NPLEX I Flashcards
1
Q
The femoral artery passes through the adductor hiatus and becomes the _____ artery.
A
Popliteal
2
Q
At what level of the cervical plexus does the phrenic nerve arise?
A
C3-C5
3
Q
Which vein originates from the dorsal vein of the great toe and empties into the femoral vein?
A
Great saphenous vein
4
Q
What is the primary function of the semilunar valves?
A
Prevents back flow into the ventricles during diastole
5
Q
The presence of Reed Sternberg cells would be indicative of what diagnosis?
A
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
6
Q
Which artery supplies the temporal artery?
A
External carotid artery
7
Q
What is the most common cause of congestive heart failure?
A
Atherosclerosis
8
Q
Where is Angiotensin-converting enzyme primarily located?
A
Capillaries of the lungs
9
Q
The aortic valve is derived from what embryological structure?
A
Truncus arteriosus
10
Q
The opening of the left coronary artery is found in what portion of the aortic valve?
A
Left sinus
11
Q
Which heart valve is most commonly affected in rheumatic heart disease?
A
Mitral valve
12
Q
On which layer of the heart are vegetations found in cases of rheumatic heart disease?
A
Endocardium
13
Q
What are the monosaccharides?
A
Glucose, fructose, galactose, mannose
14
Q
What are the disaccharides?
A
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
15
Q
Sucrose is formed by ____.
A
Glucose + fructose via a1-B2
16
Q
Lactose is formed by____.
A
Galactose + glucose via B1-4
17
Q
Maltose is formed by ____.
A
Glucose + glucose via a1-4
18
Q
Pathogenesis and presentation of xeroderma pigmentosum
A
Defective nucleotide excision repair → inability to repair DNA pyrimidine dimers caused by UV exposure
Presentation: photosensitivity, skin cancer, dry skin
19
Q
What are the cytoskeletal elements?
A
Microfilaments: actin, microvilli
Intermediate filaments: desmin, neurofliaments
Microtubules: cilia, flagella, mitotic spindle
20
Q
Which step in collagen synthesis requires vitamin C?
A
Hydroxylation - strengthening of the collagen (proline and lysine residues)
21
Q
Inheritance pattern of osteogenesis imperfecta
A
Autosomal dominant
22
Q
Most common gene defect in osteogenesis imperfecta
A
COL1A1 and COL1A2 - leading to a decrease in the production of otherwise normal type I collagen
23
Q
Pathogenesis of ehlers-danlos syndrome
A
Faulty collagen synthesis
24
Q
Presentation of Ehlers-danlos syndrome
A
Hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, tendency to bleed (easy bruising)
25
Pheochromocytomas arise from the _____ cells
Chromafin
26
The adrenal medulla mostly secretes which catecholamine into the blood stream during acute stress?
Epinephrine
27
Where is the organ of Zuckerkandl located?
Origin of the inferior mesenteric artery
28
The first rate-limiting step of catecholamine synthesis is catalyzed by which enzyme?
Tyrosine hydroxylase
29
The pituitary gland is seated in the fossa of the sella turcica of the ______ bone.
Sphenoid
30
The anterior pituitary comes from the _____, which is an invagination of the roof of the oral cavity.
Rathke pouch
31
A pheochromocytoma is a tutor that is generally found in which part of the body?
Adrenal medulla
32
What are the cofactors used in the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine by dopamine beta-hydroxylase?
Vitamin C
| Copper
33
Which enzyme is the rate limiting step in the synthesis of catecholamine?
Tyrosine hydroxylase
34
In normal functioning beta cell, insulin secretion is stimulated by membrane depolarization and resultant influx of what ion?
Calcium
35
The blood supply to the tail of the pancreas comes from which artery?
Splenic
36
Where are most of the Calcium ions absorbed in the kidneys?
Proximal tubule
37
Conversion of iodide ions to iodine within the apical membrane of a follicular cell requires what molecule?
