Neuropsychology & Psychopharmacology Flashcards
(372 cards)
1
Q
The nervous system consists of the ________,
which includes the brain
and spinal cord, and the ________, which includes
the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
A
Central nervous system (CNS); peripheral nervous system (PNS)
1
Q
The nervous system consists of the ________,
which includes the brain
and spinal cord, and the ________, which includes
the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
A
Central nervous system (CNS); peripheral nervous system (PNS)
1
Q
The nervous system consists of the ________,
which includes the brain
and spinal cord, and the ________, which includes
the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
A
Central nervous system (CNS); peripheral nervous system (PNS)
2
Q
Regarding the PNS, the ________ controls the actions of skeletal muscles, is responsible for voluntary movement, and responds to signals from the 5 senses; the ________ regulates involuntary activity (e.g., heartbeat, breathing) and has 2 subdivisions- the sympathetic and parasympathetic.
A
Somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system
2
Q
Regarding the PNS, the ________ controls the actions of skeletal muscles, is responsible for voluntary movement, and responds to signals from the 5 senses; the ________ regulates involuntary activity (e.g., heartbeat, breathing) and has 2 subdivisions- the sympathetic and parasympathetic.
A
Somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system
2
Q
Regarding the PNS, the ________ controls the actions of skeletal muscles, is responsible for voluntary movement, and responds to signals from the 5 senses; the ________ regulates involuntary activity (e.g., heartbeat, breathing) and has 2 subdivisions- the sympathetic and parasympathetic.
A
Somatic nervous system; autonomic nervous system
3
Q
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes the body’s resources and prepares for “fight or flight,” while the ________ system deactivates the once active organs and is active during relaxation.
A
Sympathetic; parasympathetic
3
Q
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes the body’s resources and prepares for “fight or flight,” while the ________ system deactivates the once active organs and is active during relaxation.
A
Sympathetic; parasympathetic
3
Q
The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system mobilizes the body’s resources and prepares for “fight or flight,” while the ________ system deactivates the once active organs and is active during relaxation.
A
Sympathetic; parasympathetic
4
Q
This part of the CNS
is responsible for carrying information
between the brain and the PNS.
A
Spinal cord
4
Q
This part of the CNS
is responsible for carrying information
between the brain and the PNS.
A
Spinal cord
4
Q
This part of the CNS
is responsible for carrying information
between the brain and the PNS.
A
Spinal cord
5
Q
These are the information
processing units of the nervous system and are
made of 3 primary parts:
the cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon.
A
Neurons
5
Q
These are the information
processing units of the nervous system and are
made of 3 primary parts:
the cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon.
A
Neurons
5
Q
These are the information
processing units of the nervous system and are
made of 3 primary parts:
the cell body (soma), dendrites, and axon.
A
Neurons
6
Q
________ are short fibers at the end of a cell body that respond to stimulation from other neurons and carry this information toward the cell body, while the ________ is a single fiber that carries information away from the cell body.
A
Dendrites; axon
6
Q
________ are short fibers at the end of a cell body that respond to stimulation from other neurons and carry this information toward the cell body, while the ________ is a single fiber that carries information away from the cell body.
A
Dendrites; axon
6
Q
________ are short fibers at the end of a cell body that respond to stimulation from other neurons and carry this information toward the cell body, while the ________ is a single fiber that carries information away from the cell body.
A
Dendrites; axon
7
Q
The electrochemical process by which information is received and processed within a neuron, whereby a cell becomes electrically excited, “fires,” and creates a nerve impulse called an action potential is referred to as what?
A
Conduction
7
Q
The electrochemical process by which information is received and processed within a neuron, whereby a cell becomes electrically excited, “fires,” and creates a nerve impulse called an action potential is referred to as what?
A
Conduction
7
Q
The electrochemical process by which information is received and processed within a neuron, whereby a cell becomes electrically excited, “fires,” and creates a nerve impulse called an action potential is referred to as what?
A
Conduction
8
Q
The fact that, in any given neuron, the action potential is the same magnitude every time it occurs is referred to as the ________; basically, once the minimal threshold of electrical stimulation is reached, a neuron fires.
A
All-Or-None Law
8
Q
The fact that, in any given neuron, the action potential is the same magnitude every time it occurs is referred to as the ________; basically, once the minimal threshold of electrical stimulation is reached, a neuron fires.
A
All-Or-None Law
8
Q
The fact that, in any given neuron, the action potential is the same magnitude every time it occurs is referred to as the ________; basically, once the minimal threshold of electrical stimulation is reached, a neuron fires.
A
All-Or-None Law
9
True or False: Stronger
electrical stimulation generates more action potentials in a neuron and causes them to occur in a greater number of neurons?
True- though size and speed of an
| action potential are NOT related to stimulation intensity
9
True or False: Stronger
electrical stimulation generates more action potentials in a neuron and causes them to occur in a greater number of neurons?
True- though size and speed of an
| action potential are NOT related to stimulation intensity
9
True or False: Stronger
electrical stimulation generates more action potentials in a neuron and causes them to occur in a greater number of neurons?
True- though size and speed of an
| action potential are NOT related to stimulation intensity
10
What 2 factors have an affect
| on the speed of conduction?
Diameter of the axon and myelin sheath
10
What 2 factors have an affect
| on the speed of conduction?
Diameter of the axon and myelin sheath
10
What 2 factors have an affect
| on the speed of conduction?
Diameter of the axon and myelin sheath
11
What is the small
| space that separates individual neurons called?
Synapse (or synaptic cleft)
11
What is the small
| space that separates individual neurons called?
Synapse (or synaptic cleft)
11
What is the small
| space that separates individual neurons called?
Synapse (or synaptic cleft)
12
This term means "partial
paralysis" and is characterized by muscle
weakness without full paralysis; one cause is
less severe damage to the spinal cord.
Paresis
12
This term means "partial
paralysis" and is characterized by muscle
weakness without full paralysis; one cause is
less severe damage to the spinal cord.
Paresis
12
This term means "partial
paralysis" and is characterized by muscle
weakness without full paralysis; one cause is
less severe damage to the spinal cord.
Paresis
13
________ is when one half of a
person's body is paralyzed, ________ is when a person experiences loss of use of all limbs, and ________ is when the lower extremities of a person's body is paralyzed.
Hemiplegia;
| quadriplegia; paraplegia
13
________ is when one half of a
person's body is paralyzed, ________ is when a person experiences loss of use of all limbs, and ________ is when the lower extremities of a person's body is paralyzed.
Hemiplegia;
| quadriplegia; paraplegia
13
________ is when one half of a
person's body is paralyzed, ________ is when a person experiences loss of use of all limbs, and ________ is when the lower extremities of a person's body is paralyzed.
Hemiplegia;
| quadriplegia; paraplegia
14
What term refers to the process whereby
terminal buttons take up
and store excess
neurotransmitters for future use?
Reuptake
14
What term refers to the process whereby
terminal buttons take up
and store excess
neurotransmitters for future use?
Reuptake
14
What term refers to the process whereby
terminal buttons take up
and store excess
neurotransmitters for future use?
Reuptake
15
The breaking down of unused neurotransmitters into inactive metabolites that are eventually removed as waste is called what?
Enzymatic degradation
15
The breaking down of unused neurotransmitters into inactive metabolites that are eventually removed as waste is called what?
Enzymatic degradation
15
The breaking down of unused neurotransmitters into inactive metabolites that are eventually removed as waste is called what?
Enzymatic degradation
16
Neurotransmitters that have an ________ effect on post-synaptic cells increase the likelihood that an action potential will occur, while those with an ________ effect decrease the chances of an action potential occurring.
Excitatory; inhibitory
16
Neurotransmitters that have an ________ effect on post-synaptic cells increase the likelihood that an action potential will occur, while those with an ________ effect decrease the chances of an action potential occurring.
Excitatory; inhibitory
16
Neurotransmitters that have an ________ effect on post-synaptic cells increase the likelihood that an action potential will occur, while those with an ________ effect decrease the chances of an action potential occurring.
Excitatory; inhibitory
17
This neurotransmitter causes muscles to contract and is associated with impairments in voluntary movement; in the brain it is involved in learning/memory, with depletion of its receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occurring in Alzheimer's disease.
Acetylcholine (ACh)
17
This neurotransmitter causes muscles to contract and is associated with impairments in voluntary movement; in the brain it is involved in learning/memory, with depletion of its receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occurring in Alzheimer's disease.
