Non Ops Limits Ops Limits Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
Dry runway limit
A
30
2
Q
Touch and go limit
A
25
3
Q
Wet runway limit
A
20
4
Q
Icy/standing water limit
A
10
5
Q
MInimum rwy length no flap touch and go
A
10,000 ft
6
Q
Min allowable rwy length
A
8.000 ft
7
Q
True/false
No flap touch and go require barrier
A
True
8
Q
No flap landing are not accomplished with greather than ____ lbs fuel
A
2500
9
Q
Caution breaking between ___ and ___ knots, extreme caution when > ____
A
130, 100, 120
10
Q
TOS (Takeoff Speed
A
Speed at which gear leave the runway
11
Q
TOD (Takeoff Distance)
A
Distance required from brake release to main gear liftoff
12
Q
SETOS (Single Engine Takeoff Speed
A
Speed at which the aircraft can climb 100’/min w/
flaps at 60%
13
Q
CEFS (Critical Engine Failure Speed)
A
Speed at which with an engine failure, you can either
SETOS or stop in same distance w/ one engine
14
Q
CFL (Critical Field Length)
A
Total runway length required to accelerate with both engines to
CEFS, experience engine failure, then either SETOS or stop in the same distance
15
Q
NACS (Normal acceleration speed check):
A
speed an average T-38 should reach at a specific
distance
16
Q
MACS (Minimum acceleration check speed):
A
Failure to reach this means other TOLD is
invalid because your plane sucks
17
Q
Best angle of climb (Gear and 60% flaps):
A
200 KCAS
18
Q
Best angle of climb (gear and no flaps):
A
220 KCAS
19
Q
Best angle of climb (Clean
A
230 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (270 KCAS on initial T/O)
20
Q
Max angle of climb (gear down, flaps 60%):
A
192 KCAS
21
Q
Max angle of climb (gear down, flaps up):
A
222 KCAS
22
Q
Max angle of climb (gear up, heavyweight):
A
267 KCAS
23
Q
Max Glide airspeed
A
230 KCAS + 1 knot per 1000 pounds of fuel
24
Q
Final turn airspeed
A
180 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)
25
Final approach airspeed
160 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)
26
Touchdown speed
135 KCAS + fuel over 1000 (+15 for no-flap)
27
Touchdown greater than ____ KCAS should not be attempted
200
28
Increase final approach and touchdown speeds by ___ the gust factor
1/2
29
T38 glide ratio
10.2 : 1
30
Max range AOA
0.18
31
Max endurance AOA
0.3
32
Thunderstorm penetration airspeed:
280 knots
33
Tech order climb schedule ___ KCAS at sea level minus ___ KCAS for per ____ feet
500, 30, 5000
34
Maximum permissible sink rate on landing (without crab) is ____ FPM
340
35
Holding Airspeed
250 - 265 KCAS
36
___ lbs fuel per radar pattern (this is a conservative estimate for Form 70 purposes)
400
37
___ lbs for Falls pattern
400
38
T/O is with ____ lbs, plan to arrive at MOA with ____ lbs
3600, 3000
39
____ lbs to go around container at KSPS
250
40
Closed pull up uses ____ lbs
125
41
Fuel low level light comes on after ___ seconds below ___ lbs
7.5, 250
42
Min fuel: less than ___ lbs of fuel
600 lbs
43
Emergency fuel: Less than ___ lbs of fuel
400 lbs
44
Crossfeed is recommended with fuel imbalance of __ lbs or more
200
45
Crossfeed is NOT recommended when:
* Boost pump failure
* Indicator failure
* Leak
* Low altitude
* Low fuel
46
Pushing start arms ignition circuit for ___ seconds
30
47
Gearbox shift occurs at ____ RPM range
65-75%
48
Battery provides ___ volts and DC rectifiers provide __ volts
24, 28
49
AC generators cut in between ___
43-48%
50
Min battery voltage required to close batt relay: ___ volts, won’t start if voltage is between __ volts and ___ volts
18, 18, 10
51
Battery energizes DC bus for ___ minutes at ___ power
15 min, 80%
52
XFMR RECT OUT comes on if _______
both TRUs fail
53
AC Instruments:
* Fuel quantity indicators
* Fuel flow indicators
* Oil pressure indicators
* Hydraulic Pressure indicators
* Oxygen Quantity Gauge
54
DC instruments:
* EGT
* Nozzle position
* Flap indicator
* Standby ADI
55
Hydr Press Low comes on at ___PSI, goes back out when above ___ PSI
1500, 1800
56
Powered by ________
8th stage bleed air
57
Left Hydraulic system is _____ Hydraulic System and contains:
Utility
* F light controls
* A ugmentor
* N osewheel Steering
* G ear
* S peed brake
58
Right Hydraulic system is ______Hydraulic System and controls
Flight control
flight controls
(ailerons, rudder, horizontal tail)
59
Less than ___º C, icing conditions exist (turn on anti-ice)
4
60
Pitot heat cannot be on for more than ___ seconds on the ground to preclude bad things