Hydrogen peroxide
38
The pancreas is supplied with blood from the _____ and the _____.
Celiac trunk
| Superior mesenteric artery
39
Which hormone directly suppresses insulin release?
Somatostatin
40
The pancreas begins to secrete insulin and glucagon by week ____ in a fetus
11-20
41
Which human leukocyte antigen is associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
HLA-DR5
42
Which artery mainly supplies the proximal duodenum?
Inferior mesenteric artery
43
Mineral corticoids are produced in which part of the adrenal gland?
Zona glomerulosa
44
Where are aldosterone receptors found in the kidney?
Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
45
Which type of cells produce stomach acid?
Parietal cells
46
What is the most common complication of GERD?
Esophagitis
47
What is the most serious complication of long-standing GERD?
Barrett esophagus
48
Barrett esophagus is identified by the conversion of distal squamous esophageal epithelium to _____.
Columnar epithelium
49
What are the three divisions of the endoderm?
Foregut, midgut, hindgut
50
The arteries that supply the stomach originate from which artery coming off of the abdominal aorta?
Celiac artery
51
What is the proper order of the layers of the muscular external in the stomach from innermost to outermost?
Oblique, circular, longitudinal
52
What do D cells found in the pyloric glands of the stomach produce?
Somatostatin
53
Function of Somatostatin
Inhibits gastrin release from nearby G cells
54
What are the virulence factors of H. pylori?
CagA toxin, urease activity, adhesins
55
A 36 year old female presents with severe abdominal pain that radiates to her back. Lab report shows increased serum amylase and hypocalcemia. The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. What is the cause of her hypocalcemia?
Calcium deposition in fatty acid-calcium soaps
Acute pancreatitis is associated with fat necrosis in which the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from TG's. These fatty acids then complex with calcium to form soaps thereby lowering calcium levels.
56
The pancreas receives parasympathetic signals from which nerve?
Vagus
57
The pancreas receives sympathetic signals from which nerve?
Splanchnic
58
Which pancreatic cells secrete enzymes?
Acinar cells
59
Which hormone is released in response to consumption of proteins and fats and stimulates the release of enzymes?
Cholecystokinin
60
What is the only muscle that is innervated by cranial nerve 9 - that lies in the oropharynx?
Stylopharyngeus
61
In the enteric nervous system, what is the submucosal (Meissner's) plexus responsible for?
Blood flow and secretion
62
In the enteric nervous system, what is the myenteric (Auerbach's) plexus responsible for?
Motility
63
The anterior ligament that separates the left from the right lobe of the liver is known as the _____.
Falciform ligament
64
What type of cells lines the esophagus?
Stratified squamous cells
65
What cellular changes are seen in Barrett esophagus?
Metaplasia of the lower esophageal epithelium - complete replacement of the stratified squamous cells with columnar epithelium
66
What nucleus within the medusa oblongata controls swallowing?
Solitary
67
Which nerve provides the primary innervation for the esophagus?
Vagus (recurrent laryngeal branches)
68
Which transporter is involved with fructose absorption in the intestine?
GLUT5
69
Which lactate dehydrogenase enzyme is elevated in liver failure?
LDH-5
70
Which vessel delivers blood to the liver?
Portal vein
71
Which part of the intestinal system does celiac disease effect?
Duodenum and jejunum
72
Lymphatics from the appendix drain directly into the _____ lymph nodes
Ileocolic
73
What is the first rate-limiting and committing step in bile acid synthesis?
7 alpha-hydroxylase
74
The common bile duct is formed by the union of the ____ duct and the ____ duct.
Cystic, hepatic
75
Which gene is associated with polycythemia vera?
JAK2
76
What is the key regulatory enzyme of heme synthesis?
ALA synthase
77
Which interleukin is needed to form B lymphocytes from their lymphoid progenitors?
IL-7
78
Rheumatoid arthritis is considered a _______ hypersensitivity reaction.
