymus, looking in particular for hyperplasia and thymoma
  • Spirometry is important as it gives an indication as to how badly affected the respiratory muscles are. In some crises respiratory function is compromised, and urgent medical attention is needed.
  • Ptosis improves after ice compression
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60
Q

Compare central facial nerve palsy and peripheral facial nerve palsy

A
  • Central facial nerve palsy causes weakness or paralysis of the contralateral face that spares the muscles of the forehead, due to bilateral upper motor neuron innervation of the upper face.
  • Peripheral facial nerve palsy affects all muscles of facial expression on the ipsilateral side.
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61
Q

Define parkinsons disease

A

Parkinson’s disease is a chronic, progressive neurodegenerative condition resulting from the loss of the dopamine-containing cells of the substantia nigra.

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62
Q

Define parkinsonism

A
  • Parkinsonism is an umbrella term for the clinical syndrome involving bradykinesia together with at least one of the following: rigidity, tremor, and postural instability.
  • Parkinson’s disease is the most common form of parkinsonism.
  • Other causes of parkinsonism include drug-induced, cerebrovascular disease, Lewy body dementia, multiple system atrophy, and progressive supranuclear palsy.
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63
Q

Describe risk factors and aetiology of Parkinsons Disease

A
  • Not fully understood
  • Mainly genetic risk factors
  • Loss of dopaminergic neurones in the substantia nigra associated with lewy bodies in the basal ganglia, brainstem and cortex
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64
Q

Describe epidemiology of Parkinsons Disease

A
  • Parkinson’s disease is a common condition in elderly people, with a prevalence of 1–2% in people older than 65 years of age.
  • 3.5% in 85-89 years
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65
Q

List signs and symptoms of Parkinsons disease

A
  • Bradykinesia
  • Hypokinesia (reduced facial expression, arm swing, or blinking, difficulty with fine movements such as buttoning clothes and opening jars, or small, cramped handwriting (micrographia), slow, shuffling, festinating gait, narrow, or difficulty turning in bed.)
  • Stiffness or rigidity predominantly affecting the side of onset (lead-pipe rigidity, which describes the constant resistance felt when a limb is passively flexed in the presence of increased tone without tremor, cogwheel rigidity, which describes the regular intermittent relaxation of tension felt when a limb is passively flexed in the presence of tremor and increased tone.)
  • Rest tremor, which usually improves on moving, with mental concentration, and during sleep, may affect the thumb and index finger (‘pill-rolling’), the wrist, or the leg. It may also affect the lips, chin, and jaw, but rarely involves the head, neck, or voice.
  • Balance problems and/or gait disorders.
  • Postural instability is suggested by the ‘pull test’ — a tendency to fall backwards after a sharp pull from the examiner. This may be suggestive of Parkinson’s disease if unrelated to primary visual, cerebellar, vestibular, or proprioceptive dysfunction.

Unilateral in early disease, becomes bilateral

General symptoms:

  • Depression, anxiety, and fatigue.
  • Reduced sense of smell.
  • Cognitive impairment.
  • Sleep disturbance.
  • Constipation.
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66
Q

Describe investigations of Parkinsons disease

A
  • History
  • Signs and symptoms
  • Examination
  • Exclude other causes of parkinsonism (eg. drug induced, cerebrovascular, lewy body dementia…)
  • Consider MRI to rule out other causes
  • Dopaminergic agent trial (improvement in symptoms)
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67
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A
  • Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an acquired, chronic, immune-mediated, inflammatory condition of the central nervous system (CNS) that can affect the brain, brainstem, and spinal cord.
  • The inflammatory process causes areas of demyelination (damage to white matter), gliosis (scarring), and neuronal damage throughout the CNS.
  • Onset usually in young adulthood
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68
Q

Describe patterns of disease in multiple sclerosis

A
  • Relapsing-remitting MS (most common pattern of disease — about 85% of people - exacerbations of symptoms are followed by recovery and periods of stability)
  • Secondary progressive (gradual accumulation of disability unrelated to relapses, which become less frequent or stop completely, about two thirds of people with RMS progress to SPMS)
  • Primary progressive MS (steady progression and worsening of the disease from the onset, without remissions occurs in about 10–15% of people with MS)
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69
Q

Describe aetiology of MS

A
  • Cells of the immune system, mainly T-cells, attack oligodendrocytes, resulting in focal or diffuse areas of inflammation that is thought to cause secondary damage, primarily to axons.
  • Re-myelination of axons may occur in remissions, but may be partial or transient.
  • Progressive damage to affected cells in the nervous system leads to irreversible loss of function of affected nerves, resulting in permanent symptoms and signs.
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70
Q

List risk factors for MS

A
  • Genetics (20% blood relative with MS)
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Smoking
  • Diet and obesity in early life
  • Latitude (prevalence increases further from euator)
  • Epstein Barr virus
  • Female gender (2-3 times more common in women)
  • Associated with HLA-DR2
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71
Q

Describe epidemiology of MS

A
  • Most common non-traumatic cause of neurological disability in people under 40
  • 2.3 million people worldwide in 2016
  • Mean age of diagnosis is 30, most common 20-50
  • RRMS affects 85% of people with MS
  • 2-3 more times common in women
  • More common in northern populations in UK
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72
Q

List common symptoms of MS

A
  • Loss or reduction of vision in one eye with painful eye movements (optic neuritis, partial or total unilateral vision loss with pain behind the eye)
  • Diplopia.
  • Ascending sensory disturbance and/or weakness.
  • Balance problems, unsteadiness, or clumsiness.
  • Altered sensation radiating down the back and sometimes into the limbs on neck flexion (Lhermitte’s symptom).
  • Urinary symptoms (urgency, frequency, retention)
  • Speech and swallowing difficulties
  • Fatigue
  • Heat intolerance
  • Sexual dysfunction
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73
Q

List signs of MS

A
  • Optic neuritis (loss of colour discrimation, disc may appear pale or swollen. RAPD)
  • Transverse myelitis (sensory and motor symptoms, focal muscle weakness reduced sensation and muscle tone initially reduced)
  • Cerebellar signs (ataxia, vertigo, dysmetria)
  • Brainstem signs (ataxia, oscillopsia, nystagmus, internuclear opthalmoplegia (inability to adduct one eye with nystagmus in abducting eye))
  • Dysarthria and dysphagia
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74
Q

Describe diagnosis of MS

A
  • Diagnosed by consultant neurologist based on McDonald criteria
  • FBC, inflammatory markers, liver, renal function, calcium, HbA1c, thyroid function, B12 and HIV should be tested to exclude differentials
  • 2 lesions separated in time and space
  • MRI showing plaques, especially in the corpus callosum. GAD enhanced shows new lesions up as brighter
  • LP abnormal immunoglobulins (oligoclonal bands)
  • VIsual evoke potentials are slowed
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75
Q