Acetylcholine (ACh)
17
This neurotransmitter causes muscles to contract and is associated with impairments in voluntary movement; in the brain it is involved in learning/memory, with depletion of its receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occurring in Alzheimer's disease.
Acetylcholine (ACh)
18
What are neurons that secrete acetylcholine called?
Cholinergic neurons
18
What are neurons that secrete acetylcholine called?
Cholinergic neurons
18
What are neurons that secrete acetylcholine called?
Cholinergic neurons
19
What 3 neurotransmitters are grouped into the class referred to as catecholamines?
Norepinephrine
| (noradrenaline), epinephrine (adrenaline), and dopamine
19
What 3 neurotransmitters are grouped into the class referred to as catecholamines?
Norepinephrine
| (noradrenaline), epinephrine (adrenaline), and dopamine
19
What 3 neurotransmitters are grouped into the class referred to as catecholamines?
Norepinephrine
| (noradrenaline), epinephrine (adrenaline), and dopamine
20
Depleted levels of ________ and ________ at brain synapses is associate with some types of depression, while excessive levels are associated with ________.
Norepinephrine;
| dopamine; schizophrenia
20
Depleted levels of ________ and ________ at brain synapses is associate with some types of depression, while excessive levels are associated with ________.
Norepinephrine;
| dopamine; schizophrenia
20
Depleted levels of ________ and ________ at brain synapses is associate with some types of depression, while excessive levels are associated with ________.
Norepinephrine;
| dopamine; schizophrenia
21
With respect to movement,
excess dopamine or an increased sensitivity to
dopamine receptors is related
to ________, while degeneration of dopamine
secreting neurons is linked to the ________.
Tourette's syndrome; Parkinson's disease
21
With respect to movement,
excess dopamine or an increased sensitivity to
dopamine receptors is related
to ________, while degeneration of dopamine
secreting neurons is linked to the ________.
Tourette's syndrome; Parkinson's disease
21
With respect to movement,
excess dopamine or an increased sensitivity to
dopamine receptors is related
to ________, while degeneration of dopamine
secreting neurons is linked to the ________.
Tourette's syndrome; Parkinson's disease
22
A lack of this neurotransmitter is linked to depression, OCD, PTSD, and aggression, while high levels play a role in schizophrenia, anorexia, and autism.
Serotonin
22
A lack of this neurotransmitter is linked to depression, OCD, PTSD, and aggression, while high levels play a role in schizophrenia, anorexia, and autism.
Serotonin
22
A lack of this neurotransmitter is linked to depression, OCD, PTSD, and aggression, while high levels play a role in schizophrenia, anorexia, and autism.
Serotonin
23
The most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, low levels of ________ are associated with anxiety and Parkinson's disease, while deficits in the brains motor regions is associated with dementia and involuntary jerking of the arms and legs.
```
Gamma-Amino
Butyric Acid (GABA)
```
23
The most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, low levels of ________ are associated with anxiety and Parkinson's disease, while deficits in the brains motor regions is associated with dementia and involuntary jerking of the arms and legs.
```
Gamma-Amino
Butyric Acid (GABA)
```
23
The most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, low levels of ________ are associated with anxiety and Parkinson's disease, while deficits in the brains motor regions is associated with dementia and involuntary jerking of the arms and legs.
```
Gamma-Amino
Butyric Acid (GABA)
```
24
What primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is associated with learning, memory, and long-term potentiation (transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory)?
Glutamate
24
What primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is associated with learning, memory, and long-term potentiation (transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory)?
Glutamate
24
What primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is associated with learning, memory, and long-term potentiation (transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory)?
Glutamate
25
These neuromodulaters bind to
opiate receptor sites, reducing
activity in the thalamus and cerebral cortex, thereby inhibiting feelings of pain and increasing feelings of pleasure.
Endorphins
| endogenous morphine
25
These neuromodulaters bind to
opiate receptor sites, reducing
activity in the thalamus and cerebral cortex, thereby inhibiting feelings of pain and increasing feelings of pleasure.
Endorphins
| endogenous morphine
25
These neuromodulaters bind to
opiate receptor sites, reducing
activity in the thalamus and cerebral cortex, thereby inhibiting feelings of pain and increasing feelings of pleasure.
Endorphins
| endogenous morphine
26
This area of the brain consists of
| the brain stem and the cerebellum.
Hindbrain
26
This area of the brain consists of
| the brain stem and the cerebellum.
Hindbrain
26
This area of the brain consists of
| the brain stem and the cerebellum.
Hindbrain
27
What 2 parts of
| the brain are contained in the brain stem?
Medulla Oblongota and Pons
27
What 2 parts of
| the brain are contained in the brain stem?
Medulla Oblongota and Pons
27
What 2 parts of
| the brain are contained in the brain stem?
Medulla Oblongota and Pons
28
The ________ contains vital centers that control digestion, blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing; damage to it often leads to death.
Medulla Oblongota
28
The ________ contains vital centers that control digestion, blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing; damage to it often leads to death.
Medulla Oblongota
28
The ________ contains vital centers that control digestion, blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing; damage to it often leads to death.
Medulla Oblongota
29
Lying directly above the
| medulla and connecting the 2 sides of the cerebellum, the ________ helps in the regulation of arousal states.
Pons
29
Lying directly above the
| medulla and connecting the 2 sides of the cerebellum, the ________ helps in the regulation of arousal states.
Pons
29
Lying directly above the
| medulla and connecting the 2 sides of the cerebellum, the ________ helps in the regulation of arousal states.
Pons
30
What brain structure, sitting on top of the medulla and pons, is responsible for maintaining balance, coordinating movements, and controlling posture?
Cerebellum
30
What brain structure, sitting on top of the medulla and pons, is responsible for maintaining balance, coordinating movements, and controlling posture?
Cerebellum
30
What brain structure, sitting on top of the medulla and pons, is responsible for maintaining balance, coordinating movements, and controlling posture?
Cerebellum
31
This condition occurs
| with damage to the cerebellum and is characterized by slurred speech, severe tremors, and loss of balance.
Ataxia
31
This condition occurs
| with damage to the cerebellum and is characterized by slurred speech, severe tremors, and loss of balance.
Ataxia
31
This condition occurs
| with damage to the cerebellum and is characterized by slurred speech, severe tremors, and loss of balance.
Ataxia
32
This area of the brain
contains the substantia nigra and reticular formation; all information passing between the brain and the spinal cord passes through it.
Midbrain (aka mesencephalon)
32
This area of the brain
contains the substantia nigra and reticular formation; all information passing between the brain and the spinal cord passes through it.
Midbrain (aka mesencephalon)
32
This area of the brain
contains the substantia nigra and reticular formation; all information passing between the brain and the spinal cord passes through it.
Midbrain (aka mesencephalon)
33
Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of neurons in this brain structure.
Substantia Nigra
33
Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of neurons in this brain structure.
Substantia Nigra
33
Parkinson's disease results from degeneration of neurons in this brain structure.
Substantia Nigra
34
What brain structure plays a role in respiration and reflex control, pain and touch sensations, and sleep and arousal?
Reticular Formation
34
What brain structure plays a role in respiration and reflex control, pain and touch sensations, and sleep and arousal?
Reticular Formation
34
What brain structure plays a role in respiration and reflex control, pain and touch sensations, and sleep and arousal?
Reticular Formation
35
The ________ is crucial for
maintaining a waking state, arousal, and attention; neurons from it arouse the brain and facilitate information reception by appropriate neural structures.
Reticular Activating System
35
The ________ is crucial for
maintaining a waking state, arousal, and attention; neurons from it arouse the brain and facilitate information reception by appropriate neural structures.
Reticular Activating System
35
The ________ is crucial for
maintaining a waking state, arousal, and attention; neurons from it arouse the brain and facilitate information reception by appropriate neural structures.
Reticular Activating System
36
This area of the brain contains the hypothalamus, thalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, and cerebral cortex.
Forebrain
36
This area of the brain contains the hypothalamus, thalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, and cerebral cortex.
Forebrain
36
This area of the brain contains the hypothalamus, thalamus, basal ganglia, limbic system, and cerebral cortex.
Forebrain
37
The ________ is responsible for maintaining the body's
homeostasis (temperature, fluid
levels, metabolism, etc) and also plays a role in intentional
behaviors such as feeding, sex,
aggression, and maternal behavior.