Type III
79
How many sesamoid bones
3
80
Which muscle abducts digits, flexes the metacarpophalangeal joints and extends interphalangeal joints in the 2nd digit?
Dorsal interossei
81
Which joint change is common in rheumatoid arthritis?
Boutonniere deformity
82
Most common causative organism of acute and chronic pyogenic osteomyelitis in children and adults.
Staphylococcus aureus
83
Which nerve innervates the extensor hallucis breves muscle?
Deep peroneal nerve
84
Which amino acid is the primary donor of the nitrogen atoms that make up urea?
Glutamate
85
Which posterior crural muscle connects to the posterior head of the fibula and calcaneus?
Soleus
86
Inheritance pattern of Marfan syndrome
Autosomal dominant
87
Pathology of Marfan syndrome
Connective tissue disease affects the heart, skeleton and eye - FBN1 gene mutation on chromosome 15 = defective fibrillin-1
88
Inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis
Autosomal recessive - defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7
89
Pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis
CFTR encodes for Cl channel that secretes Cl in lungs and GI tract → gene defect = misfolded protein → CFTR protein absent from cell membrane → decreased Cl secretion → increased intracellular Cl → compensatory increase in sodium → increased water → abnormally thick mucus secreted into lungs and GI tract
90
Common findings in cystic fibrosis
Recurrent pulmonary infections, chronic bronchitis and bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption with steatorrhea, fat soluble vitamin deficiencies, meconium ileum in newborns, infertility in males
91
What leads to infertility in males with cystic fibrosis?
Absence of vas deferens
92
Most common microbes leading to recurrent infections in patients with cystic fibrosis
Children: S. aureus
Adults: P. aeruginosa
93
Inheritance pattern of Duchenne muscular dystrophy
X-linked recessive
94
Pathophysiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Deleted dystrophin protein → dystrophin helps anchor muscle fibres, primarily in the skeletal and cardiac muscle
95
Inheritance pattern of fragile X syndrome
X-linked dominant inheritance
96
What organs does the digestion of fat soluble vitamins depend on?
Ileum and pancreas
97
What type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency?
Macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia
98
Vitamin K is necessary for the maturation of which clotting factors?
II, VII, IX, X, proteins C and S
99
Where is ethanol converted to acetaldehyde?
Cytosol
100
Where is acetaldehyde converted to acetate?
Mitochondria
101
Which enzyme converts ethanol to acetaldehyde in ethanol metabolism?
Alcohol dehydrogenase
102
Which enzyme converts acetaldehyde to acetate in ethanol metabolism?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
103
Rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis and its controls
Phosphofructokinase 1
Activated: AMP, fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
Inactivated: ATP, citrate
104
Rate limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis and its controls
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase 1
| Inactivated: AMP, fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
105
Rate limiting enzyme of TCA cycle and its controls
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Activated: ADP
Inactivated: ATP, NADH
106
Rate limiting enzyme of glycogenesis and its controls
Glycogen synthase
Activated: insulin, cortisol, G6P
Inactivated: epinephrine, glucagon
107
Rate limiting enzyme of glycogenolysis and its controls
Glycogen phosphorylase
Activated: epinephrine, glucagon, AMP
Inactivated: G6P, insulin, ATP
108
Rate limiting enzyme of HMP shunt and its controls
G6PD
Activated: NADP
Inactivated: NADPH
109
Rate limiting enzyme of urea cycle and its controls
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
| Inactivated: N-acetylglutamate
110
Rate limiting enzyme of FA synthesis and its controls
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Activated: insulin, citrate
Inactivated: glucagon, palmitoyl-CoA
111
Rate limiting enzyme of FA oxidation and its controls
Carnitine acyltransferase I
| Inactivated: malonyl-CoA
112
Rate limiting enzyme of ketogenesis and its controls
HMG-CoA synthase
113
Rate limiting enzyme of cholesterol synthesis and its controls
HMG-CoA reductase
Activated: insulin, thyroxine, estrogen
Inactivated: glucagon, cholesterol
114
How many ATP are produced from one glucose molecule in aerobic metabolism?