Compare spasticity and rigidity

A
  • Spasticity is where there is a lot of resistance in the muscle and it eventually gives way. This is caused by upper motor neuron lesions. It is called clasp knife rigidity
  • Rigidity is sustained resistance, also called lead pipe rigidity. It is extrapyramidal. When caused by parkinsons it is called cog wheel rigidity
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76
Q

Describe GCS

A
Eye 
1- does not open eyes
2- opens eyes in response to pain
3-opens eyes in response to voice
4- opens eyes spontaneously
Verbal
1 - Makes no sounds
2 - Makes sounds
3 - Words
4 - Confused, disoriented
5 - Oriented, converses normally	

Motor
1 - Makes no movements
2 - Extension to painful stimuli (decerebrate response)
3 - Abnormal flexion to painful stimuli (decorticate response)
4 - Withdrawal to painful stimuli
5 - Localizes to painful stimuli
6 - Obeys commands

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77
Q

Describe the MRC muscle power scale

A

0 - No contraction
1 - Flicker or trace of contraction
2 - Active movement with gravity eliminated
3 - Active movement against gravity
4 - Active movement against gravity and resistance
5 - Normal power

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78
Q

Describe what is looked for in general inspection in cranium exam

A
  • Squint
  • Ptosis
  • Facial droop
  • Asymmetrical or abnormal eye position and pupils
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79
Q

List what is looked for in general inspection in limb exam

A
  • Fasciculations
  • Muscle wasting
  • Scars
  • Neurofibromas
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80
Q

Define subdural heamatoma, and list the types

A
  • A subdural haematoma (SDH) is a collection of clotting blood that forms in the subdural space.
  • May be acute SDH.
  • A subacute SDH (this phase begins 3-7 days after the initial injury).
  • A chronic SDH (this phase begins 2-3 weeks after the initial injury).
  • A simple SDH is when there is no associated parenchymal injury.
  • A complicated SDH is when there is associated underlying parenchymal injury, such as contusion.
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81
Q

List risk factors for subdural haematom

A
  • Infants (tearing of bridging veins in the subdural space, physical abuse)
  • Elderly (cerebral atrophy causing tension on veins)
  • Alcohol (thrombocytopenia, blunt head trauma)
  • Anticoagulation treatment
  • Falls
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82
Q

Describe epidemiology of subdural haematoma

A
  • 1/3 people with severe head injury
  • More common with increasing age 7.35 per 100000 population age 70-79
  • Infants 12.5 per 100000
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83
Q

Describe symptoms of subdural haematoma

A
  • Gradual onset of headache
  • Acute - shortly after head injury, fluctuating consciousness, patient may initially appear well
  • Chronic - 2,3 weeks after trauma, symptoms are progressive, anorexia, nausea or vomiting.
  • Neurological deficit (limb weakness, speech difficulties, drowsiness or confusion or personality changes)
  • Headache
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84
Q

Describe investigations of subdural haematoma

A
  • GCS
  • Vital signs
  • Neuro exam
  • FBC, U and Es, LFTs
  • Coagulation screen
  • Cross match blood
  • CT scan of head (crescent of blood around outer edge of brain)
  • Subacute uses contrast or MRI
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85
Q

List signs of subdural haematoma

A
  • Papilloedema
  • Bradycardia and hypertension
  • Raised intracranial pressure
  • Seizures
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86
Q

Describe treatment of subdural haematoma

A
  • ABCDE
  • If under 10mm and no significant neurological dysfunction observe + antiepileptics (levetiracetum) + lower ICP (raised head of bed, analgesics and sedation
  • Over 10mm irrigation, evacuation, burr hole craniostomy (preferred if chronic)
  • Craniotomy (preferred if acute), duraplasty
  • Find cause of trauma
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87
Q

List complications of subdural haematoma

A
  • Death due to cerebellar herniation
  • Cerebral oedema
  • Recurrent haeatoma during recovery
  • Seizures
  • Wound infection, subdural empyema, meningitis
  • Permanent neurological or cognitive deficit due to pressure effects
  • Coma
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88
Q

Describe prognosis of subdural haematoma

A
  • Complicated (parenchymal brain injury) mortality 50%
  • Uncomplicated mortality 20%
  • Chronic treated surgically mortality 5%
  • Infants 19% mortality
89
Q

Define raised intracranial pressure

A
  • Rise in pressure around the brain (CSF)
90
Q

Describe aetiology of raised intracranial pressure

A
  • Localised mass lesions: traumatic haematomas (extradural, subdural, intracerebral).
  • Neoplasms: glioma, meningioma, metastasis.
  • Abscess.
  • Focal oedema secondary to trauma, infarction, tumour.
  • Disturbance of CSF circulation: obstructive hydrocephalus, communicating hydrocephalus.
  • Obstruction to major venous sinuses: depressed fractures overlying major venous sinuses, cerebral venous thrombosis.
  • Diffuse brain oedema or swelling: encephalitis, meningitis, diffuse head injury, subarachnoid haemorrhage, Reye’s syndrome, lead encephalopathy, water intoxication, near drowning.
  • Idiopathic intracranial hypertension. (abnormal movement and visual perimetry, normal visual acuity)
91
Q

List symptoms of raised ICP

A
  • Headache (nocturnal, starting when waking, worse on coughing or moving head, associated with altered mental state)
  • Lethargy, irritability, abnormal social behaviour
  • Coma
  • Vomiting
  • Motor changes
92
Q

List signs of raised ICP

A
  • Irregularity or dilation of one pupil
  • Fundoscopy showing papilloedema, flame shaped haemorrhages, retinal haemorrhages
  • Unilateral ptosis or third and sixth nervepalsy
  • Raised blood pressure, widened pulse pressure
  • Cushings peptic ulcer (epigastric pain)
  • Cushings reflex (paradoxical bradycardia and raised blood pressure, often with irregular breathing)
  • Cushings triad - widened pulse pressure, respiratory irregularity, bradycardia
93
Q

Describe investigations of raised ICP

A
  • CT (urgent)
  • MRI
  • Check blood glucose, renal function, electrolytes and osmolality
  • ECG showing t wave inversion
94
Q

Describe epidemiology of raised ICP

A
  • 1 per 100000 in general population

- Increased risk in individuals with chronic hypertension or obesity

95
Q

Compare Weber and Rinne results in conductive and sensorineural hearing loss

A
  • In conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air on affected side and webers sounds louder on the affected side
  • In sensorineural, air conduction greater than bone in both ears and webers sounds louder on unaffected side
96
Q

Define CNS tumour

A

A primary neoplasm affecting the brain or spinal cord

97
Q

Describe epidemiology of CNS tumours

A
  • Around 9000 new primary brain and central nervous system cancers are diagnosed each year in the UK.
  • A full time GP is likely to diagnose approximately one person every 3–5 years.
  • It is seen in both sexes, and is one of the more common cancers in childhood and young people.
98
Q

