P1 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the Rh factor?
A
A protein found on the surface of red blood cells; determines if blood is Rh-positive or Rh-negative.
2
Q
Why is the Rh factor important in pregnancy?
A
An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive baby may develop antibodies that attack the baby’s red blood cells.
3
Q
What condition can arise if Rh incompatibility is untreated?
A
Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) or erythroblastosis fetalis.
4
Q
What test detects Rh incompatibility during pregnancy?
A
Indirect Coombs test.
5
Q
How is Rh incompatibility prevented?
A
Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) during pregnancy and after delivery.
6
Q
What blood type is considered a universal donor?
A
O negative.
7
Q
What blood type is considered a universal recipient?
A
AB positive.
8
Q
What is crossmatching in blood transfusion?
A
A test to ensure compatibility between donor and recipient blood.
9
Q
What are common signs of a blood transfusion reaction?
A
Fever
10
Q
What is the first step in managing a suspected transfusion reaction?
A
Stop the transfusion immediately.
11
Q
What is SIDS?
A
The sudden
12
Q
What is the peak age for SIDS risk?
A
2-4 months of age.
13
Q
Name a major risk factor for SIDS.
A
Placing a baby to sleep on their stomach (prone sleeping position).
14
Q
What sleep position is recommended to reduce SIDS risk?
A
Supine (back) sleeping position.
15
Q
What is the “Safe to Sleep” campaign?
A
A public health initiative to reduce SIDS by promoting safe sleep practices.
16
Q
How does smoking during pregnancy affect SIDS risk?
A
It significantly increases the risk of SIDS.
17
Q
What is a balloon tamponade used for?
A
Controlling severe postpartum hemorrhage or esophageal varices bleeding.
18
Q
Name a common type of balloon tamponade device.
A
Bakri balloon or Sengstaken-Blakemore tube.
19
Q
How does a Bakri balloon work?
A
It applies pressure to the uterine walls to control bleeding.
20
Q
What is a major complication of balloon tamponade?
A
Uterine rupture or infection.
21
Q
What are the indications for blood transfusion?
A
Severe anemia
22
Q
What are the risks of blood transfusion?
A
Infection
23
Q
What is the storage temperature for red blood cells in a blood bank?
A
1-6°C.
24
Q
What is the lifespan of stored red blood cells?
A
42 days.
25
What is kernicterus?
A type of brain damage caused by excessive bilirubin in newborns
26
What are the symptoms of kernicterus?
Poor feeding
27
What is the Apgar score?
A quick assessment of a newborn's health based on five criteria.
28
What is the normal range for a newborn's heart rate?
120-160 beats per minute.
29
How can Rh incompatibility lead to anemia in a newborn?
Maternal antibodies destroy the baby's red blood cells.
30
What are the signs of a severe transfusion reaction?
Hypotension
31
What does "universal donor" mean?
The blood type can be safely given to anyone in emergencies.
32
What does the Coombs test detect?
Antibodies attached to red blood cells.
33
What are the signs of postpartum hemorrhage?
Heavy vaginal bleeding
34
What is the primary treatment for postpartum hemorrhage?
Uterine massage
35
What is the purpose of a transfusion consent form?
To inform patients about risks
36
What is delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A reaction occurring days to weeks after transfusion due to undetected antibodies.
37
What is ABO incompatibility?
A mismatch of blood types leading to an immune reaction.
38
What are the ABCs of SIDS prevention?
Airway clear
39
What is polycythemia?
An abnormal increase in red blood cells
40
How can overheating increase the risk of SIDS?
It may impair a baby's ability to wake up and regulate breathing.
41
What is the normal hematocrit range for newborns?
45-65%.
42
What is hypovolemic shock?
A condition caused by severe blood loss
43
What is the purpose of a direct Coombs test?
To detect antibodies bound to a patient's red blood cells.
44
How does delayed cord clamping benefit the newborn?
Increases iron stores and improves hemoglobin levels.
45
What is an exchange transfusion?
A procedure to replace a newborn's blood to treat severe jaundice or Rh incompatibility.
46
How is severe jaundice treated in newborns?
Phototherapy or exchange transfusion.
47
What type of blood is used for a neonate transfusion?
O negative or blood type compatible with the mother and baby.
48
How is SIDS officially diagnosed?
By ruling out all other possible causes of death through autopsy and investigation.
49
What is the most common cause of placental abruption?
b) Preeclampsia
50
Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a placenta previa?
b) Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
51
A patient with placental abruption reports sudden, sharp abdominal pain. What is the nurse’s priority action?
b) Prepare for immediate cesarean section
52
What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient diagnosed with placenta accreta?
b) Monitor for signs of postpartum hemorrhage
53
A patient with placenta previa is at 32 weeks gestation. The nurse notes painless bright red vaginal bleeding. What should the nurse do first?
c) Assess the fetal heart rate
54
A patient with a previous cesarean section is diagnosed with placenta accreta. What is the most likely complication?
c) Postpartum hemorrhage
55
What is a key sign of placental insufficiency?
c) Decreased fetal heart rate variability
56
Which of the following conditions is associated with placental abruption?
a) Hypertension
57
Which maternal condition increases the risk of placenta previa?
d) All of the above
58
Which of the following is a potential complication of placenta accreta?
c) Hemorrhagic shock
59
What is the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Uterine atony
60
A woman is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a) Administer uterotonic medications
61
Which is a risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage?
b) Prolonged labor
62
A postpartum patient is hemorrhaging and has a uterus that feels soft and boggy. What is the nurse’s first action?
a) Perform a uterine massage
63
Which of the following is a complication of postpartum hemorrhage?
b) Hemorrhagic shock
64
A patient has a retained placenta and is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate intervention?
a) Perform a manual removal of the placenta
65
What is the first-line treatment for uterine atony in postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Uterine massage
66
Which medication is commonly used to treat postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
a) Oxytocin
67
What is the priority action for a nurse when a patient experiences massive postpartum hemorrhage?
b) Begin intravenous fluid resuscitation
68
A patient with postpartum hemorrhage is receiving blood transfusions. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?
b) Hypothermia
69
What is the most important indicator of early hemorrhagic shock in a postpartum patient?
b) Increased heart rate
70
A postpartum patient has excessive bleeding and a firm, contracted uterus. What is the likely cause of the hemorrhage?
