Notes 2A Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

Fencer’s posture in a seizure is assoc with and indicates activation of?

A

frontal lobe epilepsy and indicated activation of the supplementary motor area

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2
Q

Gabapentin can worsen what seizures?

A

Generalized, especially myoclonus

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3
Q

MOA of gabapentin?

A

Works by interacting with the alpha2-omega subunit of presynaptic L-type voltage-regulated calcium channel
Pregabalin has a higher bioavailability

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4
Q

Risk of patient with simple febrile seizures will develop epilepsy?

A

5%

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5
Q

Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures + is assoc with what gene

A

SCN1A mutation (alpha subunit of a sodium channel)

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6
Q

Progressive myoclonic epilepsy are due to (2)
features
treatment?

A
  • lysosomal or mitochondrial disorders
  • cognitive decline, myoclonus (epilepstic and non epileptic), and seizures, and may be associated with ataxia or movement disorders
    VPA is first line always
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7
Q

VPA is a P450 inducer or inhibitor?

A

inhibitor

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8
Q

Normal PDR is seen at what age?

A

8-10

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9
Q

Ranges for each frequency on EEG

A

Beta > 14 Hz, alpha 8 - 13 Hz, delta 4-7 Hz, omega < 4 Hz

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10
Q

EEG in JME

A

4-6 Hz polyspike and wave

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11
Q

Benign rolandic epilepsy (also aka benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes): EEG findings

A

bilateral independent centrotemporal spikes on normal background

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12
Q

West Syndrome triad?

A

Hypsarrhythmia
Infantile Spasms
psychomotor arrest/aggression

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13
Q

Causes of West Syndrome? Treatment?

A

ischemic injuries, brain malformations, congenital or acquired infections, chromosomal abnormalities, and inborn errors of metabolism

ACTH or Vigabtrin

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14
Q

Lamotrigine and OCP interaction

A

Only OCPs with estrogen ethinylestradiol interact -> inc clearance/decreases blood concentration of LTG

Progesterone containing OCPs are gucci

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15
Q

MOA of lacosamide

A

slow inactivation of voltage gated Na channels

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16
Q

Rufinamide: MOA, cleared by, approved for?

A

Na channels: prolongs the inactive state of Na channels
renal clearance
adjunct tx for LGS

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17
Q

Mesial Temporal Sclerosis semiology

A
  • Behavioral arrest, preceded by aura (rising epigastric sensation, nausea, olfactory and or gustatory hallucinations, a sensation of fear or terror, or other emotional changes)
  • Autonomic manifestations: tachycardia, resp changes, face flushing, pallor…
  • Dymnesic manifestations: deja vu, deja entendu, jamais vu, jamais entendu, panoramic vision (a rapid recollection of episodes in the past)
  • Automatism (nose picking, lip smacking, chewing, and picking with the hands)
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18
Q

Aicardi Syndrome:

Inheritance

features (triad)

Boys or girls?

A

X linked dominant

Infantile spasms, chorioretinal lacunae and agenesis of the corpus callosum

lethal in boys, typically only girls

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19
Q

Doose Syndrome

Onset

features

Treatment

A

Myoclonic-astatic epilepsy

1-5yo

normal prior to seizure onset, then develop generalized seizures (myoclonic or atonic usually).

VPA is first line

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20
Q

Dravet’s Syndrome

initial pres and features

assoc with mutation of

Treatment

A

initially presents with a febrile seizure in first year of life that develops into partial or generalized sz and developmental delay

SCN1A

VPA, TPM, ZNS, ketogenic diet

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21
Q

Which drugs worsen Dravet Syndrome (4)

A

PB

Phenytoin

CBZ

LTG

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22
Q

Ohtahara Syndrome

age group

presentation

prognosis

A

Early infantile epileptic encephalopathy

1day-3mo

tonic spasms occurring multiple times a day with interictal EEG showing encephalopathy

poor prognosis

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23
Q

Benign myoclonic epilepsy of infancy

males/females

onset

features

EEG

Tx?

A

males

4mo-3y

brief myoclonic seizures that are easily treatable and do not cluster

Interictal EEG is normal

Treat with VPA, resolves in a year usually

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24
Q

Difference between Ohtahara EEG and Benign myoclonic epilepsy

A

Ohtahara has an ABNORMAL interictal EEG.

