Flashcards in Newsletter Questions Deck (37):
1
The basic ethical principles are:
1) Nonmaleficence
2) Beneficence
3) Autonomy
4) Justice
A) 1,2,3
B) 2 and 4
C) 4
D) All the above
D - All the above
2
An ethical dilemma occurs when one or more ethical principles are in conflict.
A) True
B) False
A –True. Therefore if only one ethical principle is in question, it is not considered an ethical dilemma. For instance if the principle of autonomy is in conflict with the principle of nonmaleficence, that would be a true ethical dilemma. Another example - if a hygienist has a patient who is required to have antibiotic premedication and they instruct the hygienist to “go head” with treatment for scaling and root planning, then that is an ethical dilemma. The patient is expressing his autonomy while the hygienist knows that lack of premedication could cause harm, thus nonmaleficence is involved.
3
An example of an ethical dilemma would be when an individual intentionally charges an insurance company for dental procedures that were not performed.
A) True
B) False
B – False. This would be an example of an unethical and unlawful behavior (fraud), but not an ethical dilemma
4
In the principle of nonmaleficence, the health care provider’s first obligation to the patient is:
A) To do no harm
B) To remove existing harm
C) To promote self-determination
D) To provide what is deserved
A – To do no harm. Nonmaleficence is the founding principle of all health professions. The patient is entrusting the health care provider with the privilege of access to their body for treatment and that is given in trust that the provider will do no harm.
5
Over time, the principle of nonmaleficence has evolved to include the:
1) Promotion of good
2) Prevention of harm
3) Removal of harm
4) Reduction of risk
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) All of the above
B – 2 and 3. Though nonmaleficence is primarily concerned with doing no harm, over time it has evolved to include preventing and removing harm. Examples of preventing harm are when you use universal precautions or when you preserve teeth and periodontal tissues when scaling and root planning. A dental hygienist is removing harm when they treat patients who have active periodontal disease. There is a concept called “double effect” in which sometimes you might cause harm to promote the better good which is restoring the patient to health. This could involve causing some degree of pain and suffering temporarily after a scaling and root planning but in return the patient is on their way to a healthy mouth due to your treatment.
6
The classification of harm and good includes:
A) Not to inflict harm
B) Prevent harm
C) Remove harm
D) All the above
D – All the above. “Not to inflict harm” which is the first level, takes precedence over the 2nd , 3rd, and 4th levels.
7
Beneficence and nonmaleficence are often linked because they are both founded in the _______ tradition.
A) Ethical
B) Western
C) Hippocratic
D) Medical
C – Hippocratic. The Hippocratic tradition requires the physician to do what will best benefit the patient.
8
The following defines the healing professions and sets them apart from other occupations.
A) Commitment to assist and benefit others
B) Dedication to improving skills
C) Commitment to honest communication
D) None of the above.
A - Commitment to assist and benefit others
9
Which principle is heart of many ethical dilemmas that occur in dentistry?
A) Principle of nonmaleficence
B) Principle of beneficence
C) Principle of autonomy
D) Principle of justice
C - Principle of autonomy. Autonomy is what gives rise to the concept of permitting individuals to make their own decisions about their health. Sometimes what the patient believes is best is not what the healthcare provider believes is best.
10
______ is often listed as one of the major principles of ethics.
A) Integrity
B) Double effect
C) Veracity
D) Informed consent
C – Veracity
11
Fluorescent light and x-rays produce the latent image on intraoral radiographs.
The visible image on an extraoral film is the result of chemical processing of the exposed film.
A.The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
B.The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE
C.Both statements are TRUE
D.Both statements are FALSE
D
12
Model plaster or stone is sifted into the water before mixing in order to:
A. retard setting time
B. prevent entrapment of air
C. dissipate heat
D. avoid distortion of final product
B
13
Approved Fluoride components found in over-the-counter dentrifices include:
A. sodium fluoride
B. stannous fluoride
C. sodium monofluorophosphate
D. acidulated phosphate fluoride
1. a,b and c
2. a and d
3. b, c and d
4. d only
5. all of the above
1. A, B, C
14
Acquired pellicle is initially derived from
A. Saliva
B. Tooth structure
C. Bacterial products
D. Dietary components
A
15
When a patient protrudes his tongue, deviation to the right side is noted.
This suggests a disturbance in motor function of which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V
B. VII
C. X
D. XII
D -Cranial Nerve 12
16
Lisa decided to change xray machines in her new operatory. The old machine had an 8" PID and was set at 26 exposure time and due to the knobs being broken she could not change it. If she decided to go to a 16" PID and a fully functioning xray machine, what would happen to the intensity if set at proper exposures?
A) The intensity stays the same, but the exposure time would alter the density
B) The intensity is directly proportional to a factor of 4 per every exposure time, thus meaning it is increased by 4.
C) The exposure time is decreased by 4
D) The intensity would be decreased by 4
D Dont pay attention to the rest of the garbage. It is only asking about intenisty and when the cone size is doubled, then the intensity is decreased by 4
17
Which of the following has no antibody production associated with it?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) None of the above, they all do.
Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity is the only reaction that does not have an associated antibody.
