NURSING MANAGEMENT Flashcards
(291 cards)
1
Q
What are the 4 T’s in postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin.
2
Q
What does ‘Tone’ refer to in postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Uterine atony or failure of the uterus to contract.
3
Q
What are examples of ‘Trauma’ in postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Lacerations or uterine rupture.
4
Q
What is ‘Tissue’ in the context of postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Retained placental fragments or membranes.
5
Q
What does ‘Thrombin’ signify in postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Coagulopathies or clotting disorders.
6
Q
What are first-line management steps for postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Fundal massage, IV fluids, uterotonics (e.g., oxytocin, misoprostol).
7
Q
What are uterotonics used in postpartum hemorrhage?
A
Oxytocin, misoprostol, methylergonovine, carboprost.
8
Q
What is premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
A
Rupture of membranes before the onset of labor.
9
Q
What is the management for PROM at term?
A
Induction of labor if no contractions within 24 hours.
10
Q
What is preterm PROM (PPROM)?
A
Rupture of membranes before 37 weeks gestation.
11
Q
What is the major risk associated with PROM?
A
Chorioamnionitis and neonatal infection.
12
Q
What antibiotics are used to manage PROM with infection?
A
Ampicillin and gentamicin.
13
Q
What is the key diagnostic test for PROM?
A
Nitrazine test or fern test.
14
Q
What blood pressure level defines gestational hypertension?
A
≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks without proteinuria.
15
Q
What is the primary management of gestational hypertension?
A
Monitoring, antihypertensives, and close follow-up.
16
Q
What is eclampsia?
A
Seizures in a patient with preeclampsia.
17
Q
What is the first step in managing an eclamptic seizure?
A
Administer magnesium sulfate to control seizures.
18
Q
What is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A
Calcium gluconate.
19
Q
What are the key symptoms of preeclampsia?
A
Hypertension, proteinuria, edema, headache, and visual changes.
20
Q
What blood sugar level defines gestational diabetes during an oral glucose tolerance test?
A
≥180 mg/dL at 1 hour or ≥140 mg/dL at 3 hours.
21
Q
What is the first-line treatment for gestational diabetes?
A
Dietary modifications and exercise.
22
Q
What medication is used if blood sugar is uncontrolled in gestational diabetes?
A
Insulin or metformin.
23
Q
What is respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in neonates?
A
Lung immaturity causing insufficient surfactant production.
24
Q
What is the first-line management for neonatal RDS?
A
Administer exogenous surfactant and provide respiratory support.
25
What maternal condition increases the risk of neonatal RDS?
Preterm delivery before 34 weeks.
26
What is mastitis?
Infection of breast tissue commonly during breastfeeding.
27
What are the symptoms of mastitis?
Breast pain, redness, warmth, and fever.
28
What is the treatment for mastitis?
Antibiotics (e.g., dicloxacillin) and continued breastfeeding.
29
What is the most common cause of mastitis?
Staphylococcus aureus infection.
30
What is postpartum thrombosis?
Blood clots forming in veins post-delivery, often in the legs or lungs.
31
What are risk factors for postpartum thrombosis?
Cesarean delivery, obesity, immobility, thrombophilia.
32
What is the management of postpartum thrombosis?
Anticoagulation therapy, such as low-molecular-weight heparin.
33
What are placental abnormalities?
Conditions like placenta previa, placenta accreta, or placental abruption.
34
What is placenta previa?
Placenta covering the cervical os partially or completely.
35
What is placenta accreta?
Abnormal attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall.
36
What is placental abruption?
Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.
37
What is the primary symptom of placental abruption?
Painful vaginal bleeding during pregnancy.
38
What is the treatment for severe placental abruption?
Emergency cesarean delivery and stabilization of the mother.
39
What is Rh incompatibility?
When an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
40
What is the prevention for Rh incompatibility?
Administration of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM).
41
When is RhoGAM given during pregnancy?
At 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.
42
What complications arise from untreated Rh incompatibility?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
43
What is the first step in assessing postpartum hemorrhage?
Evaluate the uterine tone and inspect for lacerations.
44
What is the main diagnostic test for gestational diabetes?
Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
45
What are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Hyporeflexia, respiratory depression, and lethargy.