List symptoms of brain and CNS tumours

A
  • New-onset seizures
  • Headache (raised ICP - bilateral, gradual, throbbing or bursting, worse in the morning, coughing or sneezing)
  • Nausea
  • Drowsiness
  • Progressive deafness (vestibular schwannoma)
  • Visual change (parietal lobe - homonymous hemianopia)
  • Personality change (frontal lobe)
99
Q

List signs of CNS tumours

A
  • Papilloedema
  • Paresis of limbs
  • Speech disorders/dysphasia (very common)
  • Cerebellar signs – think DASHING (dysdiadochokinesis and dysmetria, ataxia, slurred speech, hypotonia, intention tremor, nystagmus, gait abnormality)
  • Visual symptoms (bitemporal hemianopia)
  • Cranial nerve 6 palsy (common due to its long intracranial course)
100
Q

List risk factors for CNS tumours

A
  • Familial syndromes (Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, von Hippel-Lindau and Li-Fraumeni)
  • Ionising radiation/X-ray exposure
  • Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN-1)
  • Immunosuppression/EBV/HIV (primary CNS lymphoma)
  • Previous history of cancer
101
Q

List investigations for CNS tumours

A
  • Full Blood Count
  • Urea and Electrolytes
  • Calcium
  • Liver Function Tests
  • C-Reactive Protein (raised in infection and malignancy)
  • Both CT and MRI are used to help assess tumour size, adjacent structures, surrounding oedema, mass effect and secondary haemorrhage
  • A CT chest, abdomen and pelvis (CAP) should be performed if metastases are suspected
  • A biopsy is the only definitive way to diagnose a tumours tissue type (histology and cytogenetics)
  • Lumbar puncture should be avoided until neuroimaging has ruled out evidence of raised intracranial pressure.
  • This reduces the risk of brain herniation (commonly referred to as coning).
102
Q

Define subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space.

103
Q

Describe epidemiology of SAH

A
  • Incidence is about 8 per 100 000 commonest age 35-65
  • 1/3 present purely with a headache
  • 5-11% misdiagnosed
  • 80% rupture of an aneurysm
  • 15% AV malformations
104
Q

Describe aetiology and risk factors for SAH

A
  • High BP
  • Smoking
  • Known berry aneurysm – Or disease that causes aneurysm – e.g. polycystic kidney disease, co-arctation of the aorta, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome
  • Family history – increases risk by 3-5x
105
Q

List symptoms of SAH

A
  • Sudden onset severe headache, often at the back of the head ‘thunderclap’
  • Neck stiffness (meningism)
  • Impaired consciousness (drowsiness / coma) – usually occurs very shortly after the onset of symptoms, but can occur several hours later.
  • CNS deficits can become permanent within minutes. If it lasts more than several hours it is highly unlikely to ever resolve.
  • Sentinel headache – is experienced by about 6% of patients, and is a prodromal headache thought to be the result of a small leak before rupture of an aneurysm or malformation. Similar to a migraine
  • Vomiting
106
Q

List signs of SAH

A
  • Kernig sign (back hurting when knee and hip flexed, resistance to straightening)
  • Extensor plantar responses
  • Cranial nerve signs
  • Hemiplegia
107
Q

List investigations of SAH

A
  • Diagnosis is by urgent non contrast CT, or if this is normal with a high sense of suspicion, CSF.
  • CT – is able to detect >90% of lesions within 48 hours of onset of symptoms.
  • Often star shaped lesion on CT – or the blood fills in giral patterns around the brain the ventricles
  • If CT is negative, but SAH is highly suspected, consider :

Lumbar puncture from 12 hours after symptom onset– contraindicated in raised ICP features include:

  • Blood – detected via the presence of bilirubin. Previously, people would use the level of RBCs as an indicator, however, it is unreliable to use the rule: if blood remains constant in 3 separate samples = SAH, if blood declines = tap trauma.
  • Xanthochromia - yellow appearance of CSF if it is left to stand for a few hours
108
Q

Define trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • A facial pain syndrome in the distribution of ≥1 divisions of the trigeminal nerve.
  • It is characterised by some combination of paroxysms of sharp, stabbing, intense pain lasting up to 2 minutes and/or a constant component of facial pain, without associated neurological deficit.
  • The pain can be precipitated by trigger areas or factors, and repeat attacks are typically stereotyped in the individual.
109
Q

Describe epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • 4 to 13 per 100,000 based on US and UK population studies.
  • This means that 12,000 to 40,000 new cases are diagnosed in the US annually.
  • There is a slight female predominance at all ages, and rates appear to increase with age, with reported incidence rates as high as 74 to 88 per 100,000 in elderly (>75 years of age) populations
110
Q

Describe aetiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Compression in 80-90% of patients
  • Demyelinating disease (20 times more prevalent in MS)
  • Other brainstem lesion (infarcts and amyloid or calcium deposition)
111
Q

List risk factors for trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Increased age
  • MS
  • Female
  • Hypertension
112
Q

List symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Facial pain.
  • Classic unlateral paroxysms of facial pain lasting seconds to minutes
  • Intense, sharp, superficial, stabbing or burning
  • Triggers such as teeth brushing, eating, cold and touch
  • Most patients asymptomatic between episodes
113
Q

List signs of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Unremarkable
114
Q

Describe investigation of trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • Clinical suspicion
  • STN is distinguished from CTN by measuring trigeminal reflexes
  • Exclude other causes with Oral x rays, MRI
115
Q

List types of trigeminal neuralgia and the differences between them

A
  • Classic - sharp, shooting, electric shock-like pain. Pain should be episodic >50% of the time.
  • Atypical - aching, throbbing, burning pain >50% of the time with a constant background.
  • Trigeminal neuropathic pain - secondary to unintentional trigeminal injury (facial trauma, oral surgery, ear, nose and throat surgery, skull base surgery, posterior fossa surgery, stroke).
  • Trigeminal deafferentation pain ‘anaesthesia dolorosa’ - secondary to intentional denervating procedure (e.g., neurectomy, gangliolysis, rhizotomy, nucleotomy, tractotomy).
  • Symptomatic TN - pain is a symptom of underlying pathology (tumour, inflammatory demyelination, etc.).
    Associated with MS or compression secondary to local tumour. Younger age of onset, involvement of the first division of trigeminal nerve, unresponsiveness to treatment, and abnormal trigeminal evoked potentials should be disregarded as useful for disclosing symptomatic TN.
  • Post-herpetic TN resulting from an outbreak of facial herpes zoster.
  • Atypical facial pain - somatoform pain disorder, requires evaluation with psychological testing prior to confirmation
116
Q

Compare medical and surgical oculomotor palsy

A
  • Surgically - pressure effect. Presses on parasympathetic fibres and causes pupil to dilate
  • Medical is down to microischaemia, and therefore the middle part of the nerve is the most likely to be ischaemic, therefore only the motor function is affected. Down and out pupil before the dilated pupil
  • Not needed anymore imaging is used instead
117
Q

Describe types of diplopia

A

Binocular ocular

  • Misalignment
  • Resolves on covering of one eye
  • Description of the diplopia is useful
  • Determine lesion location
  • Do blood work ESR

Monocular

  • Cataracts
  • Macular degeneration
118
Q

Define vasovagal syncope

A

A syndrome characterised by a relatively sudden, temporary, and self-terminating loss of consciousness, associated with the inability to maintain postural tone, with rapid and spontaneous recovery.