Hypothalamus (remember 4 F's: Fight, Flight, Feed, Fornicate)
37
The ________ is responsible for maintaining the body's
homeostasis (temperature, fluid
levels, metabolism, etc) and also plays a role in intentional
behaviors such as feeding, sex,
aggression, and maternal behavior.
Hypothalamus (remember 4 F's: Fight, Flight, Feed, Fornicate)
37
The ________ is responsible for maintaining the body's
homeostasis (temperature, fluid
levels, metabolism, etc) and also plays a role in intentional
behaviors such as feeding, sex,
aggression, and maternal behavior.
Hypothalamus (remember 4 F's: Fight, Flight, Feed, Fornicate)
38
What brain structure relays incoming sensory information to the cortex for all senses but olfaction, is involved in language, memory, and motor activity, and regulates consciousness, sleep, and alertness?
Thalamus
38
What brain structure relays incoming sensory information to the cortex for all senses but olfaction, is involved in language, memory, and motor activity, and regulates consciousness, sleep, and alertness?
Thalamus
38
What brain structure relays incoming sensory information to the cortex for all senses but olfaction, is involved in language, memory, and motor activity, and regulates consciousness, sleep, and alertness?
Thalamus
39
The ________ code and relay information related to control of voluntary movement, sensorimotor learning, and motoric expressions of emotion; abnormalities in it are linked with Tourette's, Parkinson's and Huntington's disease, depression, mania, OCD, and psychosis.
Basal Ganglia
39
The ________ code and relay information related to control of voluntary movement, sensorimotor learning, and motoric expressions of emotion; abnormalities in it are linked with Tourette's, Parkinson's and Huntington's disease, depression, mania, OCD, and psychosis.
Basal Ganglia
39
The ________ code and relay information related to control of voluntary movement, sensorimotor learning, and motoric expressions of emotion; abnormalities in it are linked with Tourette's, Parkinson's and Huntington's disease, depression, mania, OCD, and psychosis.
Basal Ganglia
40
```
This consists of a group of
brain structures (amygdala, septum, hippocampus) that work together to mediate the emotional component of behavior.
```
Limbic System
40
```
This consists of a group of
brain structures (amygdala, septum, hippocampus) that work together to mediate the emotional component of behavior.
```
Limbic System
40
```
This consists of a group of
brain structures (amygdala, septum, hippocampus) that work together to mediate the emotional component of behavior.
```
Limbic System
41
This limbic system structure
plays a role in the processing
and memory of emotional reactions and mediates
defensive/aggressive behavior;
lesions in it produce Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.
Amygdala
41
This limbic system structure
plays a role in the processing
and memory of emotional reactions and mediates
defensive/aggressive behavior;
lesions in it produce Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.
Amygdala
41
This limbic system structure
plays a role in the processing
and memory of emotional reactions and mediates
defensive/aggressive behavior;
lesions in it produce Kluver-Bucy Syndrome.
Amygdala
42
The ________ serves to inhibit emotionality; in rats, lesions produce hyper-emotionality and rage, while electrical stimulation is extremely pleasurable.
Septum
42
The ________ serves to inhibit emotionality; in rats, lesions produce hyper-emotionality and rage, while electrical stimulation is extremely pleasurable.
Septum
42
The ________ serves to inhibit emotionality; in rats, lesions produce hyper-emotionality and rage, while electrical stimulation is extremely pleasurable.
Septum
43
This limbic system structure is involved in learning and memory, particularly transferring new information from short-term to long-term memory; damage to this area can cause anterograde amnesia.
Hippocampus
43
This limbic system structure is involved in learning and memory, particularly transferring new information from short-term to long-term memory; damage to this area can cause anterograde amnesia.
Hippocampus
43
This limbic system structure is involved in learning and memory, particularly transferring new information from short-term to long-term memory; damage to this area can cause anterograde amnesia.
Hippocampus
44
This is the last part of the
brain to stop growing and undergoes more structural
change following birth than
any other part of the central nervous system.
Cerebral cortex
44
This is the last part of the
brain to stop growing and undergoes more structural
change following birth than
any other part of the central nervous system.
Cerebral cortex
44
This is the last part of the
brain to stop growing and undergoes more structural
change following birth than
any other part of the central nervous system.
Cerebral cortex
45
What term refers to the fact that the left hemisphere of the brain controls functions on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls functions on the left side of the body?
Contralateral representation
45
What term refers to the fact that the left hemisphere of the brain controls functions on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls functions on the left side of the body?
Contralateral representation
45
What term refers to the fact that the left hemisphere of the brain controls functions on the right side of the body, while the right hemisphere controls functions on the left side of the body?
Contralateral representation
46
What are the 4
lobes of the
cerebral cortex?
Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
46
What are the 4
lobes of the
cerebral cortex?
Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
46
What are the 4
lobes of the
cerebral cortex?
Frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
47
The ________ is involved in motor behavior, executive functions, expressive language, and orientation to person, place, and time; it consists of the primary motor, premotor, and prefrontal cortex.
The frontal lobe
47
The ________ is involved in motor behavior, executive functions, expressive language, and orientation to person, place, and time; it consists of the primary motor, premotor, and prefrontal cortex.
The frontal lobe
47
The ________ is involved in motor behavior, executive functions, expressive language, and orientation to person, place, and time; it consists of the primary motor, premotor, and prefrontal cortex.
The frontal lobe
48
Damage to a specific area of the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe
can produce ________, which is characterized by a severe
deficiency in expressive language
(e.g., speech is slow and poorly
articulated, very few words are used).
Broca's aphasia (aka expressive aphasia)
48
Damage to a specific area of the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe
can produce ________, which is characterized by a severe
deficiency in expressive language
(e.g., speech is slow and poorly
articulated, very few words are used).
Broca's aphasia (aka expressive aphasia)
48
Damage to a specific area of the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe
can produce ________, which is characterized by a severe
deficiency in expressive language
(e.g., speech is slow and poorly
articulated, very few words are used).
Broca's aphasia (aka expressive aphasia)
49
```
Damage to this area of the
frontal lobe usually results in decreased motivation,
difficulty making decisions,
deficient self-awareness,
poor social control, and perseveration.
```
Prefrontal cortex
49
```
Damage to this area of the
frontal lobe usually results in decreased motivation,
difficulty making decisions,
deficient self-awareness,
poor social control, and perseveration.
```
Prefrontal cortex
49
```
Damage to this area of the
frontal lobe usually results in decreased motivation,
difficulty making decisions,
deficient self-awareness,
poor social control, and perseveration.
```
Prefrontal cortex
50
What lobe of the brain contains the primary
auditory cortex and is associated with
memory, emotion, and receptive language?
The temporal lobe
50
What lobe of the brain contains the primary
auditory cortex and is associated with
memory, emotion, and receptive language?
The temporal lobe
50
What lobe of the brain contains the primary
auditory cortex and is associated with
memory, emotion, and receptive language?
The temporal lobe
51
Caused by damage to particular area of the temporal lobe, ________ is characterized by severe deficits in language comprehension; speech is usually normal sounding but does not make sense and familiar objects are unable to be named (dysnomia).
Wernicke's aphasia (aka fluent or receptive aphasia)
51
Caused by damage to particular area of the temporal lobe, ________ is characterized by severe deficits in language comprehension; speech is usually normal sounding but does not make sense and familiar objects are unable to be named (dysnomia).
Wernicke's aphasia (aka fluent or receptive aphasia)
51
Caused by damage to particular area of the temporal lobe, ________ is characterized by severe deficits in language comprehension; speech is usually normal sounding but does not make sense and familiar objects are unable to be named (dysnomia).
Wernicke's aphasia (aka fluent or receptive aphasia)
52
This lobe of the brain integrates sensory information from different modalities, particularly determining spatial sense and navigation.
The parietal lobe
52
This lobe of the brain integrates sensory information from different modalities, particularly determining spatial sense and navigation.
The parietal lobe
52
This lobe of the brain integrates sensory information from different modalities, particularly determining spatial sense and navigation.
The parietal lobe
53
Parietal lobe damage can lead
to ________, or the inability to
identify objects by touch, _______, or the inability to make intentional movement despite normal motor function, and/or ________, or the inability to read/write.
Agnosia;
| apraxia; agraphia
53
Parietal lobe damage can lead
to ________, or the inability to
identify objects by touch, _______, or the inability to make intentional movement despite normal motor function, and/or ________, or the inability to read/write.