46
What is the management for preeclampsia with severe features?
Delivery of the baby, magnesium sulfate, and antihypertensives.
47
What is the role of corticosteroids in preterm PROM?
Accelerating fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks.
48
What antihypertensives are safe in pregnancy?
Labetalol, nifedipine, and methyldopa.
49
What is the key lab test to diagnose mastitis?
Breast milk culture to identify causative bacteria.
50
How is placental abruption confirmed?
Ultrasound and clinical presentation.
51
Which medication is the first-line treatment for postpartum hemorrhage?
Oxytocin (Pitocin).
52
What is the priority nursing action for uterine atony in postpartum hemorrhage?
Perform fundal massage to stimulate contractions.
53
What is the expected finding on a Nitrazine test for PROM?
Blue color indicating alkaline amniotic fluid.
54
What is the nurse's priority assessment for a patient with PROM?
Signs of infection such as fever
55
What complication should a nurse monitor for in a patient with gestational hypertension?
Progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia.
56
Which lab value is most concerning in a patient with preeclampsia?
Platelet count <100
57
What is the priority nursing intervention for an eclamptic seizure?
Maintain airway patency and administer magnesium sulfate.
58
Which vital sign should be closely monitored when administering magnesium sulfate?
Respiratory rate (risk of respiratory depression).
59
What is the therapeutic magnesium level for a patient on magnesium sulfate?
4-7 mEq/L.
60
What is the most important teaching point for a patient with gestational diabetes?
Monitor blood glucose levels and follow a diabetic diet.
61
Which complication is most associated with poorly controlled gestational diabetes?
Macrosomia (large for gestational age baby).
62
What is the nurse’s role during a fetal kick count test?
Instruct the patient to count at least 10 movements in 2 hours.
63
What is the primary concern for a neonate born at 28 weeks gestation?
Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) due to surfactant deficiency.
64
What intervention is critical for a neonate with RDS?
Administering surfactant therapy and providing ventilatory support.
65
What is the nursing action for a breastfeeding mother with mastitis?
Encourage continued breastfeeding to empty the breast.
66
What is the appropriate antibiotic for treating mastitis?
Dicloxacillin or cephalexin.
67
What is the priority nursing action for a postpartum patient with a suspected DVT?
Maintain bed rest and elevate the affected limb.
68
What is the most important teaching for a postpartum patient on anticoagulants?
Avoid activities that increase the risk of bleeding.
69
What is a critical nursing intervention for placenta previa?
Monitor for signs of bleeding and avoid vaginal exams.
70
What is the priority nursing intervention for placental abruption?
Ensure maternal and fetal oxygenation and prepare for delivery.
71
What is the main complication of untreated Rh incompatibility?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
72
When should the nurse administer RhoGAM postpartum?
Within 72 hours of delivery if the infant is Rh-positive.
73
What is a key sign of placental abruption?
Sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding.
74
What is the best initial intervention for hypertension during pregnancy?
Lifestyle modifications and monitoring.
75
What is the priority nursing action during a hypertensive crisis in pregnancy?
Administer IV antihypertensives such as hydralazine or labetalol.
76
What is the purpose of betamethasone in preterm labor?
To enhance fetal lung maturity.
77
Which lab test is used to confirm preeclampsia?
Urinalysis for proteinuria.
78
What is the primary assessment in a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) to monitor for toxicity.
79
What is the nurse’s priority for a patient with a blood sugar of 50 mg/dL during pregnancy?
Provide a fast-acting carbohydrate and reassess glucose.
80
What fetal complication is associated with gestational diabetes?
Neonatal hypoglycemia after birth.
81
What is the nurse's role in managing PROM before 34 weeks?
Monitor for infection
82
What is the key sign of uterine inversion?
Profuse vaginal bleeding and a visible uterine mass.
83
What is the nursing intervention for uterine inversion?
Manual replacement by the provider and administration of uterotonics after repositioning.
84
What condition is a contraindication for methylergonovine (Methergine)?
Hypertension due to the risk of a hypertensive crisis.
85
What is the nursing action if the fundus is boggy despite massage and medications?
Assess for retained placental fragments and prepare for possible manual removal.