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25
Benign neonatal seizures onset features assoc with treatment
day 5ish partial tonic clonic seizures associated with apnea spells No need to treat, resolves by 4-6 weeks
26
Panayiotopoulos Syndrome Onset features EEG Tx
Early onset childhood occipital epilepsy seizures consist of tonic eye deviation and vomiting, visual auras and occur during sleep EEG with occipital spikes which disappear with eye opening and reappear with eye closure No tx needed, good prog
27
Gastaut type childhood occipital epilepsy
same as Panayiotopoulos but later onset (8yo) usually benign, AEDs sometimes needed
28
Lennox Gastaut Syndrome Features onset Tx
Triad of multiple seizure types (atypical absence, tonic, atonic, myoclonic and GTC), EEG with diffuse slow 1-2Hz spike and wave complexes, cognitive delay 1-8yo (sometimes normal before seizure onset) VPA and clonazepam are first line (can also use LTG, felbamate, TPM, vigabatrin)
29
Landau Kleffner Syndrome Features Age Tx
acquired epileptic aphasia- aphasia assoc with epileptic patterns on EEG and seizure of various types 2-11yo VPA or LTG
30
Autosomal nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy Features EEG Assoc with gene mutation? Tx
bizarre episodic behaviors in the context of hypermotor seizures (thrashing and jerking) **that occur during non-REM sleep** EEG with epileptic activity during motions **and normal interictally.** Assoc with nicotinic ACH receptors (CNRNA4 and CHRNB2) CBZ or OXC
31
Electrical Status Epilepticus during slow wave sleep (ESES) Features EEG
children with psychomotor impairment and multiple seizure types that occur more often during sleep * **EEG shows slow spikes-wave complex occurring during non-REM sleep occupying at least 85% of slow-wave sleep time**
32
Progressive Myoclonic Epilepsies (5)
* Unverricht– Lundborg syndrome * Lafora body disease * MERRF * sialidosis Type 1 and 2 * Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
33
Unverricht-Lundborg Syndrome inheritance age mutation presentation Tx
autosomal recessive 6-15yo mutation in CSTB gene to make cystatin B stimulus sensitive myoclonus, eventually progressing to focal and generalized seizures and neurologic deterioration: ataxia, tremors, cognitive decline VPA, clonazepam, LEV, ZNS
34
Which ASMs make Unverricht-Lundborg seizures worse
myoclonic so phenytoin, LTG, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, vigabatrin, tiagabine, gabapentin, and pregabalin
35
MERRF (mitochondrial epilepsy with ragged red fibers) features
mitochondrial disorder consisting of myoclonic seizures + migraine, short stature, ataxia, cog delay, deafness, elevated lactate, proximal muscle weakness suggestive of myopathy
36
Salidosis Type 1 mutation features
alpha neuraminidase deficiency action myoclonus, slowly progressive ataxia, GTC, vision loss **fundoscopic exam with cherry red spot**
37
Sialidosis Type 2 mutation features
NEU1 gene on chromosome 6 (deficiency of N-acetyl neuraminidase and beta-galactosialidase) myoclonus with coarse features, corneal clouding, hepatomegaly, skeletal dysplasia and learning disabilties.
38
Lafora Body Disease inheritance mutation features micro
auto rec EPM2A on chromosome 6 generalized and focal myoclonic seizures, transient blindness and visual hallucinations PAS+ intracellular inclusion bodies
39
Simple febrile seizure
generalized, usually isolated, and lasting less than 15 mins
40
complex febrile seizure
more than 15 mins focal features, multiple times within 24 hour period higher risk of subsequent epilepsy
41
Recurrent febrile seizures may occur if
family hx of FS \<18 mo at time of first FS lower peak temperature and shorter duration of fever prior to first FS
42
Rasmussen Encephalitis: mutation
Ab against GluR3 subunit of the AMPA receptor
43
Risk factors that increase the chance of SJS after initiation of ASMs like CBZ, LTG
Asian decent HLA-B 1502
44
Normal sleep consists of how many cycles of NREM/REM
4-6
45
Characteristics of sleep stage 1
attenuation of occipital predominant alpha rhythm can see POSTs and vertex waves
46
Characteristics of sleep stage 2
presence of K complexes, sleep spindles
47
Characteristics of sleep stage 3
slow wave sleep, delta range
48
Characteristics of REM sleep
rapid eye movements, sawtooth waves, atonic muscles (except for diaphragm and extraocular muscles)
49
Amount of time in REM sleep increases or decreases with age?
DEC
50
What drug notoriously reduces length of REM cycles and increases REM latency?
SSRI
51
OSA is diagnosed based on
AHI = complete cessation or reduction of airflow for at least 10 seconds 5-15 = mild 15-30 = mod 30+ = severe
52
REM sleep behavior disorder is highly associated with?
alpha synucleinopathies Parkinson, MSA, Lewy Body Dementia
53
Low HR in REM is a sign of
dysautonomia
54
