NICU concepts based on questions Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

Which weeks of pregnancy should the mother be getting regular fetal echos if mom has SLE or anti-Ro/ SSA/SSB antibodies?

A

Weeks 17-26 GA

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2
Q

If mother has SLE / positive antibodies, and baby has normal fetal echocardiograms, when does baby need postnatal ECG?

A

Within first month of life needs ECG and then consider at 12 months (per Nelson’s)

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3
Q

If mother has SLE / positive antibodies, and fetal echo shows PR interval 140msec or longer, and/or mod tricusbid regurg, when to repeat fetal echo?

A

24-48 hours

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4
Q

If mother has SLE / positive antibodies and fetal echo shows PR interval > 150msec, what is the next step in management

A

dexamethasone 4-8mg daily for 1 week

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5
Q

If mother has SLE / positive antibodies and fetal echo shows 2nd degree AV block, or AV block with signs of EFE, myocarditis, CHF or hydrops, what is the next best step in management

A

Dexamethasone 4-8mg daily plus IVIG

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6
Q

Which part of the world are patients often from with hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Northern European descent

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7
Q

if mom has positive TRaB autoantibodies, what is the neonate at risk for?

A

autoantibodies can cross placenta and stimulate neonatal/fetal thyroid leading to thyrotoxicosis
- presents as small fontanelle, FTT, tachycardia, hypertension, loose stool, poor sleep, irritability (think increased metabolic/hyperthyroid)

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8
Q

DAT and ABO incompatibility in hyperbilirubinemia

A

Can be misleading - can be weakly positive or even negative

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9
Q

Diastasis recti in infancy - worrisome or not?

A

Normal finding - normal infant

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10
Q

Severity of hemolysis in hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Can be quite severe and present in first few days of life

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11
Q

Inheritence pattern of G6PD?

A

x-linked

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12
Q

Inheritence pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

AD

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13
Q

Which deliveries are at highest risk for TTNB? / Risk factors for TTNB

A

C-section, IDM, precipitous vaginal deliveries, perinatal depression, maternal sedation

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14
Q

Which age group of infants are highest risk for TTNB?

A

Term and late preterm infants

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15
Q

CXR in TTNB?

A

Fluid in the fissures, perihilar vascular markings (sunburst pattern)

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16
Q

When does TTNB present?

A

Immediately within a few hours of birth

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17
Q

When does RDS typically present?

A

Usually > 6 hours after birth (1-3 days old is peak incidence)

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18
Q

Correcting prematurity - difference between extreme prems and prems?

A

Extremely prem infants - up to 36 months
Prem infants - up to 24 months

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19
Q

Complications of NEC?

A

Death
Sepsis (1/3 of cases)
AKI - usually oliguric followed by polyuria
BPD
Neurodevelopmental impairment
Post-NEC stricture (10%)
Liver cirrhosis secondary to prolonged TPN

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20
Q

Difference between diaphragmatic hernia vs eventration?

A

Eventration is an abnormal elevation consisting of a thinned diaphragmatic muscle that causes elevation of the entire hemidiaphragm, but is not an actual communication between the abdominal and thoracic cavities with or without abdominal contents in the thorax

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21
Q

Which portion of the diaphragm accounts for 90% of hernias in CDH?

A

Posterolateral (Bochdalek) portion of the diaphragm - 80-90% left side

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22
Q

common teratogenic maternal medications and their effects

A

phenytoin - vitamin K deficiency and bleeding, dysmorphic facies
isoretinoin - hydrocephalus, cns defects, micrognathia, developmental delay, congenital heart defects
alcohol - FASD features
VPA - neural tube defects

23
Q

Red flags for sacral dimples?

A

Location above gluteal fold (> 2.5cm from anal verge)
> 5mm width across base
Deep, unable to visualize base
Associated skin findings - tuft of hair, hemangioma, subcutaneous appendage
Other findings: leaking from pit, lower extremity, sphincter anomalies

Do not image simple sacral dimples in otherwise asymptomatic child

24
Q

Which antibiotics to use in suspected NEC?

A

Broad spectrum coving gram negative bacteria (aminoglycoside, cephalosporin), gram positive bacteria (ampicillin, Vanco), and anaerobes (metronidazole)