86
What is the first step in neonatal resuscitation for RDS?
Provide positive pressure ventilation (PPV).
87
What is the most common cause of mastitis?
Staphylococcus aureus infecti
88
What is the primary nursing management for puerperal infection?
Administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor vital signs regularly.
89
What symptom is most indicative of a puerperal infection?
A fever of 100.4°F (38°C) or higher on two separate occasions within the first 10 postpartum days.
90
What nursing intervention is essential for preventing puerperal infection?
Encourage proper perineal hygiene and handwashing.
91
What is a key complication of cesarean section (CS) to monitor for postoperatively?
Infection at the incision site or endometritis.
92
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient post-CS to prevent deep vein thrombosis?
Encourage early ambulation and use of compression stockings.
93
What should the nurse assess for in a patient recovering from a vacuum-assisted delivery?
Monitor for perineal trauma or hematoma formation.
94
What newborn complication is associated with vacuum-assisted delivery?
Cephalohematoma or scalp bruising.
95
What is the primary indication for forceps-assisted delivery?
Prolonged second stage of labor with fetal distress.
96
What complication should the nurse monitor for after a forceps delivery?
Maternal perineal lacerations or hematoma.
97
What is the primary type of miscarriage associated with cervical dilation and passage of some fetal tissue?
Incomplete miscarriage.
98
Which type of miscarriage involves no fetal tissue passage and a closed cervical os?
Missed miscarriage.
99
What is the first-line diagnostic test for evaluating miscarriage?
Ultrasound to assess fetal viability and products of conception.
100
What are two primary causes of infertility in women?
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) and endometriosis.
101
What is the first-line treatment for male infertility caused by low sperm count?
Lifestyle changes and possible hormonal therapy.
102
What type of abortion is associated with cramping and bleeding but a closed cervix?
Threatened abortion.
103
What is the key nursing intervention after a surgical abortion?
Monitor for signs of excessive bleeding or infection.
104
What complication should the nurse monitor for in a patient undergoing medical abortion?
Incomplete abortion or heavy bleeding.
105
What type of IV fluid is typically used to replace blood loss during labor and delivery?
Lactated Ringer’s solution or normal saline.
106
What is a priority nursing assessment during IV therapy?
Monitor for signs of infiltration, phlebitis, or fluid overload.
107
What is the appropriate nursing action for a suspected IV infiltration?
Stop the infusion and remove the IV catheter.
108
What is the first nursing action if a patient develops chills and fever during IV therapy?
Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
109
What complication can result from rapid IV infusion of fluids in postpartum women?
Pulmonary edema or fluid overload.
110
What is a priority assessment for a patient receiving IV antibiotics postpartum?
Monitor for allergic reactions or anaphylaxis.
111
What is the purpose of Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) postpartum?
To prevent Rh sensitization in Rh-negative mothers with Rh-positive infants.
112
What nursing assessment is critical after a vacuum delivery?
Assess the newborn’s head for cephalohematoma or scalp injuries.
113
What is the typical indication for vacuum or forceps delivery?
Prolonged second stage of labor or maternal exhaustion.
114
What complication can arise from prolonged use of vacuum or forceps during delivery?
Maternal or fetal trauma.
115
What are key nursing interventions after a cesarean section?
Monitor incision site, manage pain, and encourage ambulation.
116
What is the most common maternal complication after cesarean delivery?
Endometritis or surgical site infection.
117
What are signs of puerperal infection that require immediate nursing intervention?
High fever, foul-smelling lochia, or abdominal tenderness.
118
What is the key nursing action for a patient with suspected puerperal infection?
Obtain blood cultures and administer prescribed antibiotics.
119
What is the primary focus of nursing care for a patient with infertility?
Provide emotional support and educate about diagnostic and treatment options.
120
What is the primary nursing goal after a first-trimester miscarriage?
Prevent infection and provide emotional support.
121
What is the recommended position for a patient receiving a vacuum-assisted delivery?
Lithotomy position with adequate support.
122
What is the primary nursing action during forceps-assisted delivery?
Assist the healthcare provider and monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
123
What nursing care is essential after a forceps delivery?
Monitor the mother for perineal tears and urinary retention.