Agnosia;
| apraxia; agraphia
53
Parietal lobe damage can lead
to ________, or the inability to
identify objects by touch, _______, or the inability to make intentional movement despite normal motor function, and/or ________, or the inability to read/write.
Agnosia;
| apraxia; agraphia
54
This part of the brain contains the visual cortex; damage can lead to ________, or the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight.
The occipital lobe; visual agnosia
54
This part of the brain contains the visual cortex; damage can lead to ________, or the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight.
The occipital lobe; visual agnosia
54
This part of the brain contains the visual cortex; damage can lead to ________, or the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight.
The occipital lobe; visual agnosia
55
What term is used to describe the fact that some higher level cortical functions are controlled more by either the left or right hemisphere of the brain?
Lateralization of function
55
What term is used to describe the fact that some higher level cortical functions are controlled more by either the left or right hemisphere of the brain?
Lateralization of function
55
What term is used to describe the fact that some higher level cortical functions are controlled more by either the left or right hemisphere of the brain?
Lateralization of function
56
The ________ is a bundle of fibers that enable communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain.
Corpus callosum
56
The ________ is a bundle of fibers that enable communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain.
Corpus callosum
56
The ________ is a bundle of fibers that enable communication between the left and right hemispheres of the brain.
Corpus callosum
57
In general, the ________ hemisphere is associated with creativity, understanding spatial relations, emotional expression, and facial recognition while the ________ hemisphere is involved with analytical thinking, logic, and language (written and spoken).
Right; left
57
In general, the ________ hemisphere is associated with creativity, understanding spatial relations, emotional expression, and facial recognition while the ________ hemisphere is involved with analytical thinking, logic, and language (written and spoken).
Right; left
57
In general, the ________ hemisphere is associated with creativity, understanding spatial relations, emotional expression, and facial recognition while the ________ hemisphere is involved with analytical thinking, logic, and language (written and spoken).
Right; left
58
What theory of emotion posits that emotions occur as the result of one's perception of physiological changes occurring in response to environmental stimuli (e.g., "I am trembling so I must be afraid," "I am crying so I must be sad")?
James-Lange Theory
58
What theory of emotion posits that emotions occur as the result of one's perception of physiological changes occurring in response to environmental stimuli (e.g., "I am trembling so I must be afraid," "I am crying so I must be sad")?
James-Lange Theory
58
What theory of emotion posits that emotions occur as the result of one's perception of physiological changes occurring in response to environmental stimuli (e.g., "I am trembling so I must be afraid," "I am crying so I must be sad")?
James-Lange Theory
59
The ________ theory of emotion suggests emotions and physiological
changes (e.g., muscle tension, sweating)
are experienced simultaneously; it is
predicted that the thalamus and cortex
are stimulated at the same time, producing simultaneous arousal of the sympathetic nervous system and emotional feeling.
Cannon-Bard
59
The ________ theory of emotion suggests emotions and physiological
changes (e.g., muscle tension, sweating)
are experienced simultaneously; it is
predicted that the thalamus and cortex
are stimulated at the same time, producing simultaneous arousal of the sympathetic nervous system and emotional feeling.
Cannon-Bard
59
The ________ theory of emotion suggests emotions and physiological
changes (e.g., muscle tension, sweating)
are experienced simultaneously; it is
predicted that the thalamus and cortex
are stimulated at the same time, producing simultaneous arousal of the sympathetic nervous system and emotional feeling.
Cannon-Bard
60
This theory of emotion, based on research by Schachter and Singer,
posits that most emotional states
produce similar physical sensations, while the specific emotion experienced is a product of one's attribution for the cause of those sensations.
Cognitive-Arousal Theory (aka Two-Factor Theory)
60
This theory of emotion, based on research by Schachter and Singer,
posits that most emotional states
produce similar physical sensations, while the specific emotion experienced is a product of one's attribution for the cause of those sensations.
Cognitive-Arousal Theory (aka Two-Factor Theory)
60
This theory of emotion, based on research by Schachter and Singer,
posits that most emotional states
produce similar physical sensations, while the specific emotion experienced is a product of one's attribution for the cause of those sensations.
Cognitive-Arousal Theory (aka Two-Factor Theory)
61
What are the 6 "basic emotions" accepted as being universally experienced by all humans?
Fear, anger, joy, sadness, surprise, and disgust
61
What are the 6 "basic emotions" accepted as being universally experienced by all humans?
Fear, anger, joy, sadness, surprise, and disgust
61
What are the 6 "basic emotions" accepted as being universally experienced by all humans?
Fear, anger, joy, sadness, surprise, and disgust
62
The ________, proposed by Schachter, Stunkard, and Rodin, suggests that obese people overeat because they are inherently more sensitive to certain external cues than internal cues (e.g., eat because food tastes good despite satiety).
Externality hypothesis
62
The ________, proposed by Schachter, Stunkard, and Rodin, suggests that obese people overeat because they are inherently more sensitive to certain external cues than internal cues (e.g., eat because food tastes good despite satiety).
Externality hypothesis
62
The ________, proposed by Schachter, Stunkard, and Rodin, suggests that obese people overeat because they are inherently more sensitive to certain external cues than internal cues (e.g., eat because food tastes good despite satiety).
Externality hypothesis
63
Regarding human
| sexual behavior, what are the 2 primary sources of sex hormone?
Pituitary gland and gonads (ovaries/testes)
63
Regarding human
| sexual behavior, what are the 2 primary sources of sex hormone?
Pituitary gland and gonads (ovaries/testes)
63
Regarding human
| sexual behavior, what are the 2 primary sources of sex hormone?
Pituitary gland and gonads (ovaries/testes)
64
Of the 2 hormones produced by the gonads, ________, which include testosterone, are involved in sexual interest and cause the development of secondary sex characteristics in males; _______ and ________ are found primarily in women and are necessary for healthy reproductive function.
Androgens; estrogens; progesterone
64
Of the 2 hormones produced by the gonads, ________, which include testosterone, are involved in sexual interest and cause the development of secondary sex characteristics in males; _______ and ________ are found primarily in women and are necessary for healthy reproductive function.
Androgens; estrogens; progesterone
64
Of the 2 hormones produced by the gonads, ________, which include testosterone, are involved in sexual interest and cause the development of secondary sex characteristics in males; _______ and ________ are found primarily in women and are necessary for healthy reproductive function.
Androgens; estrogens; progesterone
65
What occurs in women as a result of a drop in estrogen,
progesterone, and testosterone
and is characterized by hot flashes, insomnia, mood
swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal changes?
Menopause
65
What occurs in women as a result of a drop in estrogen,
progesterone, and testosterone
and is characterized by hot flashes, insomnia, mood
swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal changes?
Menopause
65
What occurs in women as a result of a drop in estrogen,
progesterone, and testosterone
and is characterized by hot flashes, insomnia, mood
swings, urinary incontinence, and vaginal changes?
Menopause
66
Research has shown that low desire for sex in
women seems to be correlated more with a
lack of ________ rather than ________.
Androgens; estrogens
66
Research has shown that low desire for sex in
women seems to be correlated more with a
lack of ________ rather than ________.
Androgens; estrogens
66
Research has shown that low desire for sex in
women seems to be correlated more with a
lack of ________ rather than ________.
Androgens; estrogens
67
In terms of sexual function, a man who is paralyzed from the waist down would most likely be able to what?
Attain an erection but not ejaculate
67
In terms of sexual function, a man who is paralyzed from the waist down would most likely be able to what?
Attain an erection but not ejaculate
67
In terms of sexual function, a man who is paralyzed from the waist down would most likely be able to what?
Attain an erection but not ejaculate
68
During periods of relaxed wakefulness, ________
| waves are typically found on an EEG, while ________ waves are more predominant during active, alert states.
Alpha; beta
68
During periods of relaxed wakefulness, ________
| waves are typically found on an EEG, while ________ waves are more predominant during active, alert states.
Alpha; beta
68
During periods of relaxed wakefulness, ________
| waves are typically found on an EEG, while ________ waves are more predominant during active, alert states.
Alpha; beta
69
```
During this period of sleep,
paradoxically, EEG activity
is typical of an aroused nervous system, while the
person's responsiveness
to the environment is very low.
```
REM (rapid
| eye movement)
69
```
During this period of sleep,
paradoxically, EEG activity
is typical of an aroused nervous system, while the
person's responsiveness
to the environment is very low.
