Nucleic Acids and Gene Expression Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Nucleic Acids and Gene Expression Deck (69)
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1
Q

Draw a nucleotide

A
2
Q

What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

A

Nucleotide: base, sugar and phosphate group

Nucleoside: base and sugar only

3
Q

What are the bases found in DNA and RNA?

A

Pyrimidines (small): Cytosine, Thymine (only in DNA), Uracil (only in RNA)

Purines (big): Guanine and Adenine

4
Q

Explain the struture of a single DNA chain

A

A chain of deoxyribonucleotide units linked by phosphodiester bonds

3’ OH of sugar liked to phosphate linked to 5’ OH of next sugar

5’ and 3’ ends not symmetrical and conventionally written from 5’ to 3’

5
Q

Explain the structure of a double-stranded DNA molecule

A

A & T: 2 H-bonds LESS STABLE

C & G: 3 H-bonds MORE STABLE

Chains are antiparallel

There are major (backbones are further away) and minor (backbones are closer together) grooves

Deoxyribose and phosphate groups = outside of helix (negative charges outside)

Bases = inwards and flat planes are perpendicular to the helix

6
Q

How can a DNA molecule be melted and re-annealed?

A

MELTED: heat/ low salt - denatured

RE-ANNEALED: cool/ high salt - hybridise

7
Q

Compare the genome of E. coli and Homo sapiens

A
  • E. coli:* single circular DNA molecule; 4.6X106 base pairs; length= 1.4mm
  • H. sapiens*: 3X109 base pairs divided into chromosomes each consisting of a single linear DNA molecule with 200X106 base pairs

Chromosomes only visible just before cell division

8
Q

Explain the packagining of DNA

A

DNA tightly packaged to form a complex (chromatin) with proteins

Chromatin condenses to produce chromosomes

Lowest level of packaging = nucleosomes - DNA wrapped around histone proteins approx 200bp

Nucleosome: histone (+ve charge) DNA (-ve charge due to sugar-phosphate backbone)

8 histones- histone 1 between nucleosomes causes 7 fold condensing; further packaging causes 40 fold condensing

9
Q

What is the human karyotype?

A

An organised profile of somone’s chromosomes

Humans have 46 chromosomes (44 autosomal and 2 sex)

XX= female

XY= male

10
Q

Explain semi-conservative DNA replication

A

Each new daughter molecule of DNA has one new strand and one old strand from the parental DNA

Both strands of DNA are complementary and so each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand - generating 2 identical copies.

11
Q

Explain the roles of DNA helicase and DNA polymerase

A

DNA helicase = uses ATP to break H-bonds between base pairs (unwinds the DNA helix)

DNA polymerase = adds nucleotides to 3’ end of a growing chain (synthesis of new DNA).

Requires a template strand, an olgionucleotide (short DNA sequence) primer and dNTPs (deoxynucleotide triphosphate)

Synthesis occurs 5’ to 3’; energy released by hydrolysis of triphosphate; free 3’ hydroxyl group is needed.

12
Q

How are nucleoside analogs used as drugs?

A

Consists of: nucleic acid analog (structurally similar to a nucleic acid) and a sugar

DO NOT have a free 3’ hydroxyl group and so can terminate synthesis of a new DNA molecule

examples include;

dideoxycytidine (ddC) = HIV

azidothyminide (AZT) = HIV

acyclovir = herpes

cytosine arabinose = chemotherapy

13
Q

What is the leading strand?

A

One which has its 3’ end closest to the replication fork

DNA synthesis is continuous as the 3’ end is moving in the same direction as the replication fork

14
Q

What is the lagging strand?

A

Has its 3’ end at the opposite side to the replication fork

DNA synthesis is discontinuous and occurs using small Okazaki fragments

15
Q

What is an Okazaki fragment?

A

Short sequences of DNA which are synthesised from the lagging strand

16
Q

What is the replication fork?

A

The specific point in a DNA molecule where DNA synthesis is occuring.

17
Q

Explain how the leading strand is synthesised

A
  1. Synthesis always occurs from 5’ to 3’ = CONTINUOUS
  2. A RNA primer (synthesised by DNA primase) is needed to start replication at the replication origin
  3. DNA polymerase adds dNTPs to the 3’ end to extended the molecule
18
Q

Explain how the lagging strand is synthesised

A
  1. Synthesis is discontinuous
  2. A RNA primer is needed (synthesised by primase)
  3. DNA polymerase adds dNTPs to the RNA primer - producing a new Okazaki fragment
  4. The old RNA primer is removed by a ribonuclease via exonuclease activity
  5. DNA polymerase synthesises DNA to replace the RNA primer region
  6. DNA ligase then joins the Okazaki fragments using ATP
19
Q

What other proteins are involved at the site of the replication fork?