124
What should the nurse teach a patient about preventing infection after a cesarean section?
Keep the incision clean and dry, and report any redness or discharge.
125
What is a nursing priority for managing recurrent miscarriage?
Support emotional well-being and coordinate diagnostic testing.
126
What is the recommended nursing intervention for a patient with an incomplete miscarriage?
Prepare the patient for dilation and curettage (D&C) if indicated.
127
What are the signs of an inevitable miscarriage?
Cervical dilation and uterine contractions without passage of tissue.
128
What complication is associated with retained products of conception after miscarriage?
Infection or heavy bleeding.
129
What is the priority nursing action for postpartum hemorrhage?
Initiate IV fluids and notify the healthcare provider.
130
What is the purpose of administering oxytocin postpartum?
To promote uterine contractions and prevent hemorrhage.
131
What is the most common maternal risk factor for puerperal infection?
Prolonged labor or rupture of membranes.
132
What nursing care is essential for a patient undergoing IVF therapy for infertility?
Monitor for ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) and provide emotional support.
133
What complication should be monitored for after an abortion procedure?
Heavy bleeding, infection, or retained products of conception.
134
What is the primary nursing intervention for a postpartum patient with signs of thrombophlebitis?
Encourage bed rest and elevate the affected leg.
135
What nursing assessment is critical after administration of Rh immunoglobulin?
Verify correct dosage and ensure administration within 72 hours postpartum.
136
What is the primary goal of nursing management for puerperal infection?
Prevent complications like sepsis and support maternal recovery.
137
What is a common sign of uterine atony postpartum?
Boggy uterus with excessive vaginal bleeding.
138
What is a nursing priority for a patient with postpartum hemorrhage?
Massage the fundus and administer uterotonic agents as prescribed.
139
What is the nursing management for mastitis in breastfeeding mothers?
Encourage frequent breastfeeding
140
What is the recommended nursing action for a patient reporting severe abdominal pain after a vacuum delivery?
Assess for uterine rupture or internal trauma.
141
What is the purpose of administering magnesium sulfate in preeclampsia?
Prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular irritability.
142
What are signs of magnesium toxicity to monitor for during IV therapy?
Decreased reflexes
143
What is the nursing intervention for a postpartum patient with a retained placenta?
Prepare for manual removal or surgical intervention.
144
What is the key nursing intervention for fetal bradycardia during vacuum delivery?
Reposition the mother and administer oxygen as needed.
145
What is the most common fetal injury during vacuum-assisted delivery?
Scalp lacerations or cephalohematoma.
146
What is the purpose of a nonstress test (NST) during pregnancy?
To assess fetal well-being by monitoring heart rate patterns.
147
What type of miscarriage involves heavy bleeding
cramping
148
What nursing intervention is critical for preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after cesarean delivery?
Encourage early ambulation and use sequential compression devices (SCDs).
149
What is the most important nursing action for a postpartum patient with endometritis?
Administer prescribed antibiotics and monitor for signs of sepsis.
150
What should the nurse assess in a patient after forceps-assisted delivery?
Assess for urinary retention and perineal lacerations.
151
What is the recommended care for a patient with recurrent pregnancy loss?
Perform diagnostic tests to identify underlying causes and provide emotional support.
152
What is a common side effect of oxytocin administration during labor?
Uterine hyperstimulation leading to fetal distress.
153
What is the most common maternal complication of cesarean delivery?
Infection at the incision site or endometritis.
154
What nursing action is essential during an amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes)?
Monitor fetal heart rate immediately after the procedure.
155
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing postpartum depression?
Provide emotional support and refer to mental health resources if needed.
156
What is the primary indication for a D&C after miscarriage?
Incomplete miscarriage with retained products of conception.
157
What is the nursing priority for a postpartum patient with a temperature of 101°F?
Assess for signs of infection and notify the healthcare provider.
158
What are signs of fetal distress during vacuum or forceps delivery?
Prolonged bradycardia or late decelerations on the fetal heart monitor.
159
What should the nurse do if the newborn has bruising or swelling on the scalp after vacuum delivery?
Document findings and monitor for signs of jaundice.
160
What is a contraindication for vacuum-assisted delivery?
Fetal head not fully engaged or unknown fetal position.
