Newborn Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q
  • The 1-minute score gives an idea of ______

* The 5-minute score gives an idea of _______

A

what was going on during labor and delivery.

response to therapy (resuscitation).

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2
Q

T or F

the Apgar score is not predictive of outcome

A

T

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3
Q

Part of the Newborn Care

A
Vitamin K IM
• Prophylactic eye erythromycin
• Umbilical cord care
• Hearing test
• Newborn screening tests
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4
Q

MC skull Fx in NB

A

Linear

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5
Q

_______ C5–C6; cannot abduct shoulder; externally rotate and supinate forearm;

_____ C7–C8 ± T1; paralyzed hand ± Horner syndrome

A

Erb-Duchenne:

Klumpke:

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6
Q

Prognosis of Brachial Nerve Palsy

A

Most with full recovery (months); depends on

whether nerve was injured or lacerated; Rx

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7
Q

Position of birth prone to clavicular fx

A

Especially with shoulder dystocia in vertex

position and arm extension in breech

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8
Q

What is needed if no improvement after 3-6 mos in facial/brachial nerve injury

A

neuroplasty if no improvement (torn fibers)

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9
Q

Diffuse edematous swelling of soft tissues of

scalp; crosses suture lines

A

Caput succedaneum

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10
Q

Caput succedaneum may lead to?

A

may lead to molding for week

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11
Q

Subperiosteal hemorrhage: does not cross

suture lines

A

Cephalohematoma

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12
Q

COurse of Cephalohematoma

A

May have underlying linear fracture; resolve in 2

wk to 3 mo; may calcify; jaundice

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13
Q

Lacy, reticulated vascular pattern over most of body when baby is cooled; improves over first month; abnormal if persists

A

Cutis marmorata

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14
Q

Blue to slate-gray macules; seen on presacral, back, posterior thighs; > in nonwhite infants; arrested melanocytes; usually fade over first few years; differential: child abuse

A

Mongolian spots

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15
Q

Pale, pink vascular macules; found in nuchal area, glabella, eyelids; usually disappears

A

Salmon patch (nevus simplex)

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16
Q

Firm, yellow-white papules/pustules with erythematous base; peaks on second day of life; contain
eosinophils; benign

A

Erythema toxicum, neonatorum

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17
Q

CHaracteristics of superficial hemangioma

A

Superficial: bright red, protuberant, sharply demarcated; most often appear in first 2 months; most on face, scalp, back, anterior chest; rapid expansion, then stationary, then involution (most by 5–9 years of age);

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18
Q

CHaracteristics of deeper hemangioma

A

bluish hue, firm, cystic, less likely to regress; Rx: (steroids, pulsed laser) only if large and interfering with function

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19
Q

What to do if with Preauricular tags/pits

A

Look for hearing loss and genitourinary anomalies

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20
Q

Association of Coloboma of iris

A

CHARGE association

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21
Q

Hypoplasia of iris; defect may go through to retina; association with Wilms tumor

A

Aniridia

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22
Q

Enzyme deficiency of PKU

A

Phenylalanine hydroxylase; accumulation of PHE in body

fluids and CNS

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23
Q

Asscn of PKU

A

Fair hair, fair skin, blue eyes, tooth abnormalities,

microcephaly

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24
Q

Gal-1-P uridylyltransferase deficiency; accumulation of gal-1-P with injury to kidney, liver, and brain.

What condition?