NonREM parasomnias typically occur in what stage? Examples of these
Stage 3 confusional arousal, sleep walking, sleep terrors
55
Kleine-Levin Syndrome Features
recurrent episodes of hypersomnia that occur weeks/months apart that last for several days to weeks. Episodes consist of 18-20 hours of sleep a day, hyperphagia (eating a lot) and hyper-sexuality In between episodes patients have normal sleep behavior
56
Narcolepsy diagnostic criteria
Excessive daytime sleepiness + any of these 1. Mean sleep latency \<8 min on MSLT with \>2 sleep onset REM periods 2. REM sleep latency \< 15 mins on PSG
57
Narcolepsy with cataplexy (aka Narcolepsy Type 1) is characterized by? Assoc with
episodes with sudden loss of motor tone of voluntary muscles Assoc with low CSF hypocretin
58
Low CSF hypocretin assoc with Narcolepsy with cataplexy comes from?
loss of hypocretin int the **lateral hypothalamus** (not seen in narcolepsy without cataplexy)
59
Treatment for narcolepsy with cataplexy?
First line is **gamma-hydroxybutyrate** others are TCAs, SSRIs
60
RLS is associated with a deficiency of
iron, ferritin is typically less than 50
61
Normal Direct movement pathway
Excitatory pathway * striatum + GPi+ SNr+ thalamus * Normally causes inhibition of GPi and SNr which results in less inhibition of the thalamus and i**ncreasing thalamic outflow to the cortex**
62
Normal indirect movement pathway
Inhibitory Pathway * Striatum + GPe + STN + GPi + thalamus * In this pathway, striatum inhibits GPe cousing less inhibition of sub thalamus which will activate the GPi and SNi which will inhibit the thalamus * Ultimately the indirect pathway will **decrease the thalamic outflow to the cortex**
63
Major outflow of the basal ganglia arises in the
globus pallidus interna
64
In PD, what happens to these BG pathways?
* **the substantial nigra pars compacts projects to the striatum, inhibiting the indirect pathway and exiting the direct pathway (in the case of PD)**
65
Hyperkinetic movement disorders result from ?
reduced activity in the indirect pathway
66
Hypokinetic movement disorders result from
reduced action in the direct pathway
67
D1 receptors are involved mainly in what pathway
direct
68
D2 receptors are involved mainly in what pathway
indirect
69
PD with dementia is a diagnosis made when
the patient meets criteria for idiopathic PD for at least 1 year before dementia onset
70
Mutations involved in hereditary PD?
* **α-synuclein (PARK1 gene),** leading to abnormalities in synaptic vesicle trafficking. Autosomal dominant, young onset. * **Parkin (PARK2 gene**), a ubiquitin E3 ligase. Autosomal recessive, juvenile onset. * **Leucine-rich repeat kinase 2 (LRRK2 and PARK8 gene**). The LRRK2 mutation is one of the **most common causes of familial PD.** Autosomal dominant
71
MOA of entocapone
COMT inhibitor | (inhibit conversions of dopamine to its metabolite, extending its half life and reducing “off” periods and increasing “on” periods)
72
MOA of carbidopa
decreases conversion of peripheral dopamine so it can cross BBB
73
MOA of pramipexole and ropinirole
D2/D3 agonists
74
MOA of rasagiline and selegiline
MAO-B inhibitors
75
MOA of trihexyphenidyl
Anticholinergic used only for tremors
76
MOA of amantadine
(antagonist of NMDA): anti-glutaminergic
77
SE of dopamine agonists
sedation, LE edema, impulse control problems
78
SE of levodopa
dyskinesias and choreiform movements, which develop the longer you take the medication and as dosages increase
79
DBS for PD is effective in reducing what symptoms, and ineffective in what else?
reducing tremor and bradykinesia but not in improving gait, falls, or axial sx
80
Contraindications to DBS for PD?
cognitive dysfunction, can worsen it significantly
81
nuclei targeted in DBS for PD?
subthalamic nucleus and globus pallidus interna
82
What nuclei can be targeted with DBS in PD for tremor dominant PD?
ventral intermediate nucleus
83
Potential fatal feature that can occur in MSA is?
laryngeal dystonia
84
Hot cross buns sign is seen in? Due to?
MSA neuronal loss in the pons and pontocerebellar tracts with intact corticospinal tracts
85
Features of corticobasal syndrome
focal limb rigidity and/or dystonia, cortical myoclonus, cortical sensory loss, alien limb
86
Unilateral lesion in the substantia nigra will cause?
contralateral hemiparkinsonism
87
Toxicities that can cause parkinsonism?
Manganese and CO
88
Manganese toxicity population features imaging
seen in welders/miners, patients with chronic liver disease, and on TPN. parkinsonism, typical gait **cock walk (toe walking with elbow flexion)** hyperintense BG on T1
89
Essential tremor inheritance Tx options Resistant tx
AD propranolol, primidone are main. Then you have gabapentin, atenolol, topiramate, benzos If resistant → DBS to the ventral intermediate nucleus of thalamus
90
Huntingtons Disease mutation Tx