a) Laceration of the cervix
71
Which condition is most commonly associated with late postpartum hemorrhage?
b) Retained placenta
72
What is the nurse’s primary responsibility when managing a postpartum hemorrhage?
c) Treat underlying causes
73
What is the most common surgical intervention for severe postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Hysterectomy
74
A woman with postpartum hemorrhage has an abnormal coagulation profile. Which of the following should the nurse suspect?
b) DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)
75
A patient with a history of multiple cesarean deliveries is at increased risk for which postpartum complication?
b) Placenta accreta
76
A woman is hemorrhaging postpartum, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. What is the next best intervention?
a) Administer intravenous fluids
77
A woman who delivered a baby 12 hours ago reports heavy vaginal bleeding and dizziness. The nurse notes that the uterus is firm. Which is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
b) Lacerations
78
Which of the following is a sign of hemorrhagic shock in the postpartum patient?
b) Hypotension
79
What should the nurse do for a patient with postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony?
a) Perform bimanual compression
80
Which of the following is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Uterine atony
81
What is the first sign of shock in a postpartum hemorrhage patient?
a) Tachycardia
82
A woman has a retained placenta. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing intervention?
c) Perform manual removal of the placenta
83
In the case of postpartum hemorrhage due to trauma, what should be prioritized?
b) Assessment of perineal lacerations
84
A postpartum hemorrhage patient has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, pulse of 120 bpm, and urine output of 30 ml/hour. What is the priority intervention?
b) Begin IV fluid resuscitation
85
What is the most important nursing action when a patient with postpartum hemorrhage is receiving a blood transfusion?
a) Monitor vital signs closely
86
What is the nurse's priority in monitoring a patient receiving methylergonovine to control postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Blood pressure
87
What is the most effective first-line uterotonic agent for controlling postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Oxytocin
88
What should the nurse do for a patient who has had a cesarean section and is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Start an intravenous line for fluid resuscitation
89
What complication is most likely in a postpartum patient who is hemorrhaging despite uterine massage and uterotonic agents?
b) Coagulopathy
90
Which of the following is the priority action when managing a postpartum hemorrhage?
a) Administer uterotonic medications
91
A woman is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage with a soft, boggy uterus. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
a) Administration of oxytocin
92
A patient is hemorrhaging postpartum, and her uterus is firm. What is the likely cause of the hemorrhage?
b) Lacerations
93
A newborn is diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). What is the primary cause of this condition?
b) Prematurity
94
What is the priority intervention for an infant showing signs of tachypnea and labored breathing in the first few hours of life?
b) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
95
Which of the following is a common cause of apnea in a premature infant?
b) Immature respiratory control centers
96
Which of the following is most likely to cause respiratory distress syndrome in a preterm infant?
a) Insufficient surfactant production
97
What is the primary sign of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
a) Tachypnea
98
Which condition is characterized by a rapid respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a newborn?
b) Tachypnea
99
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in premature infants?
a) Surfactant replacement therapy
100
A nurse is caring for a premature infant with respiratory distress. Which of the following interventions is most important?
b) Administer oxygen therapy
101
Which of the following is a common complication of prolonged apnea in newborns?
a) Hypoxia
102
A neonate is at risk for apnea due to prematurity. What is the best intervention to manage this condition?
c) Caffeine therapy
103
Which of the following is a risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome in newborns?
b) Premature birth
104
Which medication is commonly given to a preterm infant at risk for respiratory distress syndrome to stimulate surfactant production?
b) Betamethasone
105
What is the most common cause of tachypnea in newborns?
a) Respiratory distress syndrome
106
Which of the following is a characteristic sign of neonatal apnea?
a) Cessation of breathing for more than 20 seconds
107
What is the first priority when managing a neonate who is experiencing apnea?
d) Provide respiratory support
108
What should a nurse monitor for when an infant has been diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome?
c) Oxygen saturation levels
109
Which of the following is the most common cause of neonatal hypoxia leading to apnea?
a) Immature lungs
110
Which of the following can contribute to premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
b) Infection
111
What should the nurse assess first in a neonate presenting with tachypnea?
d) Airway patency
112
What is the most common cause of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
b) Infection
113
A nurse is caring for a newborn with suspected respiratory distress. Which of the following findings would indicate the need for further intervention?
c) Grunting with each breath
114
What is the priority intervention for an infant diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
b) Oxygen therapy
115
How should a nurse assess for signs of apnea in a premature neonate?
a) Monitor respiratory rate and rhythm
116
What action is the nurse's priority when managing an infant with tachypnea and flaring nostrils?
a) Administer oxygen therapy
117
A nurse is caring for an infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following is a common sign of this condition?
c) Retractions and nasal flaring
118
Which condition often accompanies respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?
d) Patent ductus arteriosus
119
What is the most important nursing intervention for a premature neonate with a history of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
b) Administer antibiotics to prevent infection
120
A newborn is diagnosed with transient tachypnea. What is the best course of action?
a) Provide respiratory support and monitor closely
121
Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat apnea of prematurity?
b) Caffeine citrate
122
Which of the following is most likely to cause respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a preterm infant?
b) Inadequate surfactant production
123
What is the first priority in managing a neonate with a diagnosis of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
c) Support respiratory function with oxygen
124
Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when caring for an infant with respiratory distress syndrome?
d) Monitor oxygen saturation and respiratory status
125
Which is a key sign of respiratory distress in a newborn?
a) Nasal flaring
126
Which of the following is a common cause of apnea in a premature infant?
a) Immature respiratory centers in the brain
127
Which factor is most likely to contribute to premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
b) Infection
128
Which of the following is the best method to prevent infection in a mother with premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
c) Administer prophylactic antibiotics
129
What is the best nursing intervention for an infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) at 32 weeks gestation?
b) Administer exogenous surfactant
130
What is the most important nursing intervention for a newborn diagnosed with respiratory distress syndrome?
a) Monitor respiratory status closely
131
A nurse caring for a preterm infant with apnea should anticipate which of the following interventions?
b) Initiating respiratory support
132
What action is most appropriate for managing a neonate with respiratory distress and tachypnea?
d) Provide supplemental oxygen
133
Which of the following would most likely cause tachypnea in a newborn?