A

SINGLE STRAND DNA BINDING PROTIEN

Prevents the folding of single stranded DNA

SLIDING CLAMP

Ensures that DNA polymerase remains in the correct location as the lagging strand may loop preventing synthesis

20
Q

How is accuracy maintained in DNA replication?

A

Errors can occur approx. 1 in about 109 bp; can potentially be dangerous

Before adding a new nucleotide, the previous is checked for the correct base-pairing by DNA polymerase

Incorrect base = removed by 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity (of DNA polymerase) and the correct nucleotide is added

Inaccurate RNA primers are also replaced by accurate DNA

21
Q

How does E. coli replicate?

A

There is only one replication origin, OriC, resulting in 2 replication forks proceeding simultaneously in opposite directions - meet at the other side of the circle

22
Q

How do eukaryotic chromosomes replicate?

A

Due to the size of the chromosomes there are multiple replication origins

Thus giving bi-directional replication forks

Replication finishes once the forks have met

23
Q

What are the stages of the cell cycle?

A

INTERPHASE

G1 = gap phase 1; before DNA synthesis = 10hrs

G0 = cells have stopped divinding

S = synthesis; DNA replicates = 9hrs

G2 = gap phase 2; between DNA synthesis and mitosis, sister chromatids seen = 4hrs

MITOSIS = cell division = 1hr

24
Q

How do chromosomes segregate at metaphase?

A

Chromosomes are condensed and attach to the spindle on the central plane

During anaphase they are seprated to opposite spindle poles

25
Q

Explain the major differences between DNA and RNA

A

DNA:

  • hereditary material
  • organised into genes (units of inheritance)
  • double stranded
  • deoxyribose sugar

RNA:

  • initial product of gene expression
  • single stranded
  • ribose sugar
  • major species; tRNA, rRNA, mRNA
26
Q

Define transcription

A

DNA ►RNA

The process in which nucleotide information in the DNA is copied into RNA

27
Q

What are the major types of RNA?

A

tRNA = transfer RNA; transfers an amino acid to a complementary codon on mRNA

rRNA = ribosomal RNA; the major component of ribosomes

mRNA = messenger RNA; transfers genetic information from within the nucleus to the cytoplasm

28
Q

What are the major classes of RNA polymerase?

A

RNA Polymerase I = transcribes rRNA genes

RNA Polymerase III = transcribes tRNA and 5S rRNA genes

RNA Polymerase II = transcribes genes encoding protiens into mRNA

29
Q

What is a gene promoter?

A

The DNA sequence at which the initiation complex assembles (RNA Pol can bind) is a gene promoter

e.g. for the initiation of transcription by RNA Pol II the gene promoter is TATA repeated

30
Q

What is a transcription factor?

A

A protein which can bind to DNA to regulate the amount of transcription a gene undergoes

Usually found just before a gene promoter (e.g. TATA)

Can either be

  • transcriptional activators - activate gene expression
  • transcriptional repressor - suppress gene expression
31
Q

What are the two main proteins involved in transcription?

A

RNA Polymerase (enz.) = carries out gene transcription

Transcription Factors = regulatory proteins

32
Q

Give a brief overview of the process of transcription

A
  1. DNA strand unwinds
  2. Ribonucleotides base pair with DNA bases on one strand
  3. Bases join via phosphodiester bonds; thus the RNA chain grows one base at a time going from 5’ to 3’ (sense strand)

CHECKKKK

33
Q

What is the basal transcription complex?

A

A collection of proteins which allow RNA Pol II to be phosphorylated and take part in transcription

Transcription factors must also bind; otherwise a basal (low) level of transcription occurs

34
Q

Describe the formation of the Basal Transcription Complex

A
  1. TF IID binds to TATA
    • causes DNA helix to partially unwind, widening the minor groove allowing for more contact with bases
  2. Both TF IIA and TF IIB bind
    • TF IIB binds to both TF IID and RNA Pol II
  3. RNA Pol II binds along with TF IIF
  4. TF IIJ, TF IIE, TF IIH all bind to RNA Pol II
    • TF IIH promotes further unwinding and allows phosphorylation of RNA Pol II so that it is activated
  5. Transcription Factors also bind causing DNA to bend and interact to regulate transciption
35
Q

What is the mechanism behind transcription factors?

A

Transcription factors can “bend DNA” as they bind thus casuing interactions between other TFs and also the Basal Transcription Complex to regulate transcription

36
Q

Explain the events that take place in pre-mRNA processing

A

Inital RNA produced from a gene = pre-mRNA/ heterogenous nuclear RNA (hn RNA)

Must be processed in the nucleus so can be used as mRNA for translation in the cytoplasm

  • Gene promoter (at 5’ end); segments forming final RNA = exons; sequences transcribed but edited out of the final mRNA = introns
  • Adding a 5’ cap
  • Adding a poly- A tail
37
Q

What is a splice donor site?