32 via heart and liver
| 30 via muscle
115
How many ATP are produced from one glucose molecule in anaerobic metabolism?
2 ATP
116
During embryogenesis where do melanocytes originate from?
Neural crest
117
What is the most common type of mutation produced by UV irradiation that may lead to melanoma?
Cyclobutane pyrimidine dimer
118
UVB converts 7-dehydrocholesterol into ______ within the skin
Cholecalciferol
119
Name the endogenous pyrogens
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha
120
______ is produced by T-cells to inhibit viral replication
Interferon
121
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune attack on ______.
Desmoglein
122
Which amino acid can increase herpes simplex viral breakouts?
Arginine
123
What organism causes most boils, carbuncles and impetigo?
Staphylococcus aureus
124
The epidermis is formed from which embryological germ layer?
Ectoderm
125
What is the embryological origin of melanocytes?
Neural crest cells
126
During wound healing, which mineral is necessary for the enzymatic cross linking of collagen in the extracellular matrix?
Copper
127
What is the normal skin pH?
Ranges between 4-6
128
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is allergic contact dermatitis?
Type IV delayed type hypersensitivity
129
What are the two phases in the development of delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
sensitization and elicitation
130
Melanocytes are located in which layer of the epidermis?
Stratum basale
131
Which type of collagen fibres accumulate in the tissues in cases of scleroderma?
Type III
132
Which enzyme is responsible for the cross linking of collagen and elastin fibres?
Protein-lysine 6-oxidase
133
What cofactors does protein-lysine 6 oxidase use?
copper and vitamin C
134
Langer's lines of tension in the skin are found in what layer of the dermis?
Reticular layer
135
Wilm's tumor is associated with mutations in the WT1 gene on which chromosome?
11
136
Where are podocytes located?
Bowman's capsule
137
Where are the renal pyramids located in the kidney?
Medulla
138
What are the most common epithelial cells lining the prostate gland?
Simple columnar or cuboidal and they may look pseudostratefied
139
Which nerve cell supplies myelin?
Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
140
Which cranial nerve is involved in diplopia associated with MS?
CN 6
141
What is the order of flow of CSF from its origin to the point at which it enters the bloodstream?
Choroid plexus, lateral ventricle, third ventricle, cerebral aqueduct, fourth ventricle, subarachnoid space, arachnoid villi, dural venous sinuses
142
The middle meningeal layer that envelopes the brain and spinal cord is called the ______.
Arachinoid mater
143
What structure allows CSF to exit the sub-arachnoid space and enter the bloodstream?
Arachnoid villi
144
Wilson's disease is an _______ genetic disease of _______ metabolism.
Autosomal recessive
| Copper
145
Which protein is deficient in Wilson's disease?
Ceruloplasmin
146
When EPS symptoms occur, which part of the brain is damaged?
Basal ganglia
147
Which gyrus is located in the posterior parietal lobe?
Angular
148
In what layer of the epithelium are the ceruminous glands found?
Dermis
149
What event occurs when the cilia on the hair cells of the Organ of Corti bend?
Opening of potassium channels within the hair cells
150
Where does the first synapse and subsequent decussation occur within the auditory pathway?
Cochlear nuclei of the medulla
151
Where are the neurofibrillary tangles primarily found in the brain?
Cerebral cortex
152
The hippocampus is located in the ______ lobe of the brain.
Temporal
153
What is the role of acetylcholine transferase?
Combines choline and acetyl-CoA in the cytoplasm to form acetylcholine
154
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?
Degrades acetylcholine into choline and acetate
155
What brain cell type is responsible for relaying nutrients from the bloodstream to the neuron?
Astrocytes
156
At what level does the spinal cord terminate?
L2
157
What is the most frequent cause of intracranial hemorrhage?
Hypertension
158
The internal aspect of the tympanic membrane is covered by what type of epithelium?