b) Respiratory distress syndrome
134
Which of the following is a key intervention in the management of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
a) Monitor for signs of infection
135
Which of the following is associated with an increased risk of premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?
a) Multiple gestation
136
What is the best nursing action for a neonate with tachypnea and a low oxygen saturation level?
c) Administer oxygen therapy
137
Which of the following is an indicator of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a neonate?
b) Cyanosis
138
A neonate with signs of respiratory distress syndrome is receiving surfactant therapy. Which of the following should the nurse monitor closely?
a) Oxygen saturation levels
139
Which of the following is a common manifestation of apnea of prematurity?
b) Pauses in breathing for more than 20 seconds
140
Which is a key intervention for managing neonates at risk for respiratory distress syndrome?
a) Antenatal corticosteroids
141
What is a common clinical sign of respiratory distress syndrome in a premature infant?
c) Grunting
142
What is the first priority in caring for an infant with suspected respiratory distress syndrome?
a) Assess respiratory function
143
Which of the following would indicate the need for immediate intervention in a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome?
b) Bradycardia
144
Which of the following is the first priority in the management of a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome?
c) Provide oxygen support
145
Which of the following is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia?
a) Maternal obesity
146
Which intervention is the priority when shoulder dystocia is suspected?
b) Perform the McRoberts maneuver
147
Which of the following can increase the risk of developing preeclampsia during pregnancy?
d) All of the above
148
A pregnant patient at 34 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?
a) Administer antihypertensive medications
149
Which of the following is a classic sign of preeclampsia?
b) Proteinuria
150
Which of the following is a common complication of poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy?
d) All of the above
151
What is the primary goal of insulin therapy for a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes?
a) Maintain normal blood glucose levels
152
Which of the following is a common sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a pregnant woman?
b) Fruity-smelling breath
153
Which is the most common form of diabetes in pregnancy?
c) Gestational diabetes
154
In the case of IV therapy, which of the following is an appropriate intervention for preventing air embolism during IV infusion?
a) Flush the IV line with saline before use
155
Which of the following is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia during labor?
a) Macrosomia
156
Which of the following is the priority action during a shoulder dystocia delivery?
b) Apply suprapubic pressure
157
Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of preeclampsia?
b) Proteinuria
158
What is the most common symptom of preeclampsia?
c) Elevated blood pressure
159
Which condition is most likely to cause shoulder dystocia?
b) Large fetal size
160
What is the goal of treatment for a woman with preeclampsia?
a) Lower the blood pressure to safe levels
161
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gestational diabetes?
c) Obesity
162
Which laboratory finding confirms the diagnosis of preeclampsia?
d) Proteinuria and elevated blood pressure
163
Which complication can occur if diabetes is poorly controlled during pregnancy?
a) Fetal macrosomia
164
What is the first-line treatment for gestational diabetes?
a) Diet and exercise
165
Which of the following is a potential complication of uncontrolled diabetes in pregnancy?
b) Shoulder dystocia
166
What is the priority action when managing a woman with suspected preeclampsia?
c) Monitor blood pressure closely
167
Which of the following is an early sign of preeclampsia?
b) Proteinuria
168
Which of the following is a common side effect of insulin therapy during pregnancy?
a) Hypoglycemia
169
Which of the following should be closely monitored in a pregnant woman with diabetes?
d) Blood glucose levels
170
What is the first-line intervention for severe preeclampsia?
a) Magnesium sulfate administration
171
Which of the following is a sign of severe preeclampsia?
b) Visual disturbances
172
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action for a patient receiving IV therapy?
c) Monitor the IV site for signs of infiltration
173
Which of the following is an appropriate action for preventing infection in IV therapy?
a) Clean the IV insertion site with antiseptic before insertion
174
What is the priority action when managing an IV infusion for a patient with fluid overload?
d) Decrease the infusion rate
175
What is the most common method of controlling blood sugar in pregnant women with gestational diabetes?
a) Insulin therapy
176
Which of the following is a sign that a patient may need IV fluids?
c) Dehydration and low blood pressure
177
Which of the following is a common complication of preeclampsia?
b) Seizures (eclampsia)
178
What should be monitored closely when administering IV potassium?
a) Cardiac rhythm
179
What is the initial treatment for a pregnant woman with diabetes?
a) Diet control
180
Which of the following is a priority assessment for a patient with diabetes during pregnancy?
a) Blood glucose monitoring
181
What is the primary cause of preeclampsia?
c) Placental dysfunction
182
Which of the following is an intervention for managing shoulder dystocia during delivery?
b) Position the mother in the McRoberts position
183
What is the primary treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in pregnancy?
a) Insulin therapy and IV fluids
184
Which of the following is a complication of preeclampsia?
c) Placental abruption
185
Which of the following is a risk factor for shoulder dystocia during delivery?
a) Fetal macrosomia
186
What is the most common clinical sign of shoulder dystocia?
b) Failure to deliver the shoulders after the head
187
What action should the nurse take first when preeclampsia is suspected in a pregnant patient?
c) Measure blood pressure
188
Which of the following is a risk factor for gestational diabetes?
a) Advanced maternal age
189
Which condition is associated with an increased risk of IV complications such as infiltration?
b) Poor peripheral venous access
190
What is the primary goal in managing diabetes during pregnancy?
a) Maintaining normal blood glucose levels
191
Which IV fluid is commonly used for hydration in a pregnant patient?
b) Normal saline
192
Which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a pregnant woman?
a) Fruity-smelling breath
193
Which of the following should the nurse assess for in a patient with severe preeclampsia?
c) Hyperreflexia
194
What should the nurse monitor in a pregnant patient with diabetes on insulin therapy?
b) Blood glucose levels
195
What is the most common cause of puerperal infection in postpartum women?
b) Endometritis
196
Which of the following is a risk factor for puerperal infection?
a) Prolonged labor
197
What is the primary sign of puerperal infection in a postpartum woman?
c) Fever above 100.4°F (38°C) after 24 hours postpartum
198
What is the first-line treatment for postpartum endometritis?
d) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
199
Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for preventing puerperal infection?
b) Encourage perineal hygiene
200
What is a key symptom of a uterine infection in a postpartum woman?
a) Foul-smelling lochia
201
Which of the following increases the risk of puerperal infection?
d) Manual removal of the placenta
202
What is the primary nursing action for a postpartum woman showing signs of puerperal infection?