119
Q

Describe epidemiology of vasovagal syncope

A
  • 1% of A&E
  • 15% of children
  • Most common cause of syncope, peaks in young patients and then again in older patients
120
Q

List symptoms of vasovagal syncope

A
  • Nausea
  • Lightheadedness
  • Diaphoresis
  • Diminished vision or hearing
  • Fatigue afterwards
121
Q

List signs of syncope

A
  • Pallor
  • Bradycardia
  • Palpitations
122
Q

List risk factors for vasovagal syncope

A
  • Provocative factor
  • Previous episodes
  • Prolonged standing
  • Emotional stress
  • Dehydration/hypovolaemia
  • Preceding nausea and/or vomiting
  • Preceding episode of severe pain
123
Q

List investigations for vasovagal syncope

A

Should all be normal

  • 12 lead ECG
  • Hb
  • Plasma blood glucose
  • B-human chorionic gonadotrophin
  • Cardiac enzymes
  • D dimer
  • Serum cortisol
  • Urea or serum creatinine
  • Tilt testing to reporduce an episode
  • Carotid sinus massage
124
Q

How is diabetic neuropathy treated?

A

Duloxetine

125
Q

List causes of peripheral neuropathy

A
  • Infection (HIV)
  • Inflammation/ autoimmune (vasculitis, CTD, inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy)
  • Toxic/ metabolic (drugs, alcohol, B12 deficiency, diabetes, hypothyroidism, uraemia, amyloidosis)
  • Tumour/malignancy (paraneoplastic, paraproteinaemia)
  • Hereditary sensory motor neuropathy
126
Q

Describe optic neuritis

A
  • Blurred optic disc margins
  • Blurred vision
  • Pain on eye movement
127
Q

Describe spastic paraparesis

A
- Weakness, stiffness and muscle spasms in the legs
Caused by:
- Vascular
- Infection
- Inflammation (transverse myelitis)
- Toxic/metabolic
- Tumour/malignancy
128
Q

Define meralgia paraesthetica

A

Compression of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

129
Q

How is meralgia paraesthetica treated?

A
  • Reassure
  • Avoid tight garments
  • Lose weight
  • If persistent carbamazepine, gabapentin
130
Q

List causes of confusion

A
  • Post-ictal
  • Dysphasia (receptive or expressive)
  • Dementia (vascular, alcoholic, alzheimers disease, inherited)
  • Depressive pseudodementia
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Vascular (headache, collapse, subdural haematoma)
  • Infection (temp, intracranial, extra-cranial)
  • Inflammation
  • Malignancy
  • Metabolic/toxic (drugs, U&Es, LFTs, vitamin deficiencies, endocrinopathies)
131
Q

Describe AMTS

A
  • DOB
  • Age
  • Time
  • Year
  • Place
  • Recall (street)
  • Recognize doctor/ nurse
  • Prime minister
  • Second WW
  • Count backwards from 20 to 1
132
Q

Describe treatment of TIA

A
  • Aspirin
  • Dont treat BP acutely (unless over 220/110)
  • ECG, echocardiogram
  • Carotid doppler
  • Risk factor modification
133
Q

List causes of collapse

A
  • Low glucose
  • Heart - vasovagal, arrythmia, outflow obstruction, postural hypotension
  • Brain - seizure
134
Q

Describe epidemiology of migraine

A
  • Global prevalence of 15%
  • Following adolescence more common in women
  • Prevalence declines with age
  • Affects 1 in 6 people
  • Most common age 18-44, unemployed, older and disabled people
135
Q

Describe diagnosis for migraine

A

Clinical diagnosis (ICHD)

Normal in migraine

  • ESR
  • Lumbar puncture
  • CSF
  • MRI brain
  • CT brain
136
Q

List causes of haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Hypertension
  • Rupture of aneurysm
  • Haemorrhagic necrosis (tumour, infection)
  • Venous outflow obstruction
  • Trauma
  • Altered haemostasis
137
Q

Describe blood supply in the brain

A
  • Internal carotids form the middle and anterior cerebral arteries.
  • Middle cerebral artery supplies lateral aspects of the brain
  • Anterior cerebral artery supplies medial strip
  • Basilar and vertebral arteis for posterior cerebral arteries, which supply the occipital lobe, brainstem and cerebellum
138
Q

List causes of ischaemic stroke

A
  • Small vessel disease
  • Cardio-embolic (AF)
  • Large vessel atherosclerosis
139
Q

List signs and symptoms of left hemisphere stroke

A
  • Aphasia
  • Right hemiparesis
  • Right sided sensory loss
  • Right visual field defect
  • Poor right conjugate gaze
  • Dysarthria
  • Difficulty reading, writing or calculating
140
Q

List signs and symptoms of right hemisphere stroke

A
  • Neglect of left visual field
  • Extinction of left field stimuli
  • Left sided sensory loss
  • Left hemiparesis
  • Left visual field defect
  • Poor left conjugate gase
  • Dysarthria
  • Spatial disorientation
141
Q

List signs and symptoms of brain stem, cerebellum and posterior hemisphere stroke

A
  • Motor or sensory loss in all 4 limbs, or symptoms in the same side if cerebellar - as cerebllum ipsilateral supply
  • Crossed signs
  • Limb or gair ataxia
  • Dysarthria
  • Dysconjugate gaze (diplopia)
  • Nystagmus (vertigo)
  • Bilateral visual field defects
  • Brainstem LOC
142
Q

List signs and symptoms of small subcortical hemisphere or brain stem stroke (lacunar)

A
  • Pure motor
  • Pure sensory
  • Sensorimotor
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
  • Dysarthria clumsy hand syndrome (no abnormalities of higher brain function, sensation or vision)
143
Q

List middle cerebral artery stroke symptoms

A
  • Contralateral hemiparesis (arm more than leg)
  • Contralateral hemisensory loss
  • Hemianopia
  • Visual and sensory innattention
  • Dysphasia
  • Neglect
  • Dysarthria
  • Dysphagia
144
Q