Cuboidal epithelium
159
The epithelial lining of the auditory tubes is derived from what germ cell layer?
Endoderm
160
The fluid balance of the ear is very delicate. The endolymph is ____ rich while the perilymph is ____ rich.
K+, Na+
161
ALS involves the degeneration of the _____.
Upper and lower motor neurons
162
Which nerve innervates the biceps brachii muscle?
Musculocutaneous nerve
163
Which nerve innervates the triceps brachii and ancones muscles?
Radial nerve
164
Which nerve innervates the deltoid and theres minor muscles?
Axillary nerve
165
90% of the corticospinal fibres cross over in which area to form the lateral corticospinal tract?
Caudal medullary pyramids
166
The patellar DTR tests which spinal nerve root?
L4
167
The biceps DTR tests which spinal nerve root?
C5, C6
168
The brachioradialis DTR tests which spinal nerve root?
C6
169
The triceps DTR tests which spinal nerve root?
C7
170
The achilles DTR tests which spinal nerve root?
S1
171
Which fissure separates the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung?
The oblique fissure
172
Which vessels supply the lung tissue with oxygenated blood?
The bronchial arteries
173
Where is the cardiac notch located?
Anteroinferior edge of the left superior lobe of the lung
174
What are the only arteries in the blood that carry deoxygenated blood?
Pulmonary arteries
175
How many cartilages does the larynx have?
9
176
What cofactor does nitric oxide require in its synthesis?
Biopterin
177
Which prostate zone contains the main glands?
Peripheral
178
The prostate produces _______ to liquefy coagulated semen to enable the sperm to swim
Fibrinolysin
179
The penis receives innervation from ____ spinal segments via the pudendal nerve and pelvic plexi
S2-S4
180
The glans penis is a distal expansion of the ______.
Corpus spongiosum
181
LH is secreted by the ______, and stimulates ovarian ______.
Anterior pituitary
| Theca cells
182
What stimulates spermatogonia and leads to the formation of primary spermatocytes?
FSH
183
The spermatozoa travel from the ____ to the efferent ductules.
Rete testis
184
What begins to guide the testes down through the inguinal canals and facilitates their migration?
Gubernacula
185
Which ligament pulls the fundus of the uterus anteriorly?
Round ligament
186
What ligament attaches the ovaries to the lateral abdominal walls?
Suspensory ligament
187
The kidneys are located between which spinal levels?
T11-L3
188
Glucokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the _____ and is inhibited by ______.
Liver
| Fructose 6 phosphate
189
Hexokinase phosphorylates glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the ______ and is inhibited by _____.
Most tissues except liver
| Glucose 6 phosphate
190
Glycolysis occurs in the ______.
Cytoplasm
191
Glucokinase is inhibited by ________.
Fructose 6 P
192
Hexokinase is inhibited by ______.
Glucose 6 P
193
Anaerobic glycolysis yields ______.
Lactate
194
Aerobic glycolysis yields _______.
Acetyl CoA
195
Glucagon _______ blood glucose
Increases
196
Insulin _______ blood glucose
Decreases
197
Which mitochondrial enzyme links glycolysis and the TCA cycle?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
198
Which enzyme shares the same cofactors as pyruvate dehydrogenase?
a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
199
Effects of pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
Build up of pyruvate (because it can't enter the TCA as Acetyl CoA) → build up of lactate and alanine → neurological deficits, increase serum alanine, lactic acidosis
200
Location of TCA cycle
Mitochondria
201
a-ketoglutarate cofactors
B1, lipoid acid, B5, B2, B3
202
Location of electron transport chain
Inner mitochondrial membrane
203
FADH2 electrons are transferred to complex ____ in the electron transport chain
II
204
NADH electrons are transferred to complex ____ in the electron transport chain
I
205
What are the 4 enzymes unique to gluconeogenesis and where are they located?