```
REM (rapid
| eye movement)
69
```
During this period of sleep,
paradoxically, EEG activity
is typical of an aroused nervous system, while the
person's responsiveness
to the environment is very low.
```
REM (rapid
| eye movement)
70
True or False:
Dreaming only
occurs during REM sleep?
False- research suggests that dreaming occurs in non-REM sleep, though REM dreams are more vivid, emotionally-laden, and more likely to be remembered
70
True or False:
Dreaming only
occurs during REM sleep?
False- research suggests that dreaming occurs in non-REM sleep, though REM dreams are more vivid, emotionally-laden, and more likely to be remembered
70
True or False:
Dreaming only
occurs during REM sleep?
False- research suggests that dreaming occurs in non-REM sleep, though REM dreams are more vivid, emotionally-laden, and more likely to be remembered
71
As people age, the total
amount of sleep time ________ and the
proportion of non-REM to REM sleep ________.
Decreases; increases
71
As people age, the total
amount of sleep time ________ and the
proportion of non-REM to REM sleep ________.
Decreases; increases
71
As people age, the total
amount of sleep time ________ and the
proportion of non-REM to REM sleep ________.
Decreases; increases
72
This term refers to the strengthening of the connection between 2 nerve cells in the hippocampus that lasts for an extended period of time; it is commonly regarded as the cellular basis of memory.
Long-term potentiation
72
This term refers to the strengthening of the connection between 2 nerve cells in the hippocampus that lasts for an extended period of time; it is commonly regarded as the cellular basis of memory.
Long-term potentiation
72
This term refers to the strengthening of the connection between 2 nerve cells in the hippocampus that lasts for an extended period of time; it is commonly regarded as the cellular basis of memory.
Long-term potentiation
73
True or False:
| Research has suggested that RNA may play a role in memory?
```
True- untrained organisms
injected with RNA from
trained organisms learned
conditioned responses
more quickly than control organisms
```
73
True or False:
| Research has suggested that RNA may play a role in memory?
```
True- untrained organisms
injected with RNA from
trained organisms learned
conditioned responses
more quickly than control organisms
```
73
True or False:
| Research has suggested that RNA may play a role in memory?
```
True- untrained organisms
injected with RNA from
trained organisms learned
conditioned responses
more quickly than control organisms
```
74
What bodily system is made up of ductless, hormone secreting glands that travel through the blood to influence organ function?
The endocrine system
74
What bodily system is made up of ductless, hormone secreting glands that travel through the blood to influence organ function?
The endocrine system
74
What bodily system is made up of ductless, hormone secreting glands that travel through the blood to influence organ function?
The endocrine system
75
Referred to as the "master gland," the ________ secretes hormones that act directly on organs (e.g., growth hormone, antidiuretic hormone) as well as hormones that influence the secretions of other glands.
Pituitary gland
75
Referred to as the "master gland," the ________ secretes hormones that act directly on organs (e.g., growth hormone, antidiuretic hormone) as well as hormones that influence the secretions of other glands.
Pituitary gland
75
Referred to as the "master gland," the ________ secretes hormones that act directly on organs (e.g., growth hormone, antidiuretic hormone) as well as hormones that influence the secretions of other glands.
Pituitary gland
76
What hormone stimulates growth by acting on the epiphyseal plates at the ends of bones and, when over-secreted or under-secreted, can lead to giantism or dwarfism, respectively?
Growth hormone (aka somatotropic hormone)
76
What hormone stimulates growth by acting on the epiphyseal plates at the ends of bones and, when over-secreted or under-secreted, can lead to giantism or dwarfism, respectively?
Growth hormone (aka somatotropic hormone)
76
What hormone stimulates growth by acting on the epiphyseal plates at the ends of bones and, when over-secreted or under-secreted, can lead to giantism or dwarfism, respectively?
Growth hormone (aka somatotropic hormone)
77
When necessary bodily fluids are low, this hormone inhibits urination; diabetes insipidus (excessive water loss) is the result of under-secretion of this hormone.
Antidiuretic hormone
77
When necessary bodily fluids are low, this hormone inhibits urination; diabetes insipidus (excessive water loss) is the result of under-secretion of this hormone.
Antidiuretic hormone
77
When necessary bodily fluids are low, this hormone inhibits urination; diabetes insipidus (excessive water loss) is the result of under-secretion of this hormone.
Antidiuretic hormone
78
The pituitary gland releases ________ hormone, influencing the release of ________, which stimulates the liver to convert energy stores into glucose.
Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH); cortisol
78
The pituitary gland releases ________ hormone, influencing the release of ________, which stimulates the liver to convert energy stores into glucose.
Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH); cortisol
78
The pituitary gland releases ________ hormone, influencing the release of ________, which stimulates the liver to convert energy stores into glucose.
Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH); cortisol
79
Under-secretion of ACTH causes ________, which is characterized by fatigue, appetite loss, depression, and fainting spells; over-secretion leads to ________, which is characterized by obesity, memory loss, depression, mood swings, and somatic delusions.
Addison's Disease; Cushing's Disease
79
Under-secretion of ACTH causes ________, which is characterized by fatigue, appetite loss, depression, and fainting spells; over-secretion leads to ________, which is characterized by obesity, memory loss, depression, mood swings, and somatic delusions.
Addison's Disease; Cushing's Disease
79
Under-secretion of ACTH causes ________, which is characterized by fatigue, appetite loss, depression, and fainting spells; over-secretion leads to ________, which is characterized by obesity, memory loss, depression, mood swings, and somatic delusions.
Addison's Disease; Cushing's Disease
80
What is true about a person's cortisol levels throughout a single day?
They typically peak early in the day and fall in the evening
80
What is true about a person's cortisol levels throughout a single day?
They typically peak early in the day and fall in the evening
80
What is true about a person's cortisol levels throughout a single day?
They typically peak early in the day and fall in the evening
81
What gland controls
metabolism through
its release of the hormone thyroxin?
Thyroid gland
81
What gland controls
metabolism through
its release of the hormone thyroxin?
Thyroid gland
81
What gland controls
metabolism through
its release of the hormone thyroxin?
Thyroid gland
82
________ involves slowed metabolism, reduced appetite, weight gain, decreased heart rate and body temp, low libido, depression, and impaired cognitive processes (e.g., concentration, memory); symptoms of ________ include high body temp, increased metabolism, increased appetite, weight loss, nervousness, agitation, fatigue, insomnia, mania, and decreased capacity for attention.
Hypothyroidism; Hyperthyroidism (Grave's Disease)
82
________ involves slowed metabolism, reduced appetite, weight gain, decreased heart rate and body temp, low libido, depression, and impaired cognitive processes (e.g., concentration, memory); symptoms of ________ include high body temp, increased metabolism, increased appetite, weight loss, nervousness, agitation, fatigue, insomnia, mania, and decreased capacity for attention.
Hypothyroidism; Hyperthyroidism (Grave's Disease)
82
________ involves slowed metabolism, reduced appetite, weight gain, decreased heart rate and body temp, low libido, depression, and impaired cognitive processes (e.g., concentration, memory); symptoms of ________ include high body temp, increased metabolism, increased appetite, weight loss, nervousness, agitation, fatigue, insomnia, mania, and decreased capacity for attention.
Hypothyroidism; Hyperthyroidism (Grave's Disease)
83
The pancreas releases ________, which functions to help the body absorb and make use of glucose and amino acids; the body's inability to produce it causes ________, while over-production leads to ________.
Insulin; diabetes mellitus; hypoglycemia
83
The pancreas releases ________, which functions to help the body absorb and make use of glucose and amino acids; the body's inability to produce it causes ________, while over-production leads to ________.
Insulin; diabetes mellitus; hypoglycemia
83
The pancreas releases ________, which functions to help the body absorb and make use of glucose and amino acids; the body's inability to produce it causes ________, while over-production leads to ________.
Insulin; diabetes mellitus; hypoglycemia
84
Of the 2 kinds of receptors in the eye, ________ are sensitive only to brightness levels and are specifically adapted to sense stimuli in low levels of light, while ________ are responsible for seeing color and function only in brighter environments.
Rods; cones
84
Of the 2 kinds of receptors in the eye, ________ are sensitive only to brightness levels and are specifically adapted to sense stimuli in low levels of light, while ________ are responsible for seeing color and function only in brighter environments.