A

Classic Galactosemia

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25
SSx of Classic Galactosemia
Jaundice (often direct), hepatomegaly, vomiting, | hypoglycemia, cataracts, seizures, poor feeding, poor weight gain, mental retardation
26
Classic Galactosemia Association
Predisposition to E. coli sepsis; developmental delay, speech disorders, learning disabilities
27
T or F May begin prenatally— transplacental galactose from mother
T
28
Types of IUGR
symmetric and asymmetric
29
etiology of symmetric IUGR
Genetic syndromes, chromosomal abnormalities, congenital infections, teratogens, toxins
30
What is the reason for asymmetric IUGR
Relatively late onset after fetal organ development; abnormal delivery of nutritional substances and oxygen to the fetus
31
Etiology of asymmetric IUGR
Uteroplacental insufficiency secondary to maternal diseases (malnutrition, cardiac, renal, anemia) and/or placental dysfunction (hypertension, autoimmune disease, abruption
32
* Birth weight >4,500 grams at term * Predisposing factors: obesity, diabetes * Higher incidence of birth injuries and congenital anomalies
Large for Gestational Age (LGA)—Fetal Macrosomia
33
Post term is delivery after_____
42 weeks
34
Characteristics of post term babies
``` − Increased birth weight − Absence of lanugo − Decreased/absent vernix − Desquamating, pale, loose skin − Abundant hair, long nails − If placental insufficiency, may be meconium staining ```
35
• Maternal hyperglycemia (types I and II DM) → fetal ________
hyperinsulinemia
36
______ is the major fetal growth hormone → increase in size of all organs except the brain
Insulin
37
Infants of DM mothers are_____
large for gestational age and plethoric (ruddy).
38
Hypocalcemia in infants of DM mothers from?
(felt to be a result | of delayed action of parathyroid hormone)
39
Cadiomegaly from infants of DM mothers?
asymmetric septal hypertrophy (insulin effect, reversible)
40
infants of DM mothers ___________ (flank mass, hematuria, and thrombocytopenia) from polycythemia
Renal vein thrombosis
41
Increased incidence of congenital anomalies: ° Cardiac—especially ________ ° _________ (transient delay in development of left side of colon; presents with abdominal distention) ° _________: spectrum of structural neurologic defects of the caudal region of spinal cord which may result in neurologic impairment (hypo, aplasia of pelvis & LE)
VSD, ASD, transposition Small left colon syndrome Caudal regression syndrome
42
What is the problem with surfactant deficiency?
Inability to maintain alveolar volume at end expiration → decreased FRC (functional residual capacity) and atelectasis
43
Xrays of Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) from surfactant deficiency
ground-glass appearance, atelectasis, air bronchograms
44
Most accurate diagnostic test—Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) from surfactant deficiency
L/S ratio (part of complete lung profile; lecithin-to sphingomyelin ratio) °° Done on amniotic fluid prior to birth
45
Most accurate diagnostic test—Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) from surfactant deficiency –– Best initial treatment—________ –– Most effective treatment—_______
oxygen intubation and exogenous surfactant administration
46
Slow absorption of fetal lung fluid → decreased pulmonary compliance and tidal volume with increased dead space
TTN
47
TTN association
Common in term infant delivered by Cesarean section or rapid second stage of labor
48
Chest x-ray (best test) for TTN—
air-trapping, fluid in fissures, perihilar streaking
49
Chest x-ray (best test) for MAS—
patchy infiltrates, increased AP diameter, flattening of diaphragm
50
Cx of MAS
air leak (pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum)
51
TX of MAS
Treatment—positive pressure ventilation and other complex NICU therapies
52
Failure of the diaphragm to close → abdominal contents enter into chest, causing pulmonary hypoplasia
CDH
53
PE of CDH
Born with respiratory distress and scaphoid abdomen | • Bowel sounds may be heard in chest
54
Tx of CDH
immediate intubation in delivery room for known or suspected | CDH, followed by surgical correction when stable (usually days