Describe treatment of haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Supportive care + monitoring
  • Blood pressure control
  • Reversal of anticoagulant (warfarin with prothrombin complex anticoagulant, and phytomenadone)
  • Once discharged, VTE prophylaxis
145
Q

List possible complications of haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Infection
  • Deep venous thrombosis/pulmonary embolism
  • Seizures
  • Delirium
  • Aspiration pneumonia
146
Q

Describe prognosis of haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Mortality is significantly higher than for ischaemic stroke, in the range of 35% to 40%.
  • Only 20% to 30% of all patients are well enough to live independently by 3 to 6 months.
  • Haemorrhage volume is the strongest predictor of outcome.
  • Advanced age, impaired consciousness at presentation, and rupture of the haematoma into the ventricular system are also associated with worse outcomes
147
Q

List complications of ischaemic stroke

A
  • Deep venous thrombosis
  • Haemorrhagic transformation of ischaemic stroke
  • Alteplase-related orolingual oedema (stop alteplase, antihistamine and corticosteroid)
  • Depression
  • Aspiration pneumonia
  • Malignant MCA - cerebral oedema leads to coning ie. brain is pushed downwards. Treatment is remove part of skull to create space
148
Q

Describe prognosis of ischaemic stroke

A
  • In 2013, a total of 3.3 million individuals died of ischaemic stroke worldwide.
  • Between 1990 and 2010, ischaemic stroke mortality decreased 37% in high-income countries and 14% in low- and middle-income countries.
  • Alteplase treatment carries 6% haemorrhage risk, however alteplase improves outcome
149
Q

Define cavernous sinus thrombosis

A
  • The formation of thrombus (clot) within the cavernous sinus, which can either be septic or aseptic.
  • Septic CST is a rapidly evolving thrombophlebitic process with an infectious origin (typically from the middle third of the face, sinuses, ears, teeth, or mouth), affecting the cavernous sinus and its structures.
  • Aseptic CST is usually a thrombotic process that is a result of trauma, iatrogenic injuries, or prothrombotic conditions
150
Q

List causes of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Septic

  • Sinusitis
  • Infection (facial, periorbital)
  • Mucormycosis (highly invasive fungal infection, which usually occurs in immunocompromised patients, especially those with diabetes or neutropenia)
  • Bacterial meningitis.
  • Sepsis (other sources).

Causes of aseptic CST:

  • Trauma (e.g., supra-orbital, mandibular, or basilar skull fracture).
  • Post-surgical causes (e.g., rhinoplasty, cataract extraction, skull base procedures, and dental extraction).
  • Hyper-coagulable state
  • Malignancy (e.g., rhabdomyosarcoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma).
  • Vascular abnormalities (e.g., carotid-cavernous fistula).
  • Miscellaneous aetiologies (e.g., ulcerative colitis, volume depletion, or heroin overdose).
  • Idiopathic.
151
Q

List risk factors for cavernous sinus thrombosis

A
  • Women age 20-30
  • COCP
  • Recent history of acute sinusitis
  • History of facial infections
  • History of peri-orbital infection
  • Genetic prothrombotic condition
  • Acquired and other prothrombotic states
  • History of otitis media, mastoiditis, or petrositis
  • History of dental or oral infection
  • History of sepsis
  • Immunosuppression
  • History of head and neck trauma
  • Use of oral contraceptives
  • History of malignancy
  • History of recent head or neck surgery
  • Vascular abnormalities
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Volume depletion
  • Heroin overdose
152
Q

List symptoms of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A
  • Rapid onset of signs and symptoms (acute septic CST)
  • Headache
  • Fever
  • Peri-orbital oedema
  • Mental state changes (e.g., confusion, drowsiness, coma)
  • Clinically detectable primary infection site
  • Meningismus (nuchal rigidity, photophobia, and headache)
153
Q

List signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A
  • Chemosis and proptosis
  • Lateral gaze palsy
  • Ophthalmoplegia
  • Profound sepsis (acute septic CST)
  • Ptosis and mydriasis
  • Papilloedema and/or retinal-vein dilatation
  • Decreased corneal reflex
  • Hypo- or hyper-aesthesia in the distribution of the ophthalmic and maxillary nerves
  • Positive Kernig’s (flex knee and hip, pain on knee extension) or Brudzinski’s (neck stiffness) signs
  • Seizures
  • Loss of visual acuity
154
Q

Define meningitis

A
  • Inflammation of the meninges caused by infection (leptomeningeal, pia mater and arachnoid)
  • Common bacteria include streptococcus pneumonia, neisseria meningitidis, haemophilius influenzae
  • Fungi
  • Viral - most common cause of aseptic meningitis
155
Q

Describe epidemiology of meningitis

A
  • Viral 2.73 per 100000
  • Bacterial 1.24 per 100,000
  • Fungal is more common in HIV patients
156
Q

List risk factors for meningitis

A
  • Animal exposure is rare
  • HIV
  • Neurosurgery
  • Corticosteroid use
  • Chronic disease
  • Impaired immunity
  • Infants and neonates
  • Central vascular catheters
  • Sinonasal disease
  • Antibacterial usage
  • IV drug use
  • Mosquito exposure
  • Pools and ponds
  • Extended labour/previous babies had meningitis
157
Q

List symptoms of meningitis

A
  • Headache severe, acute
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Photophobia
  • Neck stiffness
  • Fever
  • Rash
  • Fungal can cause seizures, gait disturbances, confusion
158
Q

List signs of meningitis

A
  • Kernig sign (flex knee and hip, pain on extension)
  • Brudzinski sign (neck stiffness)
  • Fungal/bacterial neurological signs, facial palsy, abnormal eye movement and balance problems
  • Petechial rash (non-blanching)
159
Q

List investigations for meningitis

A
  • Blood culture, PCR, blood glucose, FBC, urea, creatinine, electolytes, LFT, coagulation screen, HIV, CRP
  • Lumbar puncture - CSF protein, lactate, glucose, microscopy, PCR
  • Neuroimaging (may be meningial involvement, parenchymal lesions)
160
Q

Describe treatment of meningitis

A
  • Supportive care
  • Antibiotics (bacterial - IV or IM benzylpenecillin in community, broad in A&E (vancomycin, amoxicillin, cephotaxime, cephtriaxone), in neonates no vanco
  • Corticosteroids
  • Hospital transfer
  • Antiretroviral therapy (HIV or viral), CSF drainage, antifungal therapy (fungal)
  • Antiviral therapy

Those who have been exposed to meningococcal meningitis (eg. live with someone who is newly diagnosed) Rifampin is the prophylaxis)