c) Notify the healthcare provider immediately
203
Which of the following is a complication of untreated puerperal infection?
a) Septicemia
204
What is the primary goal in managing a patient with a postpartum infection?
b) Control the infection and prevent complications
205
What is the most common indication for using vacuum or forceps during delivery?
b) Prolonged second stage of labor
206
Which of the following is a potential complication of vacuum-assisted delivery?
a) Scalp lacerations
207
Which intervention is most important when using a vacuum during delivery?
c) Monitor for fetal heart rate changes
208
What is a key risk to the neonate during a forceps delivery?
b) Facial nerve injury
209
Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action during a vacuum-assisted delivery?
d) Monitor for maternal perineal trauma
210
What is the recommended number of attempts for vacuum-assisted delivery?
c) Three attempts
211
What is the primary reason for forceps-assisted delivery?
b) Maternal exhaustion
212
Which of the following conditions contraindicates vacuum or forceps delivery?
a) Fetal bone demineralization disorders
213
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient following a vacuum-assisted delivery?
c) Monitor for maternal and neonatal injuries
214
Which of the following should the nurse assess in a neonate born via vacuum delivery?
d) Presence of cephalohematoma
215
What is the definition of infertility?
a) Inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse
216
What is the most common cause of female infertility?
b) Ovulatory disorders
217
Which of the following is a risk factor for male infertility?
c) Varicocele
218
What is the first diagnostic test commonly performed to assess female infertility?
a) Ovulation tracking
219
What is the purpose of a hysterosalpingography (HSG)?
c) Assess the patency of fallopian tubes
220
Which hormone is commonly tested to evaluate ovulatory function?
b) Progesterone
221
What is the most common treatment for ovulatory dysfunction in women?
a) Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
222
Which of the following is a key lifestyle modification for improving fertility?
b) Maintaining a healthy weight
223
What is the primary risk of assisted reproductive technologies (ART)?
c) Multiple gestation
224
Which of the following is a common complication of ovulation induction?
b) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
225
What is the role of intrauterine insemination (IUI) in infertility treatment?
a) Increase the likelihood of fertilization by placing sperm directly in the uterus
226
What is the main difference between IVF and ICSI?
c) ICSI involves injecting a single sperm into the egg
227
Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for infertility?
a) Advanced maternal age
228
What is the most common test for assessing male infertility?
b) Semen analysis
229
What is the nurse's role in infertility counseling?
c) Provide emotional support and education about treatment options
230
Which of the following is a common emotional reaction to infertility?
b) Feelings of inadequacy
231
Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient experiencing secondary infertility?
d) Assess reproductive history and perform diagnostic tests
232
What is a key contraindication to in-vitro fertilization (IVF)?
a) Severe uterine abnormalities
233
Which of the following is a risk factor for infertility in women?
d) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
234
Which of the following can impair fertility in men?
c) Prolonged heat exposure to the testes
235
What is the role of letrozole in infertility treatment?
a) Stimulates ovulation by inhibiting estrogen synthesis
236
What is the most important nursing consideration for a patient undergoing infertility treatment?
c) Provide education about potential side effects
237
Which of the following increases the risk of puerperal infection?
a) Cesarean delivery
238
Which of the following complications is associated with vacuum-assisted delivery?
b) Subgaleal hemorrhage
239
What is the most common symptom of puerperal sepsis?
a) Fever with chills
240
What is the recommended timing for follow-up after infertility treatments like IUI or IVF?
c) 2 weeks post-treatment
241
What should a nurse monitor in a postpartum woman with suspected puerperal infection?
b) WBC count and vital signs
242
What is the first step in evaluating a couple with infertility issues?
a) Semen analysis for the male partner
243
Which of the following is a nursing priority for a patient recovering from a forceps-assisted delivery?
c) Monitor for vaginal or perineal lacerations
244
Which medication is commonly used for ovulation induction?
a) Clomiphene citrate
245
Which of the following should the nurse prioritize in a woman with postpartum fever and uterine tenderness?
b) Start broad-spectrum antibiotics after cultures
246
What is the most common cause of puerperal infection?
b) Endometritis
247
What is a primary symptom of puerperal infection?
a) Fever above 100.4°F (38°C) after 24 hours postpartum
248
Which nursing intervention can help prevent puerperal infection?
c) Promote perineal hygiene
249
What is the first-line treatment for puerperal endometritis?
d) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
250
Which factor increases the risk of puerperal infection?
b) Prolonged rupture of membranes
251
What is the most common sign of an infected episiotomy or C-section wound?
c) Redness, swelling, and purulent drainage
252
Which complication is associated with untreated puerperal infection?
a) Septicemia
253
What is the most common indication for IV therapy during pregnancy?
c) Dehydration or electrolyte imbalance
254
Which of the following is critical to monitor during IV therapy?
b) Signs of infiltration or phlebitis
255
Which nursing action prevents air embolism during IV therapy?
a) Ensure tubing is primed before connecting to the patient
256
What should be assessed before administering a blood transfusion?
b) Blood type and crossmatch results
257
Which is the most common reaction to a blood transfusion?
c) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
258
What is the nurse's priority action during a blood transfusion reaction?
a) Stop the transfusion immediately
259
What is the maximum time a unit of blood can hang during transfusion?
d) 4 hours
260
What is the primary goal of IV therapy for a patient with dehydration?
b) Restore fluid and electrolyte balance
261
Which type of diabetes occurs only during pregnancy?
c) Gestational diabetes
262
What is the target fasting blood glucose for a pregnant woman with diabetes?
a) Below 95 mg/dL
263
What is the primary treatment for gestational diabetes?
b) Diet and exercise, followed by insulin if needed
264
Which complication can result from poorly controlled diabetes in pregnancy?
b) Macrosomia (large baby)
265
What is Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) most commonly associated with?
a) Prematurity and surfactant deficiency
266
What is the primary treatment for neonatal RDS?
b) Administration of exogenous surfactant
267
What is the hallmark sign of RDS in neonates?
c) Grunting, nasal flaring, and retractions
268
What complication can arise from meconium aspiration syndrome?
b) Airway obstruction and inflammation
269
What is the nurse's first action for a neonate with suspected meconium aspiration?
a) Suction the airway immediately after delivery
270
What is the best method to prevent meconium aspiration syndrome?