25
most common form of craniosynostosis
scaphocephaly (long, narrow skull) - closure of sagitaal suture
26
Duration of therapy for SEM HSV infection?
14 days IV acyclovir
27
Duration of therapy CNS or disseminated HSV infection?
21 days minimum
28
Trisomy 21 genetic etiology
90% arise from nondisjunction, remainder from translocation or mosaicism - 3 copies on chromosome 21
29
trisomy 21 prenatal findings
thick nuchal translucency, absent nasal bone, short long bones, decreased AFP, increased HCG
30
trisomy 21 postnatal findings
upslanting epicanthal folds, brushfield spots, low-set ears, flat nasal bridge, protruding tongue, single palmar crease, sandal-gap toes, AVSD, ASD, VSD, congenital hypothyroidism, duodenal atresia, Hirschsprungs, Celiac, TMD
31
trisomy 18 and 21 diagnosis
Rapid aneuoploidy detection (FISH), karyotope (determine translocation vs mosaicism)
32
trisomy 18 (Edward's - E=8) pre-natal findings
decreased AFP decreased HCG (increased in T21) IUGR, fluid abnormalities absent nasal bone, limb abnormalities (rocker-bottom feet)
33
Trisomy 18 post-natal findings
SGA/IUGR, microcephaly, hypotonia, seizures, short palpebral fissures MSK abnormalities (common) - rocker bottom feet, 2-3D syndactyly ASD, VSD, PS, CoA Horseshoekidney
34
Trisomy 13 (PaTau syndrome) pre-natal findings
Least common of trisomies Increased Nuchal translucency IUGR CNS/facial abnormalities (more common) absent natal bone
35
T13 post natal findings
SGA, microcephaly apnea, seizures, cutis aplasia cleft lip/palate overalapping fingers omphalacele, polycystic kidneys, horshoe kidneys VSD, ASD polydactyly post axial
36
Turner syndrome prenatal and postnatal findings
Prenatal - cystic hygroma, hydrops, increased NT, cardiac defects (bicuspid aortic valve, CoA, AS, MV prolapse) post natal - short stature, webbed neck, high-arched palate, low hairline, shield chest, widely spaced nipples, cardiac defects, gonadal dysgenesis, horseshoe kidney
37
What is the criteria for cooling in HIE?
COOLING = Effective in ACUTE perinatal insults (placental abruption, cord prolapse) not antenatal/chronic Criteria: Late preterm + term (> 36 GA) <6h old Meet either (A or B) AND C A. Cord pH <7.0 or base deficit >-16 B. PH 7.01-7.15 or base deficit –10 to –15.9 on cord blood gas within 1 hour AND: History of acute perinatal event (ie/ cord prolapse, placenta abruption, uterine rupture) AND Apgar score < 5 at 10 minutes or at least 10 minutes PPV C. Evidence moderate – severe encephalopathy Defined by seizures OR at least 1 sign in 3 or more categories (see table) aEEG for at least 20 minutes with abN tracing or seizures
38
complications of multiple gestations
congenital anomalies stillbirth, preterm delivery IUGR, PPROM IVH/PVL twin to twin transfusion syndrome (hallmark is amniotic fluid volume and bladder size discrepancy) anemia-polycythemia sequence (TAPS_
39
recipient twin or donor twin complications
- recipient twin polycythemia (hypoglycemia, jaundice) hypertension polyuria polyhydramnios circulatory overload heart failure hydrops fetalis (abnormal fluid in 2 or more body compartments) fetal demise - donor anemia hypotension oliguria oligohydramnios circulatory insufficiency heart failure growth restriction renal failure fetal demise
40
How long should cooling be maintained in HIE and at what temperature?
Maintain core body temperature between 33°C and 34°C for 72 hours, followed by a period of rewarming of 6 to 12 hours
41
If infant meets criteria for HIE but is not at a centre that supports cooling, what are the best steps while awaiting transport to a tertiary care unit?
Initiation of passive cooling (e.g., removing the infant’s hat, blanket and turning off an overhead warmer) should be strongly considered in community hospitals, following consultation with a receiving neonatologist. Rectal temp q15min to ensure not below 33 degrees Celsius Ice packs/cool gels by untrained personnel not recommended
42
Targets for rewarming in HIE?
0.5 degrees C every 1-2 horus
43
Adjuncts to whole body cooling in HIE?
Morphine (low infusion) Seizures --> treat Nutrition --> early minimal enteral feeding
44
Pathophysiology of Neonatal Alloimmune Thrombocytopenia?
Maternal antibodies directed towards fetal and neonatal platelets (contain an antigen from commonly the father that mother lacks), mom forms IgG which pass placenta and destroy platelets that express the antigen.
45
Pathophysiology of Neonatal Autoimmune Thrombocytopenia
Maternal autoantibodies (often history of ITP, SLE, etc) react with BOTH maternal and fetal platelets
46
How often to check platelets in neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?
Up to q6-8h if clinical concerns for bleeding or platelets < 50,000
47
When to give platelet transfusion in neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?
Platelet transfusion if platelets <100,000 with intracranial hemorrhage or other major bleeding AND IVIG recommended if major bleeding following platelets (although limited data supporting this practice)
48
Describe hyperoxia test?
Helpful to distinguish cyanotic CHD vs. pulmonary disease CCHD: unable to significantly raise their PaO2 during administration of 100% oxygen 🡪 PaO2 <50-150 If PaO2 >150 mmHg during 100% O2, an intra-cardiac R to L shunt can be excluded, and cause is likely pulmonary disease
49
For infants with NAIT, well appearing and stable, who gets a platelet transfusion?
Infants with platelets < 30,000
50
What are the general cut-offs for phototherapy at each day of life for a low risk baby?
24 hours - 200 48 hours - 250 72 hours - 300 96 hours - 340
51
List 5 side effects of prostaglandin:
apnea fever seizures flushing hypotension
52
What is the Hgb cut off for transfusion at postnatal age week 1?
Respiratory support - Hgb 115, Hct 35% No respiratory support, Hgb 100, Hct 30%
53
What is the Hgb cutoff for transfusion at postnatal age week 2?
Respiratory support - Hgb 100, Hct 30% No respiratory support - Hgb 85, Hct 25%