161
Q

List complications of meningitis

A
  • Persistant headache and malaise, neuro-developmental deficits in infants (viral)
  • Anaemia, neurological effects, raised ICP, cerebrlal infarction, hydrocephalis, spinal arachnoiditis (fungal)
  • Shock, raised ICP, hydrocephalus, cognitive and behavioural problems, DVT, hearing loss, subdural effusion, seizures (bacterial)
  • Sensorineural deafness most common complication following bacterial meningitis
162
Q

Describe prognosis of meningitis

A
  • 1/3 of adults who have bacterial meningitis have cognitive impairment.
  • Mortality rate 20% in bacterial meningitis
  • HIV associated poor prognosis
  • Viral generally good, may recur in up to 20% patients
163
Q

Describe broca and wernicke aphasia

A
  • Broca aphasia is difficulty speaking due to inability to produce language. Broca area is in the frontal lobe (posterior inferior frontal gyrus on the left)
  • Wernicke is difficulty understanding speech (left posterior superior temporal gyrus)
164
Q

Define motor neuron disease

A

A rare but devastating illness which leads to progressive paralysis and eventual death. Most commonly causes amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

165
Q

Describe epidemiology of MND

A
  • MND is relatively uncommon with an annual incidence of about 2 cases per 100,000 population. Prevalence is about 5-7 per 100,000. General practitioners can expect to see one or two cases in their career.
  • It can occur at any age but is more common in people aged over 50. The male to female ratio is 2:1.
  • About 5-10% of cases are inherited.
  • The mean age of onset is 43-52 years in familial and 58-63 years in sporadic cases of ALS.
  • Male sex, increasing age and hereditary disposition are the main risk factors.
166
Q

List forms of MND

A
  • Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) 60%, one limb initially, a neurodegenerative disorder, characterised by progressive muscle weakness that can start in limb, axial, bulbar, or respiratory muscles and then generalises relentlessly, causing progressive disability and ultimately death, usually from respiratory failure.
  • Progressive bulbar palsy - about 2 in 10 people with MND have this type. The muscles first affected are those used for talking, chewing and swallowing. See separate article Bulbar and Pseudobulbar Palsy for more details.
  • Progressive muscular atrophy - this is an uncommon form of MND. The small muscles of the hands and feet are usually first affected, but muscle spasticity is absent.
  • Primary lateral sclerosis - this is another rare type of MND. It mainly causes weakness in the leg muscles. Some patients with this type may also develop clumsiness in the hands or develop speech problems.
167
Q

List risk factors for MND

A
  • Genetic predisposition or family history
  • Age >40 years
  • Military service
  • Professional athletic activity
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Agricultural chemical exposure
  • Lead exposure
168
Q

List symptoms of MND

A

Limb weakness - usually affects the upper limbs:

  • Causes patients to drop objects or have difficulty manipulating objects with one hand (turning keys, writing and opening bottles).
  • Wrist drop, stiffness, weakness or cramping of the hands may also occur.
  • Patients may also notice a change in the appearance of their hands (due to wasting of the intrinsic muscles).
  • Fasciculations of the muscles of the limbs may be noticed prior to weakness developing.
  • However, occasionally problems in the leg or legs may occur:
  • Foot drop (early).
  • Gait disorder.
  • A sensation of heaviness of one or both legs.
  • A tendency to trip.
  • Difficulty in rising from low chairs and climbing stairs.
  • Excessive fatigue when walking.

Bulbar onset:

  • The first sign is usually slurring of the speech (impaired tongue movement).
  • Wasting and fasciculation of the tongue.
  • Dysphagia (usually a late feature with significant speech difficulties).
  • Accompanying emotional lability (inappropriate laughing or crying) - as with pseudobulbar palsies.
  • Other symptoms are difficulty eating, drooling, dysarthria, dysphonia, choking events with meals, nasal regurgitation of fluids or pulmonary aspiration.

Respiratory onset can present with:

  • Dyspnoea and orthopnoea.
  • Clinical features resulting from hypoventilation overnight (for example, waking, unrefreshing sleep, hypersomnolence and early morning headaches).

Rarer features:

  • Pain or sensory disturbance is not unknown but is not a common feature of the disease; it is usually the absence of pain or sensory disturbance that helps to distinguish MND from radiculopathies (nerve root pathology) that can cause a similar presentation in peripheral limbs.
  • Symptoms due to impaired respiratory muscle function usually occur late in the disease but can occasionally be a presenting feature, causing ‘air hunger’. Acute respiratory failure has been reported.
  • Some patients with pseudobulbar palsy may have ‘emotional incontinence’, an over-reaction to sad or funny events that they are aware of as being abnormal.
  • Cognitive impairment is not a normal feature but can affect some patients with bulbar palsy.
169
Q

List signs of MND

A
  • LMD dysfunction in the limbs manifests as weakness, atrophy, fasciculations and hyporeflexia.
  • The thighs are often a site of marked fasciculation.
  • UMN dysfunction manifests as weakness predominating in the arm extensors and leg flexors with evidence of hypertonia, hyper-reflexia and upgoing plantar responses; the bulbar muscles may also show spasticity with an exaggerated jaw jerk.
  • Ocular, sensory or autonomic dysregulation signs are usually late features of the disease.
170
Q

Describe clinical diagnosis of MND

A

Presence of:
- Evidence of LMN degeneration by clinical, electrophysiological or neuropathological examination.
- Evidence of UMN degeneration by clinical examination.
Progressive spread of symptoms or signs within a region or to other regions, as determined by history or examination.

Together with the absence of:

  • Electrophysiological and pathological evidence of other disease processes that might explain the signs of LMN and/or UMN degeneration.
  • Neuroimaging evidence of other disease processes that might explain the observed clinical and electrophysiological signs, normal nerve conduction study
171
Q

List investigations for MND

A
  • Electromyography (EMG - diffuse ongoing chronic denervation)
  • Repetitive nerve stimulation (modest decrease)
  • MRI brain and spine (normal)
  • Anti-GM1 antibodies (-ve)
  • Voltage-gated calcium-channel antibodies (-ve)
  • Acetylcholine receptor antibodies (-ve)
  • Vitamin B₁₂ (normal)
  • Creatine kinase (high)
  • Lumbar puncture (normal)
  • HIV test
  • Genetic testing
172
Q

List types of epileptic seizure

A
  • Focal
  • Generalised
  • Unknown onset
  • Motor
  • Non motor
  • Retained or impaired awareness for focal seizures
173
Q

Define status epilepticus

A
  • Convulsive seizure that continues for a prolonged period of time (>5 mins), or convulsive seizures occuring one after the other with no recovery between
  • Emergency
  • Non convilsive is continuous EEG activity but no mental status change
174
Q

Describe epidemiology of status epilepticus

A
  • 3.6-6.6 per 100000 population

- Non convulsive 2.6-7.8 per 100000

175
Q

Describe aetiology of status epilepticus

A
  • Epilepsy
  • Any neurological insult or systemic abnormality capable of inducing a seizure
  • Drug withdrawal due to poor ACT adherence
  • Hypoxia, stroke, metabolic abnormalities
176
Q