Rods; cones
84
Of the 2 kinds of receptors in the eye, ________ are sensitive only to brightness levels and are specifically adapted to sense stimuli in low levels of light, while ________ are responsible for seeing color and function only in brighter environments.
Rods; cones
85
True or False: Information seen with the right eye travels only to the left hemisphere of the brain, and vice versa?
False- It travels to both hemispheres, as both eyes receive info from the left and right visual field; however, information from one visual field is transmitted only to the opposite hemisphere
85
True or False: Information seen with the right eye travels only to the left hemisphere of the brain, and vice versa?
False- It travels to both hemispheres, as both eyes receive info from the left and right visual field; however, information from one visual field is transmitted only to the opposite hemisphere
85
True or False: Information seen with the right eye travels only to the left hemisphere of the brain, and vice versa?
False- It travels to both hemispheres, as both eyes receive info from the left and right visual field; however, information from one visual field is transmitted only to the opposite hemisphere
86
The ability to orient oneself toward the direction of a sound, indicated by the turning of one's head toward the sound, is referred to as what?
Auditory localization
86
The ability to orient oneself toward the direction of a sound, indicated by the turning of one's head toward the sound, is referred to as what?
Auditory localization
86
The ability to orient oneself toward the direction of a sound, indicated by the turning of one's head toward the sound, is referred to as what?
Auditory localization
87
True or False: Depressive disorders and alcohol dependence are more common in the first-degree relatives of people with chronic pain?
True- this suggests
an environmental
or genetic predisposition for developing pain
87
True or False: Depressive disorders and alcohol dependence are more common in the first-degree relatives of people with chronic pain?
True- this suggests
an environmental
or genetic predisposition for developing pain
87
True or False: Depressive disorders and alcohol dependence are more common in the first-degree relatives of people with chronic pain?
True- this suggests
an environmental
or genetic predisposition for developing pain
88
According to this theory of pain, activation of nerves that do not transmit pain signals can interfere with signals from pain fibers and inhibit one's perception of pain (e.g., massaging sore muscles = afferent, engaging in distracting mental activities = efferent).
Gate-Control Theory
88
According to this theory of pain, activation of nerves that do not transmit pain signals can interfere with signals from pain fibers and inhibit one's perception of pain (e.g., massaging sore muscles = afferent, engaging in distracting mental activities = efferent).
Gate-Control Theory
88
According to this theory of pain, activation of nerves that do not transmit pain signals can interfere with signals from pain fibers and inhibit one's perception of pain (e.g., massaging sore muscles = afferent, engaging in distracting mental activities = efferent).
Gate-Control Theory
89
What sense is considered the
most primitive (phylogenetically
lowest) due to the fact that information received by it is not
relayed from the thalamus to
the cortex, but runs directly to the limbic system?
Smell (olfaction)
89
What sense is considered the
most primitive (phylogenetically
lowest) due to the fact that information received by it is not
relayed from the thalamus to
the cortex, but runs directly to the limbic system?
Smell (olfaction)
89
What sense is considered the
most primitive (phylogenetically
lowest) due to the fact that information received by it is not
relayed from the thalamus to
the cortex, but runs directly to the limbic system?
Smell (olfaction)
90
This term refers to the study of the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations (subjective correlates; percepts).
Psychophysics
90
This term refers to the study of the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations (subjective correlates; percepts).
Psychophysics
90
This term refers to the study of the relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and psychological sensations (subjective correlates; percepts).
Psychophysics
91
According to psychophysics, the level of intensity of a stimulus at which a subject is able to detect the presence of the stimulus some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., the softest a sound can be and still be heard) is referred to as what?
Absolute threshold (aka detection threshold)
91
According to psychophysics, the level of intensity of a stimulus at which a subject is able to detect the presence of the stimulus some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., the softest a sound can be and still be heard) is referred to as what?
Absolute threshold (aka detection threshold)
91
According to psychophysics, the level of intensity of a stimulus at which a subject is able to detect the presence of the stimulus some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., the softest a sound can be and still be heard) is referred to as what?
Absolute threshold (aka detection threshold)
92
What psychophysics term refers to the magnitude of the difference between 2 stimuli of differing intensities that a subject is able to detect some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., differences in small changes in weight of an item)?
Difference threshold (aka just noticeable difference)
92
What psychophysics term refers to the magnitude of the difference between 2 stimuli of differing intensities that a subject is able to detect some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., differences in small changes in weight of an item)?
Difference threshold (aka just noticeable difference)
92
What psychophysics term refers to the magnitude of the difference between 2 stimuli of differing intensities that a subject is able to detect some proportion (usually 50%) of the time (e.g., differences in small changes in weight of an item)?
Difference threshold (aka just noticeable difference)
93

While Fechner's law of psychophysics states that changes in the magnitude of a physical stimulus are logarithmically related to changes in physical sensations, Stevens' ________ proposes there is an exponential relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and internal sensations, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.
Power law
93

While Fechner's law of psychophysics states that changes in the magnitude of a physical stimulus are logarithmically related to changes in physical sensations, Stevens' ________ proposes there is an exponential relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and internal sensations, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.
Power law
93

While Fechner's law of psychophysics states that changes in the magnitude of a physical stimulus are logarithmically related to changes in physical sensations, Stevens' ________ proposes there is an exponential relationship between the magnitude of physical stimuli and internal sensations, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.
Power law
94
________ brain imaging techniques include Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT or CT scan) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), which take a series of images at different levels of the brain providing direct visualization of structures and features.
Structural
94
________ brain imaging techniques include Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT or CT scan) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), which take a series of images at different levels of the brain providing direct visualization of structures and features.
Structural
94
________ brain imaging techniques include Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT or CT scan) and Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI), which take a series of images at different levels of the brain providing direct visualization of structures and features.
Structural
95
Regarding structural brain imaging techniques, ________ measures density
of brain tissue and is helpful in identifying
tumors, blood clots, tissue damage, and
multiple sclerosis, while ________ provides 3D images with more precise
detail, does not require the use of x-rays, and is useful in examining the central nervous system.
CT scan; MRI
95
Regarding structural brain imaging techniques, ________ measures density
of brain tissue and is helpful in identifying
tumors, blood clots, tissue damage, and
multiple sclerosis, while ________ provides 3D images with more precise
detail, does not require the use of x-rays, and is useful in examining the central nervous system.
CT scan; MRI
95
Regarding structural brain imaging techniques, ________ measures density
of brain tissue and is helpful in identifying
tumors, blood clots, tissue damage, and
multiple sclerosis, while ________ provides 3D images with more precise
detail, does not require the use of x-rays, and is useful in examining the central nervous system.
CT scan; MRI
96
```
What types of brain
imaging techniques include Positron Emission
Tomography (PET) and
single photon emission
computed tomography (SPECT).
```
Functional techniques
96
```
What types of brain
imaging techniques include Positron Emission
Tomography (PET) and
single photon emission
computed tomography (SPECT).
```
Functional techniques
96
```
What types of brain
imaging techniques include Positron Emission
Tomography (PET) and
single photon emission
computed tomography (SPECT).
```
Functional techniques
97
This functional brain imaging technique uses small amounts of injected radioactive material to measure regional cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, or oxygen consumption; it is useful for identifying brain dysfunction due to stroke, epilepsy, tumor, and other conditions.
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
97
This functional brain imaging technique uses small amounts of injected radioactive material to measure regional cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, or oxygen consumption; it is useful for identifying brain dysfunction due to stroke, epilepsy, tumor, and other conditions.
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
97
This functional brain imaging technique uses small amounts of injected radioactive material to measure regional cerebral blood flow, glucose metabolism, or oxygen consumption; it is useful for identifying brain dysfunction due to stroke, epilepsy, tumor, and other conditions.
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
98
Regarding focal brain syndromes, ________
refers to impaired ability to produce or comprehend written or spoken language, ________ refers to impaired reading abilities, ________ involves impaired ability to execute learned purposeful movements, ________ is the inability to recognize familiar objects in the absence of a primary sensory system disturbance, and ________ is the inability (or unwillingness) to acknowledge one's own functional impairment.
Aphasia;
alexia; apraxia;
agnosia; anosognosia
98
Regarding focal brain syndromes, ________
refers to impaired ability to produce or comprehend written or spoken language, ________ refers to impaired reading abilities, ________ involves impaired ability to execute learned purposeful movements, ________ is the inability to recognize familiar objects in the absence of a primary sensory system disturbance, and ________ is the inability (or unwillingness) to acknowledge one's own functional impairment.