Pathway Produces Fresh Glucose
Pyruvate carboxylase (mitochondria)
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (cytosol)
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase 1 (cytosol)
Glucose 6 phosphatase (ER)
206
Location of HMP shunt
Cytoplasm
207
The oxidative phase of the HMP shunt yields _____.
NADPH
208
The non oxidative phase of the HMP shunt yields _____.
Ribose
209
Pathophysiology of glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting step of the HMP shut → deficient G6PD → reduced NADPH → decreased ability to reduce glutathione and detoxify free radicals and peroxides → red blood cell oxidative damage → hemolytic anemia
210
Most common human enzyme deficiency
G6PD deficiency
211
Inheritance pattern of G6PD deficiency
X-linked recessive
212
A patient has fructose appearing in their blood and their urine, what enzyme is responsible for this pathology?
Fructokinase
213
An infant presents with cataracts, galactosemia and galactosuria, what enzyme deficiency is responsible for this condition?
Galactokinase deficiency
214
Pathophysiology of galactokinase deficiency
Hereditary deficiency of galactokinase → inability to convert galactose to galactose 1-P → accumulation of galactose and build up of galactitol
215
Glucose is converted to sorbitol via _______.
Aldose reductase
216
Location of urea cycle
Mitochondria and cytoplasm
217
What is the most common genetic cause of increased ammonia levels?
Ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
218
Inheritance pattern of ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency
X linked recessive
219
Inheritance pattern of phenylketonuria
Autosomal recessive
220
Excess glucose is stored as _______ in skeletal muscles and liver cells.
Glycogen
221
Glycogen branches have _____ bonds, while it's linkages have _____ bonds.
a 1-6
| a 1-4
222
Where does fatty acid synthesis primarily occur?
Lactating mammary glands, liver, adipose tissue
223
Ketone bodies are primarily formed from ____ and _____.
Fatty acid synthesis + Amino acids → Acetyl CoA
224
What are the three ketone bodies in the blood?
Acetone, acetoacetate, B-hydroxybutyrate
225
What are the primary immune organs?
Bone marrow
| Thymus
226
What are the secondary immune organs?
Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peter patches
227
What are the functions of the lymph node?
Nonspecific filtration by macrophages
Circulation of B and T cells
Immune response activation
228
What are the 3 sections of the lymph node?
Follicle
Medulla
Paracortex
229
What area of the lymph node is responsible for B cell localization and proliferation?
Follicle
230
What area of the lymph node contains T cells?
Paracortex
231
Which section of the lymph node enlarges to present as lymphadenopathy?
Paracortex
232
Where are the B cells found in the spleen?
Follicle of the white pulp
233
Where are the T cells found in the spleen?
Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath of the white pulp
234
Where are the macrophages and specialized B cells found in the spleen?
Marginal zone
235
What is the embryological origin of the thymus?
Third pharyngeal pouch (endoderm)
236
The cortex of the thymus contains _______ T cells, whereas the medulla of the thymus contains ______ T cells.
Immature
| Mature
237
Lymphocyte and neutrophil status in acute viral infection
Increased lymphocytes
| Decreased neutrophils
238
Lymphocyte and neutrophil status in chronic viral infection
Decreased lymphocytes
239
Lymphocyte and neutrophil status in acute bacterial infection
Increased neutrophils
| Decreased lymphocytes
240
Lymphocyte and neutrophil status in chronic viral infection
Decreased neutrophils
241
Which HLA subtype is associated with Celiac's disease?
DQ2/DQ8
242
Which HLA subtype is associated with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
DR3
243
Which HLA subtype is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
DR4
244
Function of NK cells
Use perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis
245
Which interleukins enhance the activity of NK cells?
