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RAD415 PT2 > non-trauma MSK pathology on imaging > Flashcards

non-trauma MSK pathology on imaging Flashcards

1
Q

what is ossification

A

bone formation

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2
Q

what areas of the bone undergo bone growth

A

epiphyseal plates

found :
- distal physis
- proximal physis
- apophyses

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3
Q

what is the apophyses of the bone

A

Apophyses are growth zones attached to the shaft (corpus) of larger bones

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4
Q

what age range do secondary ossification (of epiphyseal and apophyseal plates) occur

A

4 - 17

everything should be ossified by 17

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5
Q

at what age does the 3 parts of the pelvis combine to form the acetabulum / triradiate cartilage

A

14-16

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6
Q

at what age does the distal and Proximal femoral, tibial and fibular growth plates fuse

A

16 - 20

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7
Q

what age range do the growth plates on the shafts of meta carpals/tarsals and phalanges fuse

A

14-21

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8
Q

age range of growth plate fusion of the humerus, radius and ulna

A

14 -19

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9
Q

age range of growth plate fusion of medial border of scapula and iliac crest

A

20

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10
Q

what are accessory ossicles and sesamoid bones

A

accessory ossicles = well-corticated bony structures found close to bones or a joint.

sesamoid bones = a small bone commonly found embedded within a muscle or tendon near joint surfaces,

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11
Q

what is the commonly found ossicle in the lateral head of the gastrocnemius muscle (calves)

A

fabella

  • seen as small round bone behind lateral side of femur/knee on radiograph
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12
Q

what structure of the femur does the fabella articulate with

A
  • medial or lateral femoral condyle
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13
Q

what is the name of the common ossicle/accessory ossicle found posterior to the talus

A

os trigonum

(posterior process of talus is sometimes ossified from separate centre forming the os trigonometry)

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14
Q

what is an ununited apophysis

A

apophyses that has not fused, can be mistaken for a fracture

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15
Q

what is a phlebolith

A
  • calcification within venous structures, commonly found in pelvis
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16
Q

how does a phlebolith show on scans

A
  • focal calcifications, often with radiolucent centres
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17
Q

what is a nutrient foramen

A

a small tunnel through the cortex of a long bone containing a nutrient artery that supplies the bone

  • can be mistaken for fracture
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18
Q

how can you tell the difference between a nutrient foramen or a fracture

A

Comparing to fracture lines, nutrient artery canals show less radiolucency, smaller diameter, and blunted ends in both the cortex and medullary cavity, show sclerotic walls in the cortex and have the less straight course in the medullary cavity.

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19
Q

what is a bipartite patella

A

a congenital condition (present at birth) that occurs when the patella (kneecap) is made of two bones instead of a single bone.

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20
Q

how can you tell if its a bipartite patella or fracture

A

A bipartite patella has usually been present for a long time, so the bony edges will be wider or sclerotic. However, a fracture would have well-defined and sharp edges that are not sclerotic in most circumstances.

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21
Q

what is dextrocardia

A

the heart is positioned on the right side of the chest instead of its normal position on the left side.

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22
Q

what is situs inverses totalis

A

a rare congenital abnormality characterized by a mirror-image transposition of both the abdominal and the thoracic organs

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23
Q

what is a horse shoe kidney

A

a condition in which the kidneys are fused together at the lower end or base.

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24
Q

what is avascular necrosis

A

a disease that results from the temporary or permanent loss of blood supply to the bone

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25
Q

whats perths disease

A

Blood supply to the head of the femur is disrupted which causes the bone to deteriorate.

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26
Q

what is kienbock disease (AVN lunate)

A
  • osteonecrosis of lunate
    death of bone tissue of lunate
  • it can lead to tiny breaks in the bone and cause the bone to collapse
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27
Q

how can you tell a kienbock disease from a radiograph

A

lunate looks like its in several pieces, crumbly looking

28
Q

what is kohler disease (AVN navicular)

A
  • avascular necrosis to navicular
29
Q

who does kohlers disease happen to and how/why

A

pediatrists
- thought to be caused by the compression of the navicular bone prior to ossification. This leads to blood flow abnormalities resulting in avascular necrosis.

30
Q

what is myositis ossificans

A

bone tissue forms within muscle

  • condition stems from injury
31
Q

what can cause myositis ossificans

A

when a bruise, repetitive trauma or strain occurs to muscle

32
Q

what is heterotopic ossificans

A

a frequent complication in the rehabilitation setting which consists of the formation of mature, lamellar bone in the extraskeletal soft tissue where bone does not usually exist.