Aphasia;
alexia; apraxia;
agnosia; anosognosia
98
Regarding focal brain syndromes, ________
refers to impaired ability to produce or comprehend written or spoken language, ________ refers to impaired reading abilities, ________ involves impaired ability to execute learned purposeful movements, ________ is the inability to recognize familiar objects in the absence of a primary sensory system disturbance, and ________ is the inability (or unwillingness) to acknowledge one's own functional impairment.
Aphasia;
alexia; apraxia;
agnosia; anosognosia
99
Often mistaken for aphasia, what condition involves problems in articulation due to lesions or disease that disrupt the control of speech (e.g., Parkinson's disease, Huntington's chorea, and multiple sclerosis)?
Dysarthria
99
Often mistaken for aphasia, what condition involves problems in articulation due to lesions or disease that disrupt the control of speech (e.g., Parkinson's disease, Huntington's chorea, and multiple sclerosis)?
Dysarthria
99
Often mistaken for aphasia, what condition involves problems in articulation due to lesions or disease that disrupt the control of speech (e.g., Parkinson's disease, Huntington's chorea, and multiple sclerosis)?
Dysarthria
100
A person with ________ apraxia cannot respond to commands requiring particular movement (e.g., pick up a fork) but may be able to do so spontaneously, while those with ________ apraxia cannot draw or copy simple figures or arrange blocks in a pattern.
Ideomotor; constructional
100
A person with ________ apraxia cannot respond to commands requiring particular movement (e.g., pick up a fork) but may be able to do so spontaneously, while those with ________ apraxia cannot draw or copy simple figures or arrange blocks in a pattern.
Ideomotor; constructional
100
A person with ________ apraxia cannot respond to commands requiring particular movement (e.g., pick up a fork) but may be able to do so spontaneously, while those with ________ apraxia cannot draw or copy simple figures or arrange blocks in a pattern.
Ideomotor; constructional
101
A person with this type of visual agnosia is unable to recognize objects by sight but can identify them by touch.
Aperceptive agnosia
101
A person with this type of visual agnosia is unable to recognize objects by sight but can identify them by touch.
Aperceptive agnosia
101
A person with this type of visual agnosia is unable to recognize objects by sight but can identify them by touch.
Aperceptive agnosia
102
A person who is unable to
recognize familiar faces, though maintains the capacity to recognize other objects, and can identify others by the sound of their voice, style of dress, or other characteristics likely has this type of agnosia.
Prosopagnosia
102
A person who is unable to
recognize familiar faces, though maintains the capacity to recognize other objects, and can identify others by the sound of their voice, style of dress, or other characteristics likely has this type of agnosia.
Prosopagnosia
102
A person who is unable to
recognize familiar faces, though maintains the capacity to recognize other objects, and can identify others by the sound of their voice, style of dress, or other characteristics likely has this type of agnosia.
Prosopagnosia
103
A person who begins experiencing dull headaches, seizures, nausea and projectile vomiting, changes in vision and hearing, and/or other focal neurological signs (e.g., localized sensory loss, paresthesias, ataxia) is exhibiting symptoms of what?
Brain tumor
103
A person who begins experiencing dull headaches, seizures, nausea and projectile vomiting, changes in vision and hearing, and/or other focal neurological signs (e.g., localized sensory loss, paresthesias, ataxia) is exhibiting symptoms of what?
Brain tumor
103
A person who begins experiencing dull headaches, seizures, nausea and projectile vomiting, changes in vision and hearing, and/or other focal neurological signs (e.g., localized sensory loss, paresthesias, ataxia) is exhibiting symptoms of what?
Brain tumor
104
What occurs when blood flow to the brain experiences a severe, sudden interference, such as by a blood clot (embolism) or hemorrhage, which leads to the onset of neurological symptoms?
Stroke (aka cerebrovascular
| accident, or CVA)
104
What occurs when blood flow to the brain experiences a severe, sudden interference, such as by a blood clot (embolism) or hemorrhage, which leads to the onset of neurological symptoms?
Stroke (aka cerebrovascular
| accident, or CVA)
104
What occurs when blood flow to the brain experiences a severe, sudden interference, such as by a blood clot (embolism) or hemorrhage, which leads to the onset of neurological symptoms?
Stroke (aka cerebrovascular
| accident, or CVA)
105
True or False: Symptoms caused by an open head injury (e.g., gun shot wound) tend to resolve more rapidly than problems caused by a closed head injury (e.g., severe car accident)?
True- open head injuries are usually focal, affecting
a specific part of the brain,
while closed head injuries
are more diffuse and lead to widespread damage
105
True or False: Symptoms caused by an open head injury (e.g., gun shot wound) tend to resolve more rapidly than problems caused by a closed head injury (e.g., severe car accident)?
True- open head injuries are usually focal, affecting
a specific part of the brain,
while closed head injuries
are more diffuse and lead to widespread damage
105
True or False: Symptoms caused by an open head injury (e.g., gun shot wound) tend to resolve more rapidly than problems caused by a closed head injury (e.g., severe car accident)?
True- open head injuries are usually focal, affecting
a specific part of the brain,
while closed head injuries
are more diffuse and lead to widespread damage
106
What is the best overall predictor of
prognosis following
a closed head injury?
Duration of anterograde
| (posttraumatic) amnesia
106
What is the best overall predictor of
prognosis following
a closed head injury?
Duration of anterograde
| (posttraumatic) amnesia
106
What is the best overall predictor of
prognosis following
a closed head injury?
Duration of anterograde
| (posttraumatic) amnesia
107
This neurodegenerative genetic disorder is characterized by affective and personality changes, forgetfulness, and most prominently, motor symptoms such as incoordination, clumsiness, and eventually involuntary jerky movements.
Huntington's Chorea (chorea = involuntary writhing movements)
107
This neurodegenerative genetic disorder is characterized by affective and personality changes, forgetfulness, and most prominently, motor symptoms such as incoordination, clumsiness, and eventually involuntary jerky movements.
Huntington's Chorea (chorea = involuntary writhing movements)
107
This neurodegenerative genetic disorder is characterized by affective and personality changes, forgetfulness, and most prominently, motor symptoms such as incoordination, clumsiness, and eventually involuntary jerky movements.
Huntington's Chorea (chorea = involuntary writhing movements)
108
What motor disorder is characterized by muscle rigidity,
tremor, involuntary movements, akinesia (slowed movement,
emotionless speech, blank facial expression), posture and
equilibrium disturbances, and often depression?
Parkinson's Disease
108
What motor disorder is characterized by muscle rigidity,
tremor, involuntary movements, akinesia (slowed movement,
emotionless speech, blank facial expression), posture and
equilibrium disturbances, and often depression?
Parkinson's Disease
108
What motor disorder is characterized by muscle rigidity,
tremor, involuntary movements, akinesia (slowed movement,
emotionless speech, blank facial expression), posture and
equilibrium disturbances, and often depression?
Parkinson's Disease
109
What type of antidepressants work by blocking
norepinephrine and serotonin
reuptake at the synapse, and are used not only to treat depression, but panic attacks, OCD, bulimia, chronic pain, and agoraphobia?
Tricyclics (e.g., imipramine [Tofranil], clomipramine [Anafranil], amitriptyline [Elavil])
109
What type of antidepressants work by blocking
norepinephrine and serotonin
reuptake at the synapse, and are used not only to treat depression, but panic attacks, OCD, bulimia, chronic pain, and agoraphobia?
Tricyclics (e.g., imipramine [Tofranil], clomipramine [Anafranil], amitriptyline [Elavil])
109
What type of antidepressants work by blocking
norepinephrine and serotonin
reuptake at the synapse, and are used not only to treat depression, but panic attacks, OCD, bulimia, chronic pain, and agoraphobia?
Tricyclics (e.g., imipramine [Tofranil], clomipramine [Anafranil], amitriptyline [Elavil])
110
Commonly used to treat
depression, OCD, panic disorder, binge eating, and other anxiety disorders, ________ work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing the availability at the synapse.
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
(e.g., fluoxetine [Prozac], sertraline
[Zoloft], paroxetine [Paxil])
110
Commonly used to treat
depression, OCD, panic disorder, binge eating, and other anxiety disorders, ________ work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing the availability at the synapse.