d) Avoid post-term deliveries and monitor fetal stress
271
What is infertility defined as?
a) Inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse
272
What is a common diagnostic test for female infertility?
c) Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
273
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
a) Varicocele
274
What lifestyle modification is most effective in improving fertility?
b) Maintaining a healthy weight
275
What is the purpose of ovulation induction medications like Clomiphene?
d) Stimulate the ovaries to release eggs
276
What is the nurse's role in infertility counseling?
b) Provide emotional support and educate about treatment options
277
What is a complication of ovulation induction therapy?
a) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
278
What is the priority assessment during blood transfusion?
d) Monitor for signs of allergic reaction
279
Which IV solution is most commonly used for dehydration in pregnancy?
b) Normal saline or lactated Ringer's
280
What is the initial management for a blood transfusion reaction?
a) Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
281
What is the most common sign of puerperal sepsis?
a) Persistent fever despite antibiotic therapy
282
Which newborn complication is commonly associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
c) Aspiration pneumonia
283
What is the main risk of advanced maternal age on fertility?
b) Increased likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities
284
What is a common emotional response to infertility?
c) Feelings of inadequacy or depression
285
What is the nurse's first action in treating a patient with suspected puerperal infection?
a) Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for antibiotics
286
Which intervention reduces the risk of infection in a postpartum patient?
d) Encourage early ambulation and perineal hygiene
287
What is the main nursing consideration during IV therapy for a patient with diabetes?
a) Monitor blood glucose levels closely
288
Which complication should the nurse watch for in a neonate with RDS?
c) Pneumothorax
289
What is the most common nursing diagnosis for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome?
b) Impaired gas exchange
290
What is the goal of treatment in meconium aspiration syndrome?
a) Maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent infection
291
What is the best intervention to prevent complications in a postpartum patient receiving IV therapy?
c) Monitor the site for signs of phlebitis or infiltration
292
Which hormone is often evaluated in infertility testing?
a) Progesterone during the luteal phase
293
What is the primary goal of blood transfusion therapy?
b) Restore oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
294
What should the nurse do before administering a blood transfusion?
a) Verify the patient's identity and crossmatch results with another licensed nurse
295
Which neonate is at greatest risk for meconium aspiration syndrome?
b) Post-term infant with signs of fetal distress
296
What is the most common cause of puerperal infection?
b) Endometritis
297
What is a primary symptom of puerperal infection?
a) Fever above 100.4°F (38°C) after 24 hours postpartum
298
Which nursing intervention can help prevent puerperal infection?
c) Promote perineal hygiene
299
What is the first-line treatment for puerperal endometritis?
d) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
300
Which factor increases the risk of puerperal infection?
b) Prolonged rupture of membranes
301
What is the most common sign of an infected episiotomy or C-section wound?
c) Redness, swelling, and purulent drainage
302
Which complication is associated with untreated puerperal infection?
a) Septicemia
303
What is the most common indication for IV therapy during pregnancy?
c) Dehydration or electrolyte imbalance
304
Which of the following is critical to monitor during IV therapy?
b) Signs of infiltration or phlebitis
305
Which nursing action prevents air embolism during IV therapy?
a) Ensure tubing is primed before connecting to the patient
306
What should be assessed before administering a blood transfusion?
b) Blood type and crossmatch results
307
Which is the most common reaction to a blood transfusion?
c) Febrile non-hemolytic reaction
308
What is the nurse's priority action during a blood transfusion reaction?
a) Stop the transfusion immediately
309
What is the maximum time a unit of blood can hang during transfusion?
d) 4 hours
310
What is the primary goal of IV therapy for a patient with dehydration?
b) Restore fluid and electrolyte balance
311
Which type of diabetes occurs only during pregnancy?
c) Gestational diabetes
312
What is the target fasting blood glucose for a pregnant woman with diabetes?
a) Below 95 mg/dL
313
What is the primary treatment for gestational diabetes?
b) Diet and exercise, followed by insulin if needed
314
Which complication can result from poorly controlled diabetes in pregnancy?
b) Macrosomia (large baby)
315
What is Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) most commonly associated with?
a) Prematurity and surfactant deficiency
316
What is the primary treatment for neonatal RDS?
b) Administration of exogenous surfactant
317
What is the hallmark sign of RDS in neonates?
c) Grunting, nasal flaring, and retractions
318
What complication can arise from meconium aspiration syndrome?
b) Airway obstruction and inflammation
319
What is the nurse's first action for a neonate with suspected meconium aspiration?
a) Suction the airway immediately after delivery
320
What is the best method to prevent meconium aspiration syndrome?
d) Avoid post-term deliveries and monitor fetal stress
321
What is infertility defined as?
a) Inability to conceive after 12 months of unprotected intercourse
322
What is a common diagnostic test for female infertility?
c) Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
323
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
a) Varicocele
324
What lifestyle modification is most effective in improving fertility?
b) Maintaining a healthy weight
325
What is the purpose of ovulation induction medications like Clomiphene?
d) Stimulate the ovaries to release eggs
326
What is the nurse's role in infertility counseling?
b) Provide emotional support and educate about treatment options
327
What is a complication of ovulation induction therapy?
a) Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
328
What is the priority assessment during blood transfusion?
d) Monitor for signs of allergic reaction
329
Which IV solution is most commonly used for dehydration in pregnancy?
b) Normal saline or lactated Ringer's
330
What is the initial management for a blood transfusion reaction?
a) Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
331
What is the most common sign of puerperal sepsis?
a) Persistent fever despite antibiotic therapy
332
Which newborn complication is commonly associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
c) Aspiration pneumonia
333
What is the main risk of advanced maternal age on fertility?
b) Increased likelihood of chromosomal abnormalities
334
What is a common emotional response to infertility?
c) Feelings of inadequacy or depression
335
What is the nurse's first action in treating a patient with suspected puerperal infection?
a) Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for antibiotics
336
Which intervention reduces the risk of infection in a postpartum patient?
d) Encourage early ambulation and perineal hygiene
337
What is the main nursing consideration during IV therapy for a patient with diabetes?
a) Monitor blood glucose levels closely
338
Which complication should the nurse watch for in a neonate with RDS?
c) Pneumothorax
339
What is the most common nursing diagnosis for a patient with respiratory distress syndrome?