IL2, IL12, IFNa and IFNB
246
Fever pathway
Pyrogen → IL-1 → Hypothalamus → COX → Prostaglandins → Fever
247
Function of Th1
Secretes IFNy and IL-2 to activate macrophages and cytotoxic T cells
248
Function of Th2
Secretes IL4, IL5, IL6, IL10, IL13 to activate eosinophils and increase IgE
249
Function of Th17
Secretes IL17, IL21, IL22 to induce neutrophilic inflammation
250
Function of Treg
Secretes TGFB, IL10, IL35 to prevent autoimmunity
251
Which cytokines are anti-inflammatory?
TGFB, IL10
252
What are the 3 ways that an antibody protects against a pathogen ?
Neutralization: antibody prevents bacterial adherence
Opsonization: antibody promotes phagocytosis
Complement activation: antibody activates complement, enhancing opsonization and lysis
253
Which immunoglobulin is the most abundant isotope in the serum?
IgG
254
Which immunoglobulin crosses the placenta to provide infants with passive immunity?
IgG
255
Which immunoglobulins fix complement?
Fc portion of IgM and IgG
256
Where is IgA produced?
GI tract
257
What is the most produced antibody overall?
IgA
258
What is the first B cell product to an infection?
IgM
259
MAC will defend agains gram ____ bacteria.
Negative
260
Which are the "acute" cytokines?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a
261
Which cytokines are produced from macrophages?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-a, IL-12, IL-8
262
Which cytokines are produced from T cells?
IL-2, IL-3
263
What cytokines are produced from Th1 cells?
IFN-y
264
What cytokines are produced from Th2 cells?
IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13
265
Which gene is defected in x-linked agammaglobinemia?
BTK gene → no B cell maturation
266
Gene effected in DiGeorge syndrome
22q11 micro deletion
267
What are the defects in SCID?
Defective IL-2R gamma chain (most common)
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
RAG mutation → VDJ recombination defect
268
Which microorganisms are facultative anaerobes?
Staphylococcus, streptococcus, enteric gram - bacterial
269
Which microorganisms are obligate intracellular?
Rickettsia, Chlamydia, Coxiella
Obligate intracellular pathogens stay inside (cells) when it's Really CHilly and COld
270
Which microorganisms are facultative intracellular?
Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia pestis
Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
271
Which microorganisms are encapsulated?
Please SHiNE my SKiS
Pseudomonas aeurginosa, Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenza type B, Neisseria meningitides, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella pneumonia, group b Strep
272
How are microorganisms with capsules cleared by the body?
Opsonized and cleared by the spleen
273
Which microorganisms are urease positive?
Pee CHUNKSS
Proteus, Cryptococcus, H pylori, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S epidermidis, S saprophyticus
274
What component is part of a spores core and how does it contribute to virulence?
Dipicolinic acid - responsible for heat resistance
275
Differences between exotoxin and endotoxin
Exotoxin is produced and released by the bacteria into the extracellular environment, it comes from gram + and gram - bacteria, high fatal dose
Endotoxin is a physical component of the bacterial cell, mostly gram - bacteria, low toxicity
276
Which component of LPS is toxic?
Lipid A
The other components are O-antigen and core polysaccharide
277
What are the 3 main effects of Endotoxins?
Macrophage activation: Fever, hypotension
Complement activation: releasing histamine, hypotension, edema, neutrophil chemotaxis
Tissue factor activation: coagulation cascade (DIC)
278
What is the only bacteria that is coagulase +?
S. aureus
279
What is the most common cause of UTI?
E. coli
280
What is the second most common cause of UTI?
S. saprophyticus
281
What does the anthrax toxin consist of?
Protective factor
Lethal factor
Edema factor
282
Which E. coli doesn't ferment sorbitol?
EHEC
283
What is the most common serotype of EHEC?
O157:H7
284
What is the triad of symptoms for hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Acute kidney injury
285
Which toxin causes hemolytic uremic syndrome?
Shiga toxin
286
Which bacteria are spirochetes?
Leptospira
Treponema
Borrelia
287
A rash on the palms and soles is seen in which infections?
Coxackievirus A (hand, foot and mouth), Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Secondary syphilis (you drive CARS using your palms and soles)