161
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with postpartum urinary retention?
Encourage voiding and consider catheterization if needed.
162
What nursing intervention reduces the risk of infection after a cesarean section?
Maintain aseptic technique during dressing changes.
163
What is the nursing care for a postpartum patient with suspected retained placental fragments?
Monitor for bleeding and prepare for possible D&C.
164
What is a key nursing intervention for infertility treatments?
Provide accurate information and emotional support throughout the process.
165
What should the nurse monitor for after administering methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy?
Signs of abdominal pain
166
What is the primary purpose of an ultrasound in early pregnancy?
Confirm gestational age and rule out ectopic pregnancy.
167
What are common side effects of hormonal treatments for infertility?
Weight gain
168
What is a nursing priority for a patient experiencing heavy bleeding post-abortion?
Monitor vital signs and prepare for fluid resuscitation if needed.
169
What is the most common type of miscarriage in the first trimester?
Spontaneous miscarriage due to chromosomal abnormalities.
170
What nursing intervention can help prevent infection after an abortion?
Educate on proper hygiene and signs of complications.
171
What is the nursing priority for a patient with an incomplete abortion?
Monitor for excessive bleeding and prepare for surgical intervention.
172
What is the purpose of administering RhoGAM to Rh-negative mothers?
Prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies.
173
What is the priority nursing care for a patient with severe preeclampsia?
Monitor blood pressure
174
What is the recommended care for a patient with mastitis?
Encourage continued breastfeeding and apply warm compresses.
175
What is a major maternal complication of forceps delivery?
Injury to the pelvic floor or perineum.
176
What nursing care should be provided to a patient with a hematoma after forceps delivery?
Monitor size and provide pain management or surgical intervention if needed.
177
What is the priority nursing intervention for postpartum infection?
Obtain cultures and start prescribed antibiotics.
178
What is the primary nursing assessment for IV therapy in postpartum patients?
Monitor for signs of fluid overload or phlebitis.
179
What is the purpose of administering terbutaline in obstetrics?
To delay preterm labor by relaxing the uterus.
180
What are signs of endometritis in the postpartum period?
Foul-smelling lochia
181
What is the nursing management for postpartum urinary incontinence?
Encourage pelvic floor exercises and monitor for urinary retention.
182
What complication can occur with rapid IV infusion of oxytocin postpartum?
Water intoxication or hyponatremia.
183
What is a nursing priority for a patient receiving IV antibiotics postpartum?
Monitor for allergic reactions and ensure timely administration.
184
What is the most appropriate vein to select for IV therapy in an adult patient?
The cephalic or basilic vein in the forearm.
185
What should the nurse do first if an IV site is swollen and cool to the touch?
Stop the infusion immediately and assess for infiltration.
186
Which type of IV fluid is considered isotonic?
0.9% Normal Saline or Lactated Ringer's.
187
What is the priority nursing action for a patient exhibiting signs of fluid overload during IV therapy?
Slow the IV rate and notify the healthcare provider.
188
What gauge needle is commonly used for blood transfusion?
18-20 gauge.
189
What is the recommended infusion time for one unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs)?
2-4 hours.
190
What should the nurse do if a patient develops a fever and chills during a blood transfusion?
Stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider.
191
What is the purpose of priming the IV line with normal saline before a blood transfusion?
To prevent hemolysis and ensure compatibility.
192
How often should IV tubing for continuous infusion be changed?
Every 72-96 hours according to hospital policy.
193
What is the first step in troubleshooting an IV pump alarm?
Check the IV site and tubing for kinks or obstructions.
194
What is a common sign of phlebitis at an IV site?
Redness
195
What laboratory value is most important to monitor during blood transfusion therapy?
Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
196
What is the maximum time a peripheral IV catheter should remain in place before replacement?
72-96 hours.
197
What is the appropriate nursing action if a patient has an air embolism during IV therapy?
Place the patient in Trendelenburg position on the left side and administer oxygen.
198
Which blood component is given to a patient with a low platelet count?
Platelets.
199
What is the first step in starting an IV on a patient?
Verify the provider's order and gather supplies.
200
What is the purpose of using a transparent dressing on an IV site?
To allow for visualization of the site while protecting it from contamination.