b) Impaired gas exchange
340
What is the goal of treatment in meconium aspiration syndrome?
a) Maintain adequate oxygenation and prevent infection
341
What is the best intervention to prevent complications in a postpartum patient receiving IV therapy?
c) Monitor the site for signs of phlebitis or infiltration
342
Which hormone is often evaluated in infertility testing?
a) Progesterone during the luteal phase
343
What is the primary goal of blood transfusion therapy?
b) Restore oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
344
What should the nurse do before administering a blood transfusion?
a) Verify the patient's identity and crossmatch results with another licensed nurse
345
Which neonate is at greatest risk for meconium aspiration syndrome?
b) Post-term infant with signs of fetal distress
346
What is the definition of Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM)?
a) Rupture of amniotic sac before the onset of labor
347
What is the main risk associated with PROM?
c) Infection, particularly chorioamnionitis
348
What is the priority nursing intervention for PROM?
d) Monitor for signs of infection and fetal distress
349
Which test confirms the diagnosis of PROM?
b) Nitrazine test or fern test
350
What is the recommended management for PROM at 34 weeks or later?
a) Induction of labor
351
What is the definition of gestational hypertension?
c) Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks without proteinuria
352
What is the primary risk associated with gestational hypertension?
b) Progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia
353
What is the classic triad of symptoms in preeclampsia?
a) Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
354
What is the definitive treatment for severe preeclampsia?
d) Delivery of the baby and placenta
355
Which medication is used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia?
b) Magnesium sulfate
356
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
a) Monitor for signs of toxicity, including loss of deep tendon reflexes
357
What is an incompetent cervix?
c) Premature cervical dilation leading to pregnancy loss
358
What is the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix?
b) Cervical cerclage
359
When is cervical cerclage typically performed?
a) Between 12-14 weeks of gestation
360
What is a critical teaching point for a patient with a cervical cerclage?
d) Report any signs of labor, bleeding, or infection
361
What is the purpose of an external cephalic version (ECV)?
c) To rotate a breech fetus to a head-down position
362
What is a contraindication for external cephalic version?
a) Placenta previa
363
What is the primary risk of external cephalic version?
b) Fetal distress or umbilical cord entanglement
364
What is the definition of a spontaneous miscarriage?
b) Pregnancy loss before 20 weeks of gestation
365
What is a threatened miscarriage?
a) Vaginal bleeding without cervical dilation
366
What characterizes an incomplete miscarriage?
b) Passage of some, but not all, fetal or placental tissue
367
What is a missed miscarriage?
d) Fetal death without expulsion of the products of conception
368
What is the most common management for an incomplete miscarriage?
c) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
369
What is the definition of an elective abortion?
b) Termination of a pregnancy by medical or surgical means
370
What is a key nursing priority after a surgical abortion?
a) Monitor for excessive bleeding and signs of infection
371
What is dilation and curettage (D&C)?
c) Surgical removal of uterine contents using a curette
372
What is a common indication for D&C?
b) Treatment of incomplete or missed miscarriage
373
What is a major risk of dilation and curettage?
d) Uterine perforation
374
What is the purpose of Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) in pregnancy?
a) Prevent Rh isoimmunization in Rh-negative mothers
375
When is RhoGAM typically administered?
b) At 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after delivery or pregnancy loss
376
What is the primary difference between spontaneous and threatened miscarriage?
d) Threatened miscarriage does not involve cervical dilation
377
What is the definition of a recurrent miscarriage?
a) Three or more consecutive pregnancy losses before 20 weeks
378
What is a critical nursing intervention for a patient with PROM?
c) Avoid frequent vaginal examinations to reduce infection risk
379
What is a common fetal complication associated with PROM?
b) Preterm birth
380
What is the primary goal of bed rest and tocolytics in PROM?
a) Prolong pregnancy and reduce the risk of preterm labor
381
What is the most common symptom of an incompetent cervix?
b) Painless cervical dilation in the second trimester
382
What is a contraindication to cervical cerclage?
d) Active infection or preterm labor
383
What is a common nursing intervention following cerclage placement?
c) Monitor for signs of infection or preterm labor
384
What is a key nursing intervention during an external cephalic version?
b) Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring
385
What is the main nursing consideration after a D&C procedure?
a) Monitor for heavy bleeding and uterine cramping
386
What is a common complication of severe preeclampsia?
d) HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets)
387
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with HELLP syndrome?
a) Monitor for signs of bleeding and organ damage
388
What is the main goal of management for a patient with a missed miscarriage?
b) Evacuate the uterus to prevent infection and complications
389
What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids in PROM?
c) Enhance fetal lung maturity in preterm pregnancies
390
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with suspected eclampsia?
a) Protect the airway and prevent injury during a seizure
391
Which type of abortion is characterized by fever, foul-smelling discharge, and uterine tenderness?
d) Septic abortion
392
What is a contraindication for D&C?
c) Active pelvic infection
393
What is a nursing priority after an incomplete abortion?
b) Monitor for excessive vaginal bleeding and infection
394
What is the most common risk of preeclampsia for the fetus?
a) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
395
What is the priority assessment after an external cephalic version?
b) Monitor for signs of uterine rupture or fetal distress
396
What is the definition of Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM)?
a) Rupture of amniotic sac before the onset of labor
397
What is the main risk associated with PROM?
c) Infection, particularly chorioamnionitis
398
What is the priority nursing intervention for PROM?
d) Monitor for signs of infection and fetal distress
399
Which test confirms the diagnosis of PROM?
b) Nitrazine test or fern test
400
What is the recommended management for PROM at 34 weeks or later?
a) Induction of labor
401
What is the definition of gestational hypertension?
c) Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks without proteinuria
402
What is the primary risk associated with gestational hypertension?
b) Progression to preeclampsia or eclampsia
403
What is the classic triad of symptoms in preeclampsia?
a) Hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
404
What is the definitive treatment for severe preeclampsia?
d) Delivery of the baby and placenta
405
Which medication is used to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia?
b) Magnesium sulfate
406
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient receiving magnesium sulfate?
a) Monitor for signs of toxicity, including loss of deep tendon reflexes
407
What is an incompetent cervix?
c) Premature cervical dilation leading to pregnancy loss
408
What is the primary treatment for an incompetent cervix?
b) Cervical cerclage
409
When is cervical cerclage typically performed?