18
Identify which of the following is not a type of particulate radiation:
A) alpha particles
B) beta particles
C) protons
D) nucleons
D - Nucleons
19
Identify the reduction in exposure time when changing from D-speed film to E-speed film:
A) reduce exposure by1/8
B) reduce exposure by1/4
C) reduce exposure by1/3
D) reduce exposure by1/2
D - by 1/2 - From D spead to E speed, you decrease exposure by one-half
20
Angela is manually developing radiographs and does not notice a difference in solution temperatures. Identify the error that Angela would cause when a film is subjected to sudden temperature changes (such as between developer solution and water bath)
A) reticulation of emulsion
B) yellow-brown stains
C) fixer spots
D) static electricity
A
21
Snoop Dogg arrives for his periodontal maintenance appointment and tells you "somethin aint right, homie." Further investigation leads to the discovery of the gold crown on tooth number 8 has class II mobility. While conducting a periodontal charting, you note that the mesial-facial measurement is 7 mm. The gingival margin is 1 mm below the CEJ on the distal, 2 mm below the CEJ on the direct facial aspect, and 3 mm on the mesial side. What is the clinical attachment loss based on the information given?
A) 5 mm
B) 6 mm
C) 9 mm
D) 10 mm
This question has a lot of nonsense. The information given is a 7 mm pocket on the mesial, that tells you to look at the recession measurement on the mesial, which is 3 mm. Remember it did not specifically say it was "recession", but it did state it was "below" the CEJ. This gives a CAL of 10 mm (7 mm pocket + 3 mm recession). The best thing is to draw the actual tooth on your paper and draw the gingival margin, the bone level, and visualize it on paper and not in your head.
22
A dental hygienist is scaling the maxillary anterior teeth and asks the dentist to administer local anesthesia to the area. Which nerve block is he most likely to give:
A. anterior superior alveolar
B. greater palatine
C. nasopalatine
D. middle superior alveolar
E. posterior superior alveolar
A
23
A busy dental hygienist took alginate impressions on a patient and put them in the lab. Several hours later the models were poured. Which process was most likely to have occurred in the impression?
A. solation
B. gelation
C. syneresis
D. inbibition
E. thermal conduction
C
24
Which of the following local anesthetics can be administered intravenously to treat cardiac arrhythmias?
A. Lidocaine
B. Benzocaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Mepivacaine
E. Propoxycaine
A Lidocaine is used specifically to treat ventricular arrhythmias. Benzocaine is not used in an injectable form; it is a topical anesthetic only. Propoxycaine is an ester-type anesthetic with a higher potential for an allergic reaction. Prilocaine and mepivacaine are used only as local anesthetics.
25
Which of the following, when taken with antacids, can result in as much as a 50-percent DECREASE in intestinal absorption of the medication?
A. Codeine
B. Meperidine
C. Acetaminophen
D. Penicillin G
E. Tetracycline
E Antacids contain divalent cations such as aluminum, calcium, and magnesium and can form complexes with tetracycline, which cannot be absorbed
26
Which of the following describes a radiographic film that has many gradations of gray from totally white to totally black?
A. overexposed
B. underexposed
C. low contrast
D. high contrast
C
27
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is characterized by normal or thin body weight and it has slow progression over the years.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
D) The first statement is false, the second statement is true
C
28
Localized Juvenile Periodontitis is characterized my severe bone loss involving the:
A) maxillary canines and laterals
B) mandibular anteriors
C) first permanent premolars and canines
D) first permanent molars and incisors
D
29
The fluoride concentration in saliva ranges from:
A) .10 to .25 ppm
B) .20 to .50 ppm
C) .40 to .65 ppm
D) .01 to .04 ppm
D
30
Hydroquinone and phenidone are examples of a(an):
A) Reducing agent
B) Accelerator
C) Restrainer
D) Preservative
E) Solvent
A
31
The change of color in the stripes on the chemical indicator tape shows that the object has been sterilized. Pins, paperclips, or other types of metal fasteners are not used because they provide holes of entry for microorganisms.
A) Both statements are true
B) Both statements are false
C) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
D) The first statement is false, the second statement is true
D
32
The cutaneous manifestation of secondary syphilis is which of the following?
a. mucous patch
b. chancre
c. gumma
d. pruritic rash
e. Hutchinson's incisors
D: Remember chancre is for the primary state, rash is for the secondary stage and gumma is for the tertiary state.
33
Which oral condition could result from the administration of a glucocorticoid?
a. candida albicans
b. linea alba
c. lichen planus
d. brown hairy tongue
e. gingival inflammation
D The immunosuppression possible from glucocorticoid (steroid) administration could result in a “hairy tongue.”
34
Which of the following substances can contribute to a patient’s stomach ulcers?
a. cimetidine (Tagamet)
b. aspirin
c. cigarettes
d. thyroid medication
e. oral contraceptives
B This is somewhat arguable, with cigarette smokers having an increased incidence in GI ulceration, but aspirin would be the MOST likely cause with its history of blood loss with every dose taken.
35
Which of the following genera are gram-negative, comma-shaped rods that inhabit the intestinal tract and mouth of humans?
a. Treponema
b. actinomyces
c. camplobacter
d. staphylococcus
C Camplobacter is the only gram-negative microbe listed; when there is too much of camplobacter (as from contaminated chicken), it can result in GI ulceration.
36
Which of the following cells synthesize antibodies?
a. mast
b. stem
c. plasma
d. fibroblasts
e. macrophages
C Plasma cells actively secrete and synthesize antibodies
37