55
Umbilical hernia Most are small and resolve in _______years without any treatment
1-2
56
* Failure of intestines to return to abdominal cavity with gut through umbilicus * Covered in a sac (protection
Omphalocele
57
Genetic abn asstd with Omphalocele
Trisomy
58
Mx of Omphalocele
Large defects need a staged reduction (use of a surgical Silo), otherwise respiratory failure and ischemia
59
* Defect in abdominal wall lateral to umbilicus (vascular accident) * Any part of the GI tract may protrude * Not covered by a sa
Gastroschisis
60
Asstd problems with Gastroschisis
tresia, stenosis, ischemia, short gut
61
Mx of Gastroschisis
Surgery based on condition of gut; if no ischemia, large lesions need a staged reduction as with omphalocele
62
What condition? * Transmural intestinal necrosis * Greatest risk factor is prematurity; rare in term infants * Symptoms usually related to introduction of feeds:
NEC
63
Abdominal Xray for NEC
Pneumatosis intestinalis on plain abdominal film is pathognomonic (air in bowel wall)
64
(unconjugated bilirubin in the basal ganglia and brain stem nuclei) hypotonia, seizures, opisthotonos, delayed motor skills, choreoathetosis, and sensorineural hearing loss
kernicterus
65
Work up for pathologic hyperbilirubinemia when:
* It appears on the first day of life * Bilirubin rises >5 mg/dL/day * Bilirubin >13 mg/dL in term infant * Direct bilirubin >2 mg/dL at any time
66
Causes of hyperbilirubinemia from Increased RBC production:
Chronic hypoxia, IUGR, post-mature; IODM, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (insulin effect); maternal Graves’ disease (transplacental antibodies); trisomies (? mechanism)
67
Causes of hyperbilirubinemia from Extra RBCs entering the circulation:
delayed cord clamping, twin-twin transfusion,maternal-fetal transfusion
68
Treatmentof jaundice form PV:
partial exchange transfusion with normal saline (dilutional)
69
What test: Jaundice + immune related hemolysis
labs: high unconjugated bilirubin, may be anemia, increased reticulocyte count, positive direct Coombs test)
70
Causes of immune related hemolysis i. Rh negative mother/Rh positive baby: ______ ii. _________: most common reason for hemolysis in the newborn iii. Minor blood group incompatibility (Kell is very antigenic; Kell negative mother), uncommon
classic hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis) ABO incompatibility (almost all are type O mother and either type A or B baby)
71
Smear of Non-immune mediated hemolysis
Smear shows characteristic-looking RBCs: membrane defect (most are either spherocytosis or elliptocytosis
72
Smear of Non-immune mediated hemolysis, normal looking RBC DDx
(most are G6PD deficiency then pyruvate kinase deficiency)
73
Bilirubin is then bound to albumin and carried in the blood; bilirubin may be uncoupled from albumin in the blood stream to yield free bilirubin in what conditions?
e.g. neonatal sepsis, certain drugs (ceftriaxone), hypoxia, acidosis
74
Bilirubin is transported to the hepatocytes: within the hepatocytes is the conversion of unconjugated (laboratory indirect-acting) fat-soluble bilirubin to conjugated (glucuronide) water-soluble bilirubin (laboratory direct-acting) by the action of ______
hepatic glucuronyl transferase (GT).
75
Conditions that may decrease activity of hepatic glucuronyl transferase (GT).
°° Normal newborn first week of life °° Primary liver disease of systemic disease affecting the liver (sepsis, TORCH, metabolic diseases) °° No GT activity: Crigler-Najjar syndrome (type I)
76
Transport through the intrahepatic biliary system to the porta hepatis for excretion into the duodenum; abnormalities of transport and excretion cause a_____________
conjugated (direct) hyperbilirubinemia (>2 mg/dL direct-acting bilirubin in the blood in the newborn
77
(progressive obliterative cholangiopathy): obstruction at birth due to fibrosis and atresia of the extrahepatic ducts (and so no gall bladder); then variable severity and speed of inflammation and fibrosis of the intrahepatic system which ultimately leads to cirrhosis
Biliary atresia
78
MC sx of Biliary atresia