A

The base sequence: AGGU

At the end of an exon and the start of the intron

Allows the binding of U1 which is a small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP)

38
Q

What is a splice acceptor site?

A

Pyr15NCAG

Pyr = Pyrimidine C/U

N = any base

Allows U5 (a snRNP) to bind to it

39
Q

Explain how mRNA splicing occurs.

A
  1. Binding of snRNPs; U1 to splice donor site, U2, U4, U6 to intron and U5 to splice acceptor site
  2. Once all are bound, the spliceosome is formed, cleaving the splice donor sequence i.e. GU detaches
  3. Attaches to an A on the intron via a phosphodiester bond
  4. Bonding is unique, 5’ Pi of G to 2’ OH of A
  5. Cleavage of AG (end of intron)
  6. Formation of a lariat structure which is unique to RNA and in then destroyed
  7. Adjacent exons can then ligate
40
Q

What is a spliceosome?

A

The formation of the splicing complex which involves snRNPs (U1, U2, U4, U6 and U5)

41
Q

Explain how the “cap” is added to pre-mRNA

A

The cap can protect mRNA at the 5’ end to enhance translation of mRNA

  1. Hydrolysis of the triphosphate on 5’ end to a diphosphate
  2. Can react with the alpha-phosphate on GTP to produce a 5’-5’ phosphate linkage
  3. Further modification occurs to form a 7-methlguanylate cap; methylation of the purine ring at N7
42
Q

Explain how the poly- A tail is addedd to pre-mRNA

A

Via a process called polyadenylation

A is added one at a time till roughly a tail of 200 bases is formed

Tail is downstream of the sequence AAUAAA

43
Q

How do mutations in splice sites cause human disease?

A

Example => Thalassemia (imbalance of alpha-chains and beta-chains making up Haemoglobin)

Mutation in splice site causes a change in intron/exon length and so the desired/ functional mRNA strand is not produced

44
Q

How is the complexity of a genome determined?

A

genome = the complete DNA sequence of an organism

The complexity of an organism is not determined by the genome size (C-value paradox)

45
Q

What are small non-coding RNAs (ncRNAs)?

A

Some RNA sequences are not translated into protein

  1. House-keeping ncRNA: rRNA, tRNA, snRNA (splicosome)
  2. Regulatory ncRNA:
    • microRNA = controls the transcription of genes
    • RNAi (RNA interference) = targetted inhibition of genes used in viral defence (uses miRNA and siRNA - micro and small interfering)
    • piRNA (piwi-interacting RNA) = involvement in epigenetics in particular gene-silencing in germ line cells
    • long ncRNA = many roles including regulating gene transcription, protein translation and X-chromosome activation
46
Q

What are the biochemical mechanisms underlying gene regulation?

A
  1. DICER ( an endonuclease which cleaves double-stranded RNA dsRNA) digests dsRNA into small fragments approx. 20bp forms siRNA
  2. One strand is removed from siRNA via Agronaute and Piwi proteins
  3. Forms an anti-sense strand which binds to mRNA forming a siRNA-mRNA complex
  4. mRNA is then cleaved by the RISK complex to form two segements and so can not be translated = SILENCED
47
Q

What is the role of micro RNAs (miRNAs)?

A

miRNA = function in the transcriptional and post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression. Inhibit target mRNA = base pairing with incomplete complementarity

48
Q

How are micro RNAs produced?

A

Produced in the nucleus initially as larger pri-miRNAs

  1. Transcribed by either RNA polymerase II or III to form pri-miRNA
  2. Shortened via RNase III endonuclease (Drosha) and DGCR8
  3. Forms pre-miRNA which is transported to the cytoplasm
  4. Further cleaving occurs via Dicer, Argonaute and TRBP (RNA Binding Protein)
  5. RISC then forms a single stranded miRNA strand
49
Q

How can miRNA be involved in human disease?

A

Part of chromosome 14 can be deleted and so leads to the loss of miRNA and promotes Chronic Lymphoid Leukaemia

Supplementing miRNA in mice with CLL results in treatment of the cancer; miRNA = theraputic

50
Q

What are the STOP codons

A

UAA

UAG

UGA

51
Q

What is the START codon?

A

AUG (methionine)

52
Q

How is translation initiated?

A
  1. The ribosome subunits dissociate into 40S and 60S (eukaryotes)
  2. The pre-initiation complex assembles
    • met-tRNA (will bind to START codon)
    • initiation factors
    • 40S subunit
  3. mRNA binds to pre-initiation complex
  4. The 60S subunit binds (GTP => GDP +Pi)
53
Q

How does elongation occur in translation?

A
  1. Second tRNA molecule binds, carrying second amino acid to amino acyl (A) site
  2. Peptide bond forms between the two amino acids, catalysed by peptidyl transferase on 60S
  3. First tRNA dissociates
  4. Second tRNA enters the peptidyl (P) site

Elongation Factors = proteins which promote the movement of the ribosome along mRNA (uses GTP)

54
Q

How is translation terminated?