201
What is the priority nursing action for extravasation of a vesicant medication?
Stop the infusion and follow institutional policy for extravasation management.
202
How can the nurse prevent catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) during IV therapy?
Use aseptic technique and perform hand hygiene before accessing the IV site.
203
What complication is indicated by crackles in the lungs and increased jugular vein distention during IV therapy?
Fluid overload.
204
What should the nurse assess before administering IV potassium chloride?
Urine output and renal function.
205
What is the priority nursing action if blood transfusion reaction is suspected?
Stop the transfusion and keep the IV line open with normal saline.
206
What is the purpose of a central line over a peripheral IV?
To administer large volumes of fluid or medications that are irritating to veins.
207
How should the nurse confirm blood product compatibility before transfusion?
Check with another licensed healthcare professional.
208
What is a key nursing action during TPN (total parenteral nutrition) infusion?
Monitor blood glucose levels regularly.
209
What is a common sign of catheter embolism during IV therapy?
Sudden chest pain or dyspnea.
210
What is the purpose of using an IV filter during blood transfusions?
To remove clots and debris from the blood product.
211
What nursing action reduces the risk of air embolism when discontinuing a central line?
Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.
212
What is the priority nursing intervention for an IV site with purulent drainage?
Remove the IV catheter and obtain a culture of the drainage.
213
What is the most accurate method to calculate IV drip rates manually?
Use the formula: \[(Volume to be infused × Drop factor) ÷ Time in minutes\].
214
What is the best way to assess patency of a saline lock?
Flush with normal saline and check for resistance.
215
Which solution is contraindicated with blood transfusions?
Dextrose-containing solutions.
216
What is a major complication of rapid IV fluid administration?
Pulmonary edema.
217
What is the correct way to discontinue an IV line?
Clamp the tubing
218
What should the nurse do if a patient complains of burning during IV potassium infusion?
Slow the infusion rate and assess the IV site.
219
What complication should the nurse monitor for during albumin administration?
Fluid overload and pulmonary edema.
220
What is the nurse’s role during blood transfusion?
Monitor vital signs and assess for signs of reaction.
221
What is the appropriate IV fluid for a patient with severe dehydration?
Lactated Ringer’s or 0.9% Normal Saline.
222
What is the nurse’s first action when setting up an IV pump?
Prime the tubing to remove air bubbles.
223
What should the nurse do if an IV catheter breaks during removal?
Apply a tourniquet above the site and notify the provider immediately.
224
What is the correct angle to insert an IV catheter?
15-30 degrees.
225
What is the primary indication for administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP)?
To correct clotting factor deficiencies.
226
What type of tubing is required for blood transfusions?
Tubing with a filter.
227
How often should the nurse monitor a patient during a blood transfusion?
At least every 15 minutes during the first hour.
228
What is the first step in verifying a blood transfusion order?
Check the order against the patient’s ID and blood product.
229
What is the nursing priority when a patient develops urticaria during a blood transfusion?
Stop the transfusion and administer antihistamines as prescribed.
230
What is the recommended action if IV therapy causes pain or swelling at the site?
Discontinue the IV and select a new site.
231
Which IV fluid is hypertonic?
3% Normal Saline.
232
What is the correct method to flush a central line?
Use a 10 mL syringe and push-pause technique.
233
Define infertility.
Inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse.
234
What is primary infertility?
Inability to conceive in a woman who has never been pregnant.
235
What is secondary infertility?
Inability to conceive after a previous successful pregnancy.
236
Name one common cause of female infertility.
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).
237
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
Low sperm count (oligospermia).
238
What is anovulation?
Failure of the ovary to release eggs.
239
How does age affect female fertility?
Fertility decreases significantly after age 35.
240
Name a diagnostic test for tubal patency.
Hysterosalpingography (HSG).
241
What is the role of FSH in fertility?
FSH stimulates ovarian follicle growth.
242
What is a semen analysis?
A test to assess sperm count
243
Name one condition that may cause male infertility.
Varicocele.
244
What is endometriosis?
A condition where uterine lining grows outside the uterus.
245
How does obesity affect fertility?
Obesity can disrupt hormonal balance and ovulation.