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
(e.g., fluoxetine [Prozac], sertraline
[Zoloft], paroxetine [Paxil])
110
Commonly used to treat
depression, OCD, panic disorder, binge eating, and other anxiety disorders, ________ work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing the availability at the synapse.
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
(e.g., fluoxetine [Prozac], sertraline
[Zoloft], paroxetine [Paxil])
111
Use of an SSRI causes some people to experience unpleasant sensations of inner restlessness that manifests itself as an inability to remain still. This is referred to as what?
Akathesia
111
Use of an SSRI causes some people to experience unpleasant sensations of inner restlessness that manifests itself as an inability to remain still. This is referred to as what?
Akathesia
111
Use of an SSRI causes some people to experience unpleasant sensations of inner restlessness that manifests itself as an inability to remain still. This is referred to as what?
Akathesia
112
Usually used to treat atypical symptoms of depression, ________ block the action of enzymes that break down norepinephrine and serotonin, thereby making them more available at synapses.
Monamine Oxidase
Inhibitors (e.g., phenelzine [Nardil],
tranylcypromine [Parnate])
112
Usually used to treat atypical symptoms of depression, ________ block the action of enzymes that break down norepinephrine and serotonin, thereby making them more available at synapses.
Monamine Oxidase
Inhibitors (e.g., phenelzine [Nardil],
tranylcypromine [Parnate])
112
Usually used to treat atypical symptoms of depression, ________ block the action of enzymes that break down norepinephrine and serotonin, thereby making them more available at synapses.
Monamine Oxidase
Inhibitors (e.g., phenelzine [Nardil],
tranylcypromine [Parnate])
113
The most popular medication used to treat
| bipolar, ________ is believed to work by reducing postsynaptic responsivity to dopamine and norepinephrine.
Lithium
113
The most popular medication used to treat
| bipolar, ________ is believed to work by reducing postsynaptic responsivity to dopamine and norepinephrine.
Lithium
113
The most popular medication used to treat
| bipolar, ________ is believed to work by reducing postsynaptic responsivity to dopamine and norepinephrine.
Lithium
114
What is one of the most common side effects of lithium?
Fine hand tremor
114
What is one of the most common side effects of lithium?
Fine hand tremor
114
What is one of the most common side effects of lithium?
Fine hand tremor
115
The notion that schizophrenia is the result of overactivity of dopamine is referred to as what?
The dopamine hypothesis
115
The notion that schizophrenia is the result of overactivity of dopamine is referred to as what?
The dopamine hypothesis
115
The notion that schizophrenia is the result of overactivity of dopamine is referred to as what?
The dopamine hypothesis
116
________ antipsychotics (e.g., chlorpromazine, haloperidol) are most useful at alleviating positive symptoms of psychosis, whereas ________ antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, risperidone) effectively alleviate both positive and negative symptoms.
Traditional; atypical
116
________ antipsychotics (e.g., chlorpromazine, haloperidol) are most useful at alleviating positive symptoms of psychosis, whereas ________ antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, risperidone) effectively alleviate both positive and negative symptoms.
Traditional; atypical
116
________ antipsychotics (e.g., chlorpromazine, haloperidol) are most useful at alleviating positive symptoms of psychosis, whereas ________ antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, risperidone) effectively alleviate both positive and negative symptoms.
Traditional; atypical
117
One of the most serious side effects of traditional
antipsychotics, this condition is
characterized by repetitive,
involuntary, purposeless movements, including lip smacking, grimacing, puckering lips, and rapid eye blinking.
Tardive dyskinesia
117
One of the most serious side effects of traditional
antipsychotics, this condition is
characterized by repetitive,
involuntary, purposeless movements, including lip smacking, grimacing, puckering lips, and rapid eye blinking.
Tardive dyskinesia
117
One of the most serious side effects of traditional
antipsychotics, this condition is
characterized by repetitive,
involuntary, purposeless movements, including lip smacking, grimacing, puckering lips, and rapid eye blinking.
Tardive dyskinesia
118
True of False: Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia can be expected to immediately diminish as a person is gradually withdrawn from taking the drug?
False- usually
symptoms temporarily
increase before decreasing
118
True of False: Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia can be expected to immediately diminish as a person is gradually withdrawn from taking the drug?
False- usually
symptoms temporarily
increase before decreasing
118
True of False: Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia can be expected to immediately diminish as a person is gradually withdrawn from taking the drug?
False- usually
symptoms temporarily
increase before decreasing
119
What class of drugs are the most commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and panic disorders, are addictive when improperly used, and work by enhancing the activity of GABA, a neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system?
Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam [Valium], alprazolam [Xanax], clonazepam [Klonopin])
119
What class of drugs are the most commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and panic disorders, are addictive when improperly used, and work by enhancing the activity of GABA, a neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system?
Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam [Valium], alprazolam [Xanax], clonazepam [Klonopin])
119
What class of drugs are the most commonly prescribed to treat anxiety and panic disorders, are addictive when improperly used, and work by enhancing the activity of GABA, a neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect on the central nervous system?
Benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam [Valium], alprazolam [Xanax], clonazepam [Klonopin])
120
This drug is commonly used to
treat anxiety and works by interrupting impulses to the reticular activating system; it is rarely prescribed anymore due to its addictiveness and the effectiveness of safer benzodiazepines.
Barbiturates (e.g., thiopental [Pentothal], amobarbital [Amytal])
120
This drug is commonly used to
treat anxiety and works by interrupting impulses to the reticular activating system; it is rarely prescribed anymore due to its addictiveness and the effectiveness of safer benzodiazepines.
Barbiturates (e.g., thiopental [Pentothal], amobarbital [Amytal])
120
This drug is commonly used to
treat anxiety and works by interrupting impulses to the reticular activating system; it is rarely prescribed anymore due to its addictiveness and the effectiveness of safer benzodiazepines.
Barbiturates (e.g., thiopental [Pentothal], amobarbital [Amytal])
121
Typically used to treat anxiety
disorders, ________ differs from benzodiazepines and
other anxiolytics in that it does
not produce sedative, anticonvulsant, or muscle
relaxant side effects, nor does it appear to be addictive.
Buspirone (BuSpar)
121
Typically used to treat anxiety
disorders, ________ differs from benzodiazepines and
other anxiolytics in that it does
not produce sedative, anticonvulsant, or muscle
relaxant side effects, nor does it appear to be addictive.
Buspirone (BuSpar)
121
Typically used to treat anxiety
disorders, ________ differs from benzodiazepines and
other anxiolytics in that it does
not produce sedative, anticonvulsant, or muscle
relaxant side effects, nor does it appear to be addictive.
Buspirone (BuSpar)
122
A person presenting with symptoms of severe anxiety about public speaking might be prescribed what type of drug, which is good at treating the physical symptoms of anxiety and traditionally used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremor, and cardiac arrhythmias?
Beta-Blocker
| e.g., propranolol [Inderal]
122
A person presenting with symptoms of severe anxiety about public speaking might be prescribed what type of drug, which is good at treating the physical symptoms of anxiety and traditionally used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremor, and cardiac arrhythmias?
Beta-Blocker
| e.g., propranolol [Inderal]
122
A person presenting with symptoms of severe anxiety about public speaking might be prescribed what type of drug, which is good at treating the physical symptoms of anxiety and traditionally used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremor, and cardiac arrhythmias?
Beta-Blocker
| e.g., propranolol [Inderal]
123
Often used to treat ADHD, ________ is a psychostimulant that decreases motor activity, diminishes impulsivity, and increases concentration and attention.
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
123
Often used to treat ADHD, ________ is a psychostimulant that decreases motor activity, diminishes impulsivity, and increases concentration and attention.
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
123
Often used to treat ADHD, ________ is a psychostimulant that decreases motor activity, diminishes impulsivity, and increases concentration and attention.
Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
124
True or False: A person prescribed Ritalin to treat ADHD is encouraged to take the drug continuously for the best effects?
False- psychostimulants can lead to growth suppression in youngsters, thus many doctors recommend "drug holidays"
124
True or False: A person prescribed Ritalin to treat ADHD is encouraged to take the drug continuously for the best effects?
False- psychostimulants can lead to growth suppression in youngsters, thus many doctors recommend "drug holidays"
124
True or False: A person prescribed Ritalin to treat ADHD is encouraged to take the drug continuously for the best effects?
False- psychostimulants can lead to growth suppression in youngsters, thus many doctors recommend "drug holidays"