a) Between 12-14 weeks of gestation
410
What is a critical teaching point for a patient with a cervical cerclage?
d) Report any signs of labor, bleeding, or infection
411
What is the purpose of an external cephalic version (ECV)?
c) To rotate a breech fetus to a head-down position
412
What is a contraindication for external cephalic version?
a) Placenta previa
413
What is the primary risk of external cephalic version?
b) Fetal distress or umbilical cord entanglement
414
What is the definition of a spontaneous miscarriage?
b) Pregnancy loss before 20 weeks of gestation
415
What is a threatened miscarriage?
a) Vaginal bleeding without cervical dilation
416
What characterizes an incomplete miscarriage?
b) Passage of some, but not all, fetal or placental tissue
417
What is a missed miscarriage?
d) Fetal death without expulsion of the products of conception
418
What is the most common management for an incomplete miscarriage?
c) Dilation and curettage (D&C)
419
What is the definition of an elective abortion?
b) Termination of a pregnancy by medical or surgical means
420
What is a key nursing priority after a surgical abortion?
a) Monitor for excessive bleeding and signs of infection
421
What is dilation and curettage (D&C)?
c) Surgical removal of uterine contents using a curette
422
What is a common indication for D&C?
b) Treatment of incomplete or missed miscarriage
423
What is a major risk of dilation and curettage?
d) Uterine perforation
424
What is the purpose of Rh immunoglobulin (RhoGAM) in pregnancy?
a) Prevent Rh isoimmunization in Rh-negative mothers
425
When is RhoGAM typically administered?
b) At 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after delivery or pregnancy loss
426
What is the primary difference between spontaneous and threatened miscarriage?
d) Threatened miscarriage does not involve cervical dilation
427
What is the definition of a recurrent miscarriage?
a) Three or more consecutive pregnancy losses before 20 weeks
428
What is a critical nursing intervention for a patient with PROM?
c) Avoid frequent vaginal examinations to reduce infection risk
429
What is a common fetal complication associated with PROM?
b) Preterm birth
430
What is the primary goal of bed rest and tocolytics in PROM?
a) Prolong pregnancy and reduce the risk of preterm labor
431
What is the most common symptom of an incompetent cervix?
b) Painless cervical dilation in the second trimester
432
What is a contraindication to cervical cerclage?
d) Active infection or preterm labor
433
What is a common nursing intervention following cerclage placement?
c) Monitor for signs of infection or preterm labor
434
What is a key nursing intervention during an external cephalic version?
b) Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring
435
What is the main nursing consideration after a D&C procedure?
a) Monitor for heavy bleeding and uterine cramping
436
What is a common complication of severe preeclampsia?
d) HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets)
437
What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with HELLP syndrome?
a) Monitor for signs of bleeding and organ damage
438
What is the main goal of management for a patient with a missed miscarriage?
b) Evacuate the uterus to prevent infection and complications
439
What is the primary purpose of administering corticosteroids in PROM?
c) Enhance fetal lung maturity in preterm pregnancies
440
What is the priority nursing action for a patient with suspected eclampsia?
a) Protect the airway and prevent injury during a seizure
441
Which type of abortion is characterized by fever, foul-smelling discharge, and uterine tenderness?
d) Septic abortion
442
What is a contraindication for D&C?
c) Active pelvic infection
443
What is a nursing priority after an incomplete abortion?
b) Monitor for excessive vaginal bleeding and infection
444
What is the most common risk of preeclampsia for the fetus?
a) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
445
What is the priority assessment after an external cephalic version?
b) Monitor for signs of uterine rupture or fetal distress
446
What is placenta previa?
A condition where the placenta covers the cervix.
447
Signs of placenta previa?
Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
448
Risk factors for placenta previa?
Previous cesarean deliveries, multiple pregnancies, and advanced maternal age.
449
What is abruptio placentae?
Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.
450
Symptoms of abruptio placentae?
Dark red vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and uterine tenderness.
451
What is placenta accreta?
Abnormal attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall.
452
Complications of placenta accreta?
Severe hemorrhage during delivery and possible hysterectomy.
453
What is a low-lying placenta?
A placenta located near but not covering the cervical os.
454
Management for placenta previa?
Pelvic rest, monitoring, and possible cesarean delivery.
455
When is ultrasound used in placental assessment?
To evaluate placental position at 20 weeks and again at 32 weeks if low-lying.
456
Define infertility.
Inability to conceive after one year of unprotected intercourse.
457
Common causes of infertility in women?
Ovulatory disorders, tubal factors, and uterine abnormalities.
458
Common causes of infertility in men?
Low sperm count, poor sperm motility, and hormonal imbalances.
459
What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A hormonal disorder causing enlarged ovaries with cysts.
460
How does age affect fertility?
Fertility declines with age, especially after 35 for women.
461
What is assisted reproductive technology (ART)?
Medical procedures used to address infertility, including IVF.
462
Role of clomiphene citrate in infertility treatment?
Stimulates ovulation in women with ovulatory dysfunction.
463
What are intrauterine insemination (IUI) procedures?
Placing sperm directly into a woman's uterus during ovulation.
464
What lifestyle changes can improve fertility?
Healthy diet, regular exercise, and avoiding smoking/alcohol.
465
What is endometriosis?
A condition where tissue similar to the uterine lining grows outside the uterus, causing pain and infertility.
466
What is neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)?
A condition in premature infants due to insufficient surfactant in the lungs.
467
Risk factors for RDS?
Prematurity, maternal diabetes, and cesarean delivery without labor.
468
Symptoms of RDS in newborns?
Rapid breathing, grunting sounds, flaring nostrils, and cyanosis.
469
How is RDS diagnosed?
Clinical assessment and chest X-ray showing ground-glass opacities.
470
Management strategies for RDS?
Administering oxygen therapy and surfactant replacement therapy.
471
What is the role of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)?
To keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation in RDS infants.
472
Long-term complications of RDS?
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and potential developmental delays.
473
What is meconium aspiration syndrome?
Occurs when a newborn inhales a mixture of meconium and amniotic fluid into the lungs during delivery.
474
How does maternal diabetes affect fetal lung development?
It can delay surfactant production leading to increased risk of RDS.
475
Importance of antenatal corticosteroids in preterm labor?
They accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce RDS incidence.