246
What is Clomid (clomiphene citrate) used for?
To induce ovulation in women with ovulatory dysfunction.
247
Name one lifestyle change that can improve fertility.
Maintaining a healthy weight.
248
What is intrauterine insemination (IUI)?
A procedure that places sperm directly into the uterus.
249
What is in vitro fertilization (IVF)?
A procedure where eggs are fertilized outside the body and implanted in the uterus.
250
What hormone is tested to confirm ovulation?
Progesterone.
251
How does smoking affect fertility?
Smoking reduces sperm quality and ovarian reserve.
252
What is the function of LH in fertility?
LH triggers ovulation.
253
What is ovarian reserve?
A measure of the quantity and quality of a woman’s remaining eggs.
254
What is the role of progesterone in pregnancy?
Progesterone prepares the uterine lining for implantation.
255
What is a basal body temperature (BBT) chart?
A method to track ovulation by monitoring daily temperature changes.
256
What is the effect of stress on fertility?
Stress can disrupt ovulation and sperm production.
257
What is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?
A hormonal disorder that affects ovulation and fertility.
258
What is a follicular study?
An ultrasound to monitor the growth of ovarian follicles.
259
What is unexplained infertility?
Infertility with no identifiable cause after standard tests.
260
Name one risk factor for infertility.
Advanced maternal age.
261
What is the impact of thyroid disorders on fertility?
Thyroid imbalances can disrupt menstrual cycles and ovulation.
262
What is a luteal phase defect?
A condition where the uterine lining does not develop properly after ovulation.
263
What is hyperprolactinemia?
Elevated prolactin levels that can inhibit ovulation.
264
What is the role of AMH (anti-Müllerian hormone) in fertility?
AMH levels indicate ovarian reserve.
265
What is azoospermia?
The absence of sperm in ejaculate.
266
How does caffeine consumption affect fertility?
High caffeine intake can reduce fertility in both men and women.
267
What is sperm motility?
The ability of sperm to move efficiently.
268
What is a laparoscopy in infertility diagnosis?
A surgical procedure to view and treat pelvic conditions like endometriosis.
269
What is donor sperm?
Sperm from a donor used for artificial insemination or IVF.
270
What is ovulation induction?
The use of medications to stimulate ovulation.
271
What is the effect of diabetes on fertility?
Diabetes can affect sperm quality and ovulation.
272
What is preimplantation genetic testing (PGT)?
A test to screen embryos for genetic disorders before implantation.
273
What is the impact of alcohol on fertility?
Alcohol can reduce sperm quality and disrupt ovulation.
274
What is the role of GnRH agonists in fertility treatment?
They suppress natural hormone cycles to control timing of ovulation.
275
What is testicular sperm extraction (TESE)?
A procedure to retrieve sperm directly from the testicle.
276
What is endometrial biopsy?
A test to evaluate the uterine lining for implantation readiness.
277
How does pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) affect fertility?
PID can cause scarring and blockages in the fallopian tubes.
278
What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?
A complication of fertility treatments causing swollen ovaries and fluid buildup.
279
What is cryopreservation in fertility?
Freezing eggs
280
What is the significance of a short luteal phase?
It can prevent implantation and lead to infertility.
281
How does anemia affect fertility?
Anemia can disrupt ovulation and implantation.
282
What is the purpose of an ovulation predictor kit?
To detect the LH surge and predict ovulation.
283
How does cervical mucus change during ovulation?
It becomes thin
284
What is the role of hCG in fertility treatments?
hCG triggers ovulation and supports early pregnancy.
285
What is the function of the corpus luteum?
It produces progesterone after ovulation to maintain the uterine lining.
286
What is the effect of chemotherapy on fertility?
Chemotherapy can damage eggs
287
What is Klinefelter syndrome and its impact on fertility?
A genetic condition in males causing low testosterone and infertility.
288
How does excessive exercise affect fertility?
It can disrupt ovulation and menstrual cycles.
289
What is an ectopic pregnancy?
A pregnancy implanted outside the uterus
290
What is a common side effect of fertility medications?
Multiple pregnancies or ovarian hyperstimulation.
291
What is the role of antioxidants in male fertility?
They reduce oxidative stress and improve sperm quality.