List signs and symptoms of status epilepticus

A
  • Longer than 5 minutes or repeated
  • Tonic clonic involving stiffening of the whole body merging into vigorous shaking
  • Altered level of consciousness, confusion, or change in personality (non-convulsive)
177
Q

List risk factors of status epilepticus

A
  • Poor ACT adherence
  • Alcohol use disorder/withdrawal
  • Toxic/metabolic
  • Cortical structural damage
  • Recreational drug use
178
Q

List investigations of status epilepticus

A
  • Glucose
  • ABG
  • Urea
  • Creatinine
  • Liver function tests
  • Sodium, calcium, magnesium
  • FBC
  • CRP
  • Clotting screen
  • Anticonvulsant drug levels
  • Chest x-ray
  • CT head
  • Lumbar puncture
  • Toxicology screen
179
Q

Describe treatment of status epilepticus

A

Convulsive - in hospital

  • Assess and treat ABC
  • Supportive care and monitoring (intubation, thiamine, ocygen, glucose, acidosis, monitoring)
  • Benzodiazepine (consider levetiracetam, if that doesnt work phenytoin, then phenoarbital if necessary)
  • ICU

Convulsive - community

  • Benzodiazepine and supportive care
  • Hospital transfer

Non-convulsive
- Refer to neurology

180
Q

List complications of status epilepticus

A
  • Focal neurological deficits
  • Cognitive dysfunction
  • Behavioural problems
  • Fractures
  • Sudden death in epilepsy
181
Q

Describe prognosis of status epilepticus

A
  • In hospital mortality 3.45%

- Patients often continue to have neurological deficits, especially in memory and other cognitive areas

182
Q

Define generalised tonic-clonic seizures

A

Loss of consciousness and a phasic tonic stiffening of the limbs (either symmetrically or asymmetrically), followed by repetitive clonic jerking. The vast majority of these types of seizure are self-limiting without intervention.

183
Q

Describe epidemiology of tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Half of all epilepsy pateitns have at least one generalised tonic clonic seizure
  • 25% of all seizures
  • Occur more frequently in generalised onset epilepsies and in those who suffer one seizure type
184
Q

List signs and symptoms of tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Focal neurological deficits (structural lesion, or before/after seizure)
  • Premonitory sensation or experience (feat, epigastric, deja vu)
  • Temporary hemiparesis
  • Temporary aphasia
  • Fever, nuchal rigity, altered mental status
  • Neurocutaneous findings (ash leaf spots, fibromas, angiofibromas)
185
Q

Describe treatment of tonic clonic seizures

A
  • IV or rectal benzodiazepine acute sezure. 2nd line fosphenytoin/phenytoin and supportive care
  • If ongoing, anticonvulsant monotherapy (valproic acid, lamotrigine, topiramate, oxcarbazepine, carbamazepine, pneytoin)
186
Q

List complications of tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Idiosyncratic medication reactions
  • Worsening seizures
  • Medication side effects
  • Status epilepticus
  • Efficacy failure
187
Q

Describe prognosis of tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Respond well
  • 60% freedom from seizures if no syndromic diagnosis
  • 50% focal onset will respond by becoming seizure free
  • If generalised onset, 60-70% of patients seizure free
188
Q

Define absense seizures

A
  • A specific type of seizure characterised by abrupt cessation of activity and responsiveness with minimal, if any, associated movements.
  • Absence seizures are further subdivided into typical, atypical, and absence with special features.
  • Typical absence seizures are approximately 5 to 10 seconds in duration, have minimal postictal confusion, precipitated by hyperventilation and sometimes by photic stimulation.
  • Atypical absence seizures have a less distinct beginning and end and are not usually precipitated by hyperventilation or photic stimulation
  • Absence seizures with special features include myoclonic absence and eyelid myoclonia, characteristic of Jeavons syndrome.
189
Q

Describe aetiology of absense seizures

A
  • Genetic with multifactoral inheritence
  • Atypical absence seizures may be secondary to a variety of congenital or acquired brain disorders, such as hypoxia-ischaemia, trauma, central nervous system infection, cortical malformations, or inborn errors of metabolism.
190
Q

Describe epidemiology of absence seizures

A
  • 4000 children (younger than 18 years) are diagnosed with absence epilepsy annually in USA
  • 1500 children with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) annually in the US
191
Q

List risks for absence seizures

A
  • Family/genetic history of childhood absence epilepsy or juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  • Acquired brain injury: for example, hypoxia-ischaemia, trauma, infection
  • Other congenital inborn errors of metabolism, structural defects, chromosomal abnormalities
  • Developmental delay or mental retardation
  • Female sex
192
Q

List symptoms and signs of absence seizures

A
  • Staring episode, lasting 5 to 10 seconds; several times per day with no aura/postictal state
  • Childhood onset
  • Normal physical examination
  • Hyperventilation-induced seizure
  • Simple automatisms (eyelid blinking, upward eye deviation, or lip smacking is often obtained)
  • Recent decline in school performance
  • Complex automatisms
  • Early onset (before age 4 years - stereotypical/repetitive hand movements, walking/circling behaviour is obtained)
193
Q

List investigations for absence seizures

A
  • EEG (generalised 3 Hz spike-and-wave in typical absence; generalised 1.5 to 2.5 Hz spike-and-wave in atypical absence; generalised 4 to 6 Hz spike-and-wave in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME))
  • MRI brain
  • Metabolic disorder screen
  • CSF and serum glucose
194
Q

Describe treatment of absence seizures

A
  • Ethosuximide or valproic acid or lamotrigine
  • 2nd line topiramate or zonisamide or levetiracetam
  • GLUT1 deficiency advise ketogenic diet
  • If ongoing specialist referal
195
Q

Describe complications of absence seizures

A
  • Cognitive impairment long term
  • Generalised tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS)
  • Accidental injuries variable
  • Status epilepticus variable
196
Q

Describe prognosis of absence seizures

A
  • CAE remission 68%
  • JME seizure control for whole life
  • If mixed with myoclonic, absence resolve after 5 years, 50% neurological impairment
197
Q

Define focal seizures

A
  • The electrical and clinical manifestations of seizures that arise from one portion of the brain.
  • Focal aware seizures (formerly known as simple focal seizures) are those in which consciousness is preserved.
  • Focal impaired awareness seizures (formerly known as complex focal seizures) are characterised by loss of awareness, memory loss for the clinical event, and impaired responsiveness at the time of the event.
198
Q

Describe epidemiology of epilepsy

A
  • 45.9 million have epilepsy globally
  • Most common under 20 and over 60
  • 61.4 in 100000 person years
  • Higher in low/middle income countries
199
Q