Most present in first 2 weeks of life with jaundice (conjugated hyperbilirubinemia), poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy, hepatosplenomegaly, persistent acholic stools and dark urine
79
Best initial test for Biliary Atresia:
U/S (triangular fibrotic cord at porta hepatis; no evidence of normal ductal anatomy; no gallbladder
80
Most accurate test for biliary atresia (next step):
percutaneous liver biopsy (is pathognomonic for this | process)
81
Best initial Tx for Biliary Atresia:
hepatic portojejunostomy (Kasai procedure
82
Best long term Tx for Biliary Atresia:
liver transplant
83
Intestinal transport and excretion: most bilirubin is eliminated in the stool with final products synthesized with help of colonic bacteria; some bilirubin is eliminated in the urine, some is reprocessed in the liver due to _____
``` enterohepatic circulation (along with bile acids) ```
84
______ hydrolyzes glucuronide-bilirubin bonds to yield some unconjugated bilirubin, which is absorbed into the portal circulation and transported back to the liver to be acted upon by hepatic glucuronyl transferase
intestinal beta-glucuronidase
85
means a baby is not nursing well and so not getting many calories. This is common in first-time breast-feeding mothers. The infant may become dehydrated; however, it is lack of calories that causes the jaundice. Treatment is to obtain a lactation consultation and rehydrate the baby. The jaundice occurs in the first days of life
Breast-feeding jaundice
86
________occurs due to a glucoronidase present in some breast milk. Infants become jaundiced in week 2 of life. Treatment is phototherapy if needed.
Breast-milk jaundice
87
Cx of hyperbilirubinemia
loose stools, erythematous macular rash, overheating leading to dehydration, and bronze baby syndrome
88
(occurs with direct hyperbilirubinemia; dark, grayish-brown discoloration of the skin [photo-induced change in porphyrins, which are present in cholestatic jaundice])
bronze baby syndrome
89
Tx of hyperbilirubinemia ________—if bilirubin continues to rise despite intensive phototherapy and/or kernicterus is a concern
Double volume exchange transfusion
90
RF for neonatal sepsis
– Prematurity – Chorioamnionitis – Intrapartum fever – Prolonged rupture of membranes
91
Most common organisms for neonatal sepsis:
group B Streptococcus, E. coli, and Listeria monocytogenes
92
Tx of sepsis If no evidence of meningitis
ampicillin and aminoglycoside until 48–72-hour cultures are negative
93
Tx of sepsis If meningitis or diagnosis is possible:
ampicillin and third-generation cephalosporin (not ceftriaxone)
94
Outcomes of Toxoplasmosis
– Psychomotor retardation – Seizure disorder – Visual impairments
95
Tx of Toxo
maternal treatment during pregnancy reduces the likelihood of transmission significantly (spiramycin)
96
Tx of Toxo in childrne
Infants are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazide, and leucovorin
97
Congenital rubella • Classic findings when maternal infection occurs in _________
first 8 weeks’ gestation
98
Findings in Congenital Rubella
– Blueberry muffin spots (extramedullary hematopoiesis), thrombocytopenia – Cardiac—PDA, peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis – Eye—cataracts – Congenital hearing loss – Thrombocytopenia – Hepatosplenomegaly
99
Manifestations of HSV
• Keratojunctivitis, skin (5–14 days), CNS (3–4 weeks), disseminated (5–7 days)
100
Prevention of HSV
Prevention is elective Cesarean section when active disease or visible lesions are identified; however, this is not 100% effective
101
Early manifestations of Congenital Syphilis
snuffles, maculopapular rash (including palms of soles, | desquamates), jaundice, periostitis, osteochondritis, chorioretinitis, congenital nephrosis
102
Late manifestations of Congenital Syphilis
Hutchinson teeth, Clutton joints, saber shins, saddle | nose, osteochondritis, rhagades (thickening and fissures of corners of mouth)
103
Neonatal Varicella happens when?
delivery occurs <1 week before/after maternal infection
104
Neonatal Varicella is associated with?
Associated with limb malformations and deformations, cutaneous scars, microcephaly, chorioretinitis, cataracts, and cortical atrophy