30
61
Gravity flow guaranteed up to ____ altitude
6000'
62
Landing gear extension and retraction takes __ seconds, under windmilling hydraulics can take up to ____
6, 1 min
63
Gear horn comes on when gear is not down and locked and less than ____, ______, and both throttles below _____
210 knots, 10,000 feet MSL, 96%
64
Alternate landing gear extension requires _____ of pull and _____ seconds to extend
10 inches, 15-35
65
Delay takeoff a minimum of ___ minutes behind ____ aircraft and ___ minutes behind ____ aircraft
2, large, 4, heavy
66
Normal rotation is ___ KCAS and takeoff is at ___ KCAS
145, 165
67
Anti-ice is always operating below __ regardless of switch position
65%
68
0 G flight is restricted to ___ seconds due to oil supply
Negative G flight is restricted to ___ seconds due to oil supply
10, 30
69
Radar altimeter is limited to ____ of pitch/roll and doesn’t work above ___ feet AGL
45 degrees, 5000'
70
Radar altimeter is accurate to _______, whichever is greater
+/- 2 feet or 2%,
71
Pressurization: A cabin pressure of ______ is maintained from _______
8000 feet +/- 1000, 8000 to FL230
72
T5 system initiates after _____
97% RPM
73
Left engine contains _____ fuel
1916 lbs
74
Right engine contains _____ fuel
1990 lbs
75
____ engine cannot be more than ___________________ in solo flight
Right, two times the amount of fuel in the left tank
76
____ total through single point refueling
3906 lbs
77
Normal fuel pressure
10 psi
78
When does Low fuel PRESS light come on?
6 psi
79
A minimum RPM of ____ is required to achieve engine fuel flow
12-14%
80
_____ is the heart of the air start envelope (any altitude)
18-20% RPM
81
How long to wait after aborted start?
2 min
82
If EGT doesn’t rise within _____ of fuel flow indication, abort the start
12 seconds
83
Engines are most efficient between ______
90% and 95% RPM
84
Avoid max thrust dives when below ____ in either tank
650 lbs
85
Set ____ fuel flow to maintain whatever your current speed is
1100 lbs
86
If you RAM/DUMP, you will lose/not lose:
* D efog
* C anopy Seals
* G -suits
* A ir Conditioning
* P ressurization
You will not lose:
* + Engine anti-ice
* 2 Hydraulic Reservoirs
87
Solos to Pattern only weather
4000’/5 mile vis
88
Dual only weather
Min ceiling 3500’/3 mile vis
89
Restricted pattern weather:
What is special about restricted pattern?
Min 2300’/3 mile vis
- Only entry from initial T/O or straight in
- 8 AC max in pattern
- Breakouts not available
90
Instruments weather:
Min 2000’/3 mile vis
91
Sim Instruments weather:
Min 500’/2 mile vis
(Alternate and Touchdown fuel if below 1500’/3 mile vis)
92
Alternating Instruments weather
Min ceiling and visibility of the lowest compatible approach
93
High pattern requirements (other):
4000’/3 mile vis
94
Min Falls weather:
2300’/3 miles (restricted pattern)
95
Comer 1 & 2 MDA:
6500 Feet
96
Radar Pattern alt:
5000 feet
97
High pattern alt:
4500 feet
98
Breakout Altitude and Heading:
4000 feet, 240
99
VFR pattern altitude:
2800 feet
100
Departure end of runway altitude restriction:
2300 feet
101
Restricted low approach minimum:
1500 feet
102
Pattern base heading
060
103
Pattern crosswind heading
240
104
Begin the closed pull-up with a minimum of ___ KCAS and maintain a minimum of___ throughout
240, 200
105
When doing a closed pull up, ensure that anyone on inside downwind is > __ off, and ____ feet away
45º, 3000
106
Break zone:
first 3000 ft of runway
107
When u cannot break?
- Straight-in between 9 and 4 miles
- Unable to follow last aircraft on inside downwind with sufficient spacing
108
When u cannot request closed?
- Straight-in between 9 and 4 miles
- Aircraft between 3-mile initial/initial and the break
109
Inside downwind speed:
220 knots
110
Normal Final turn parameters:
* 2/3 ground, 1/3 sky
* FPM 6º - 8º nose low
* 45º bank minimum
* Power 88 - 90%
* 3000 - 3500 VVI
111
No-flap Final turn parameters:
* 1/2 ground, 1/2 sky
* FPM 4º - 4º nose low
* 45º bank minimum
* Power 88 - 90%
* 2500 VVI
112
ICAO Point: 15R
450
113
ICAO point 15C
451
114
ICAO point 33L
452
115
ICAO point 33C
453
116
ICAO point Alpha
401
117
ICAO point Bravo
402
118
ICAO point Charlie
403
119
Dont aerobreak when faster than how many knots?
130
120
Don’t apply brakes unless you’re in a ____ landing attitude or the nose gear will slam the ground
3 point
121
EGI check:
- ACCR < 7
* FOM < 3
* SAT = 4 (or more)