CAG repeat antidopaminergics like tetrabenazine and atypical antipsychotics
91
Rubral tremor features caused by
aka Holmes tremor low frequency tremor present at rest, with posture and with action lesion in the dentate nucleus of the cerebellum, or superior cerebellar peduncle
92
Tourette's Syndrome assoc with possible MOA tx
ADHD and OCD thought to involve dopaminergic hyper stimulation of the ventral striatum and limbic system Tx with antidopaminergic agents like haloperidol, pimozide, clonidine
93
Wilson's Disease mutation labs features MRI findings tx
* Mutation of gene encoding the copper transporting P type ATPase ATP7N on Xome 13 ( the enzyme usually transports copper across membranes) * low ceruloplasmin, high urine copper * parkinsonism, dystonia, tremor, ataxia, dysarthria * Double panda sign: inc T2 signal in caudate and putamen while sparing red nucleus * tx with D-penicillamine , zinc and low copper diet
94
Sydenham chorea typically after treat with
GBS infection antidopaminergics
95
Chorea acanthocytosis mutation features wet smear shows
VPS13A on chromosome 9 * orolingual dystonia, chorea, self mutilating behavior, cognitive decline with dementia, dysarthria, ophthalmoplagia, seizures acanthocytes (speculated RBCs on wet smear)
96
trick to relieve sx of focal dystonia? main treatment of dystonia
gest antagoniste * a sensory trick (geste antagoniste) such as touching the face or head or positioning the head in a specific manner against an object, may partially relieve Sx * Main tx is botox
97
Meige's Syndrome
blepharospasm + oromandibular dystonia
98
Tolosa Hunt Syndrome what is it features tx
Inflammation of cavernous sinus * episodic orbital pain associated with paralysis of one or more of the third, fourth, and/or sixth cranial nerves, which usually resolves spontaneously * responds to steroids
99
Palatal myoclonus what is it
* Audible palatal clicks due to Eustachian tube contraction * Persist during sleep * Affects the Guillain-Malloret triangle (dentate nucleus, inferior olive and the red nucleus)
100
Hemifacial spasm can be caused by?
compression of CN 7, or sometimes demyelination of CN7. Blink reflex is also usually affected.
101
Paroxysmal kinesigenic dyskinesia (PKD) features tx
episodes of hyperkinetic abnormal movements for seconds to about 5 mins (dystonia, chorea, ballism, dysarthria) with intervening normalcy responds well to ASMs, usually CBZ
102
Paroxysmal nonkinesigenic dyskinesia features
attacks last 2mins - hours do not respond well to tx
103
Paroxysmal exertion dyskinesia (PED) features mut tx
episodes of hyperkinetic abnormal movement assoc with exercise and last 5-30min mutation in GLUT-1 keto diet can decrease frequency
104
Features of dopa-responsive dystonias
**diurnal variation** sx more severe at end of day and improved in the morning. Sx also commonly start at the feet and become generalized strongly responsive to levodopa
105
Stiff person syndrome features antibody tx
* Characterized by increased tone affecting predominantly the axial muscles, including the paraspinal muscles, l**eading to exaggerated lumbar lordosis,** in addition to abdominal muscles, leading to a “board-like” abdomen, exaggerated startle response. * assoc with **GAD ab** * tx with benzos or baclofen
106
Paraneoplastic type of stiff person syndrome is assoc with
antiamphiphysin
107
Main output cell of the cerebellum? inhibitory/excitatory? NT?
purkinje inhib GABA
108
alcohol predominantly affects what part of the cerebellum and thus causes?
midline vermis truncal ataxia
109
Freidrich's ataxia inheritance, mutation features
AR GAA repeat in gene that encodes frataxin on chromosome 9 cerebellar dysfunction, neuropathy, upper motor neuron findings, high-arched feet and spinal deformities, **Cardiac involvement (conduction abnormalities and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)**
110
What med can improve the HCM seen in Friedrich's ataxia
Idebenone, a Coenzyme q10 analog
111
Which medications can worsen absence seizures?
Phenytoin, gabapentin, carbamazepine, and LTG
112
Formula for replacing phenytoin/VPA?
(target level (15) - current level) X (weight in KG x volume of distribution(usually 0.8)) For example in someone who is 75kg and level of 10, would need 300mg load. Depakote is same formula except volume of distribution is 0.2
113
Name the CYP inducers?
CBZ PB PHY OXC vigabatrin
114
which receptor do benzos act on?
GABA-A receptors
115
MOA of lacosamide (more specific)
enhances slow inactivation of voltage dependent sodium channels, resulting in inhibition of neural firing and stabilization of hyperexcitable neuronal membranes. **It is also known to interfere with CRMP-2 (collapsing response mediator transporter-2), a cell protein involved in neuronal differentiation and axonal guidance.
116
gelastic seizures originate where?
hypothalamus