A
  1. STOP codon is recognised (UAA, UGA, UAG) (tRNA doesnt bind, release factor does)
  2. The peptide chain is released via peptidyl transferase transfering the protein chain to water
  3. Dissociation of release factors and ribosomes
55
Q

What is the role of aminoacyl tRNAs?

A

Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase (enz.) = specific for each amino acid

Ensures the correct amino acid is selected

AA => adenylated AA (AMP and enz. attached) => AA (after binding to tRNA; AMP and enz. dissociates, AA attached to 3’OH of tRNA)

56
Q

Why do some antibiotics only inhibit protein synthesis in prokaryotes and not eukaryotes?

A

Antibiotics selectively inhibit prokaryotes due to differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic ribosomes and translation factors.

Examples

  • streptomycin = inhibits initiation
  • tetracycline = inhibits AA-tRNA binding
  • erythromycin = inhibits translocation
57
Q

What are the features of a newly synthesised protein so that it can enter the secretory pathway?

A

SIGNAL SEQUENCE = enriched in hydrophobic amino acids (Leu, Ile, Phe, Trp, Tyr, Ala)

  1. The signal sequence is recognised by the protein-RNA complex = Signal-Recognition Particle (SRP) stopping translation
  2. The SRP binds to a receptor on the RER surface, resuming translation
  3. The growing peptide is translocated to the lumen of the RER
  4. The signal sequence is cleaved by signal peptidase and so folding occurs
58
Q

What are the methods by which new proteins can by modified post-translationally?

A

Increases diversity and makes proteins fully functional

  • Disulphide bond formation
  • Proteolytic cleavage
  • Addition of
    • carbohydrate (glycosylation)
    • phosphate (phosphorylation)
    • lipids (prenylation/acylation)
  • Hydroxylation
59
Q

What is hybridisation?

A

Joining of a nucleic acid probe (usually labelled for identification) and a specific sequence of DNA -single stranded- or RNA so that desired sequences can be detected.

  • Target DNA = immobilised on a solid support (nylon/nitrocellulose membrane)
  • Probe DNA = in a solution (labelled either radioactively or fluorescently)
60
Q

What are the different types of hybridisation?

A
61
Q

What is hybridisation stringency?

A

The power to distinguish between related sequences; increases with

  • increase in temperature
  • decrease in Na+ concentration

DENATURES DNA

62
Q

What factors affect the amount of energy needed to denature a DNA probe?

A
  • Strand length; longer = more H-bonds to break
  • Base compositon; G-C has one more H-bond so harder to break
  • Chemical environment;
    • Na+ = stabilise DNA (neutralises charge on phosphate backbone)
    • denaturants e.g. urea/formamide = destabilise DNA
63
Q

What is the difference between high and low stringency?

A

HIGH = duplex only forms with one-to-one complementarity

LOW = some mismatch may occur between bases and annealing still occurs

64
Q

At what temperature is hybridisation carried out in mammals?

A

Melting temperature = midpoint for transition from double strand to single strand

25C below melting temperature

mammals = 87C

65
Q

What is PCR?

A

PCR = Polymerase Chain Reaction

in vitro method which allows a specific DNA sequence to be amplified within a heterogeneous collection

66
Q

How is PCR carried out?

A
  1. Two primers are produced which are complimentary to the target DNA - some sequence information is needed
  2. Annealing occurs between primers and heat-denatured DNA (low temperature)
  3. Taq (thermostable) DNA polymerase along with dNTPs extend the primer to synthesis new strands
  4. The DNA molecule can be denatured and the cycle repeated to increase the number of target DNA molecules
  • Denature = 94C
  • Anneal = 50-60C
  • Extend = 72C
67
Q

What is PCR used for?

A
  • Typing genetic markers
  • Detecting point mutations
  • cDNA (a copy of mRNA) cloning
  • Genome walking
  • Gene expression (mRNA => DNA)
  • Introducing mutations experimentally
  • DNA sequencing
  • DNA microarrays
68
Q

How are primers designed for PCR?

A
  • Approx. 20 nucleotides long - provides specificity for target sequence
  • Avoid tandem repeats as hairpins may form
  • Equal melting temperature (same % of G-C and length)
  • Avoid complemtarity of bases at 3’ end (primer dimers may form)
69
Q

What are restriction enzymes/endonucleases?

A

Type II restriction endonucleases can cleave DNA at specific recognition sites (usually 4-8bp palindromic sequences)

May produce a blunt or “sticky” (overhang) end

Longer recogniton site- less frequent cleaving

Type of primitive immune system; host DNA is protected due to methylation at the recognition site and so only cleaves unmethylated DNA from invading organisms