33
Q

myositis ossificans is the most common form of heterotopic ossificans

A
34
Q

what is bone infarction

A

osteonecrosis within metaphysics or diaphysis of bone

35
Q

how can you spot bone infarct on radiogrpah

A
  • looks cloudy/ contusion in shaft of bone
  • looks like theres scrunched up paper in bone shaft
36
Q

what is ischaemia

A

is a condition in which blood flow (and thus oxygen) is restricted or reduced in a part of the body

37
Q

what is a unicameral bone cyst, where is this commonly found

A

benign bone tumour / common benign tumor-like bone lesions

  • proximal end of humerus and femur
38
Q

what is a fallen fragment sign

A

presence of a bone fracture fragment resting dependently in a cystic bone lesion. (unicameral bone cust)

39
Q

what is (multiple)/enchondroma also known as Ollier disease

A

greater than normal growth of the cartilage in the long bones of the legs and arms so that growth is abnormal and the outer layer (cortical bone) of the bone becomes thin and more fragile.

40
Q

what is fibrous cortical defect

A
  • benign bony lesion
  • usually found in distal femur, proximal and distal tibia

’ dont touch ‘ lesion

41
Q

what do you label a lesion larger than 2cm

A

non-ossifying fibroma

( also a ‘dont touch’ lesion )

42
Q

what is osteochondromas

A
  • an overgrowth of cartilage and bone that happens at the end of the bone near the growth plate.
43
Q

what is mixed sclerosis bone dysplasia

A

multiple, round or oval, sclerotic foci at epiphysis of long bones, carpus, tarsus, pelvis and scapulae

44
Q

what is sclerosis of bone

A

Bone sclerosis is a focal, multifocal, or diffuse increase in the density of the bone matrix

45
Q

what is osteopoikilosis

A

sclerosing bony dysplasia characterised by multiple benign enostoses (small area of compact bone within the cancellous bone)

46
Q

where does osteopoikilosis often affect

A

shoulder, elbow, hands, pelvis, knee, feet

47
Q

what is melorheostosis

A

new bone tissue to grow on your existing outer bone layers (cortical bones).

48
Q

what is pagets disease

A
  • thickening, sclerosis and increased trabeculation of whole left pelvis
49
Q

what is osteomyelitis

A

an inflammation or swelling of bone tissue that is usually the result of an infection.

50
Q

how can you identify osteomyelitis on radiogrpahy

A
  • dark jagged appearance in areas of bone
51
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia

A
  • happens when abnormal fibrous (scar-like) tissue replaces healthy bone.
  • The fibrous tissue weakens the bone over time, which can lead to fractures (breaks) and misshapen bones.
52
Q

what does fibrous dysplasia look like on scan

A
  • bones can look curved (as its weak)
  • with a scrunched pattern/ scar like tissue
53
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

a degenerative joint disease, in which the tissues in the joint break down over time.

54
Q

how can you identify osteoarthritis on scan

A
  • decreased joint space / no joint space
55
Q

whats rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • immune system attacks the joints, beginning with the lining of joints.
  • joint space reduction
    and
  • bone erosion
56
Q

what is the difference between the location of where RA and OA tends to happen

A

RA = more in smaller joints e.g wrists

OA = larger joints e.g knees

57
Q

how can you identify rheumatoid osteoarthritis on scan

A
  • joint space reduction
  • bone erosion
  • swelling
58
Q

what is gout

A

inflammatory arthritis

  • causes pain and swelling in joints
59
Q

how can you identify gout on scan

A
  • punched out bone lesion and or sclerosis of margin
  • rat bite from erosion of long standing
  • overhanding margin
  • large swelling around joints
60
Q

what is multiple myeloma

A

blood cancer that develops in plasma cells in the bone marrow

61
Q

what does multiple myeloma look like on scan

A
  • many small dark spots across bone
62
Q

what is a lytic metastases

A

distant tumour deposits of a primary tumour within bone characterised by a loss of bone with the destruction of the bone matrix.

63
Q

what is sclerotic metastases

A

distant tumour deposits of a primary tumour within bone characterised by new bone deposition or new bone formation

64
Q

be aware that there can be different pathology depending on the age range, even if image looks similar, it can be different pathology

A
65
Q

lytic = dark on scans (lacking)

sclerotic = bright on scans (growth/thickening)

A
66
Q

what is chondroblastoma

A

a benign, chondroid-producing neoplasm composed of chondroblasts

67
Q
A

RAD415 PT2 (14 decks)

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