Describe aetiology + risk factors of focal seizures

A
  • Traumatic brain injury.
  • Closed head injury (skull fracture or >30 minutes of unconsciousness or amnesia)
  • Central nervous system (CNS) infection.
  • Brain tumours. Low-grade tumours seem more epileptogenic than high-grade tumours
  • Stroke. Risk of seizure activity is at least 3 times higher after a stroke
  • Alzheimer’s disease
  • Perinatal injury.
  • Family history. Related to the development of focal epilepsy, although this is not a simple relationship.
  • Male
200
Q

List symptoms and signs of focal seizures

A
  • Movement of one side of the body or one specific body part
  • Premonitory sensation or experience (fear, epigastric sensation, déjà vu, jamais vu)
  • Automatisms (picking at clothes, smacking of the lips)
  • Temporary aphasia
  • Staring and being unaware of surroundings
  • Postictal focal neurological deficit (Todd’s paralysis, aphasia)
    Persistent focal neurological deficit
  • Poor memory
  • Stigmata of neurocutaneous syndromes
201
Q

List investigations for focal seizures

A
  • Blood glucose
  • FBC
  • Electrolyte panel
  • Toxicology screen
  • Lumbar puncture and cerebrospinal fluid analysis
  • CT head
  • MRI brain
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG focal spikes or sharp waves with associated slowing of the electrical activity in the area of the spikes)
202
Q

Describe treatment of focal seizures

A
  • Lamotrigine OR levetiracetam OR oxcarbazepine
  • Second options: lacosamide, eslicapasepine, brivaracetam
  • Tertiary: zonisamide, valproic acid, gabapentin
  • 4th line in under 60 resective epilepsy surgery or neurostimulation
203
Q

List complications of focal seizures

A
  • Head trauma
  • Bone fracture
  • Memory loss
  • Sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP)
204
Q

Describe prognosis of focal seizures

A
  • Nearly two-thirds of patients with focal seizures achieve adequate seizure control with anticonvulsant drugs, either monotherapy or polytherapy. Most patients are treated with anticonvulsants for at least 2 years.
  • Tapering of anticonvulsants may be considered when a patient has remained seizure-free for 2 years
  • Patients with remote symptomatic epilepsy (e.g., seizures beginning 2 years after an open head injury) tend to relapse after withdrawal of anticonvulsants. Tapering should be done gradually, as rapid taper may result in a withdrawal seizure.
205
Q

List complications of migraine

A
  • Status migrainosus (72 hour migraine, IV fluids magnesium sulfate, NSAIDS)
  • Migrainous infarction (treat as cerevrovascular accident)
  • Migraine-triggered seizure
  • Depression
  • Chronic migraine
  • Persistent aura without infarction
206
Q

Describe prognosis of migraine

A
  • Most patients with episodic migraine do well with treatment.
  • In population-based surveys the frequency of migraine headaches decreases with age.
  • The prognosis is guarded for patients who have developed complications of migraine or who have co-morbidities or a long-standing history of medication overuse.
  • The goals of treatment should shift from elimination of pain to improvement in function
207
Q

Describe location of different headache pain

A
  • Tension across forehead
  • Cluster behind eye
  • Migraine half the face
  • Glaucoma inside the eye
208
Q

List risk factors of tension headaches

A
  • Mental tension
  • Stress
  • Missing meals
  • Fatigue
  • Somatisation
  • Female sex
  • Age 20-39 years
  • Lower socioeconomic status
  • Analgesic overuse
209
Q

List complications of tension headaches

A

Peptic ulcer secondary to NSAID use

210
Q

List investigations of tension headaches

A
  • Clinical diagnosis (typical headache without nausea and vomiting, normal neurological examination)
  • Consider CT sinus to excuse sphenoid sinusitis, MRI brain, lumbar puncture - all normal
211
Q

List scores used in stroke management

A
  • NIHSS (NIH stroke sclare). Assess severity of the stroke. Measures level of consiousness, gaze, visual, facial palsy, motor arm, motor leg (for drift), language, ataxia.
  • Rosier scale - recognition of stroke in the ER (LOC, seizure, face weakness, arm weakness, speech disturbance)
  • Modified rankin score (disability after stroke from no symptoms to death)
  • Bamford classification
212
Q

Describe bamford classification

A

Total anterior circulation ischaemic stroke (middle and anterior) ALL 3

  • Unilateral weakness
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, visuospatial disorder

Partial anterior circulation stroke (only part of anterior circulation) 2 of

  • Unilateral weakness/sensory defecit
  • Homonymous hemianopa
  • Higher cerebral dysfunction

Posterior circulation syndrome (brain supplied by the posterior circulation (e.g. cerebellum and brainstem)) One of:

  • Cranial nerve palsy and a contralateral motor/sensory deficit
  • Bilateral motor/sensory deficit
  • Conjugate eye movement disorder (e.g. horizontal gaze palsy)
  • Cerebellar dysfunction (e.g. vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia)
  • Isolated homonymous hemianopia

Lacunar stroke (LACS) (a subcortical stroke that occurs secondary to small vessel disease. There is no loss of higher cerebral functions (e.g. dysphasia).) One of:

  • Pure sensory stroke
  • Pure motor stroke
  • Senori-motor stroke
  • Ataxic hemiparesis
213
Q

List important stroke mimics

A
  • Brain tumours
  • Toxic/metabolic disorders (eg. hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia)
  • Atypical migraine
  • Encephalitis/meningitis
  • Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (JC virus, immunosuppressed patients)
214
Q

Compare viral, bacterial and TB lumbar puncture results in meningitis

A

Bacterial

  • Turbid
  • Neutrophils (polymorphs)
  • Low glucose
  • High protien

Viral

  • Clear
  • Raised mononuclear lymphocytes
  • Normal glucose
  • Normal or raised protein

TB

  • Fibrin web
  • Raised mononuclear lymphocytes
  • Low glucose
  • High protein
215
Q

List causes of worsening myasthenia gravis

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Hypokalaemia
  • Infection
  • Over treatment
  • Change in climate
  • Emotion
  • Exercise
  • Gentamicin
  • Climate
  • Opiates
  • Tetracycline
  • Quinine
  • Beta blockers
216
Q

Compare 3rd nerve palsy due to compression and due to vascular cause

A
  • Compression pupil is dilated
  • Vascular cause pupil is spared
  • Both cause down and out and ptosis
217
Q

Describe how to differentiate parkinsonism from parkinsons disease

A
  • Parkinsons is asymmetrical
  • Parkinsons does not have dominant atypical features (autonomic, visual abnormalities)
  • Parkinsons responds to L-DOPA
218
Q

Describe hoffman sign

A
  • Flick middle fingernail, the thumb with flex and adduct involuntarily
219
Q

Describe management of generalised seizure

A

1st line sodium valproate

2nd line carbamazepine