476
What is the main difference between abruptio placentae and placenta previa?
Abruptio placentae involves painful dark red bleeding due to the placenta separating from the uterine wall, while placenta previa presents with painless bright red bleeding as the placenta covers the cervix.
477
What are the types of placental abruption?
Partial, complete, and concealed.
478
What are the signs of placenta previa?
Painless bright red bleeding, relaxed uterus, and abnormal fetal position.
479
What nursing interventions are important for a patient with total placenta previa?
Monitor for signs of fetal distress, assess fundal height, and provide education on avoiding sexual intercourse.
480
How is placenta previa diagnosed?
Ultrasound is the primary method for diagnosing placenta previa.
481
What is a common complication of abruptio placentae?
Maternal hemorrhage and fetal distress due to decreased blood flow.
482
What does a hard, tender abdomen indicate in a pregnant patient?
It may indicate abruptio placentae due to internal bleeding and uterine irritation.
483
What should be monitored in a patient with suspected placental abruption?
Monitor vital signs, fetal heart rate, and signs of uterine tenderness or rigidity.
484
What is the typical presentation of a patient with placenta accreta?
The placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall, potentially leading to severe hemorrhage during delivery.
485
What is the significance of antenatal corticosteroids in preterm labor?
They enhance fetal lung maturity and decrease the risk of respiratory distress syndrome.
486
How does maternal diabetes affect pregnancy outcomes related to RDS?
It can delay surfactant production in the fetus, increasing the risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
487
What are the common symptoms of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)?
Rapid breathing, grunting sounds, nasal flaring, and cyanosis.
488
What is meconium aspiration syndrome?
A condition where a newborn inhales meconium-stained amniotic fluid into the lungs during delivery.
489
What role does CPAP play in managing RDS in neonates?
Continuous positive airway pressure helps keep alveoli open to improve oxygenation.
490
What are long-term complications associated with RDS?
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) and potential developmental delays in infants.
491
How can lifestyle changes improve fertility in women?
Maintaining a healthy weight, regular exercise, and avoiding smoking or excessive alcohol consumption can enhance fertility.
492
What is the most common hormonal disorder causing infertility in women?
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
493
What is assisted reproductive technology (ART)?
Medical procedures like IVF used to treat infertility by aiding conception.
494
How does age impact fertility for women?
Fertility declines significantly after age 35 due to decreased egg quality and quantity.
495
What are intrauterine insemination (IUI) procedures used for?
To introduce sperm directly into a woman's uterus during ovulation to increase chances of conception.
496
What is gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
A form of glucose intolerance that develops during pregnancy.
497
What percentage of women with GDM will develop type 2 diabetes later?
Approximately 50% within 20 years.
498
What are common risk factors for GDM?
Obesity, age over 25, previous GDM, family history of diabetes, and having a macrosomic infant.
499
When is the recommended screening for GDM?
Between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation.
500
What is the preferred diagnostic test for GDM?
Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
501
What fasting glucose level indicates GDM?
Fasting ≥ 5.1 mmol/L (≥ 92 mg/dL).
502
What is the significance of human placental lactogen (HPL) in pregnancy?
It contributes to insulin resistance to ensure glucose availability for the fetus.
503
What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia in a pregnant patient?
Sweating, shakiness, confusion, irritability, and palpitations.
504
What should be included in patient education for managing GDM?
Monitoring blood glucose levels, dietary modifications, and the importance of physical activity.
505
How can hypoglycemia be treated in a pregnant patient?
Administering fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice.
506
What is the normal birth weight range for neonates?
Typically between 2500 grams (5.5 lbs) and 4000 grams (8.8 lbs).
507
What is considered a low birth weight (LBW)?
A birth weight less than 2500 grams (5.5 lbs).
508
What are potential complications for infants born to mothers with GDM?
Macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress syndrome.
509
How does maternal diabetes affect fetal development?
It can lead to increased fetal growth and potential birth injuries during delivery.
510
What is the definition of hypothermia in newborns?
A body temperature below 36.5°C (97.7°F).
511
What are common causes of hypothermia in neonates?
Prematurity, low birth weight, and inadequate thermal protection.
512
How can hypothermia be prevented in newborns?
Using appropriate clothing, skin-to-skin contact, and maintaining a warm environment.
513
What is the primary nursing intervention for a hypothermic newborn?
Provide warming measures such as radiant warmers or incubators.
514
What are the signs of neonatal hypoglycemia?
Jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, and seizures.
515
How is neonatal hypoglycemia typically managed?
Feeding the infant or administering intravenous dextrose if necessary.
516
What IV gauge size is commonly used for neonates?
A 24-gauge catheter is often used for small veins in neonates.
517
What IV gauge size is suitable for pediatric patients?
A 22-gauge catheter is commonly used for children.
518
Why is it important to monitor blood glucose levels in neonates at risk for hypoglycemia?
Early detection allows prompt treatment to prevent neurological damage.
519
What are potential long-term effects of untreated neonatal hypoglycemia?
Developmental delays and neurological impairments.
520
How does gestational diabetes impact postpartum care?
Women should be screened again for diabetes within 6-12 weeks after delivery.
521
What dietary recommendations are important for patients with GDM?
A balanced diet with controlled carbohydrate intake to manage blood glucose levels.
522
How does stress affect blood sugar levels during pregnancy?
Stress can increase blood sugar levels due to hormonal changes.
523
What are common symptoms of hyperglycemia in pregnancy?
Increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision.
524
What role does insulin play in managing GDM?
Insulin may be required when lifestyle modifications alone do not control blood glucose levels.
525
When should a postpartum woman with a history of GDM have her glucose re-evaluated?
Within 6-12 weeks after delivery.
526
What is the purpose of monitoring fetal growth in mothers with GDM?
To assess for macrosomia and plan appropriate delivery methods to reduce risks.
527
How can nurses educate patients about recognizing signs of hyperglycemia?
Teach them to monitor symptoms like excessive thirst and frequent urination regularly.
528
What factors contribute to the development of macrosomia in infants of diabetic mothers?
Maternal hyperglycemia leading to increased fetal insulin production and growth stimulation.
529
How often should blood glucose be monitored in women with GDM during pregnancy?
Typically at least four times daily: fasting and postprandial readings after meals.
530
What is gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
A form of glucose intolerance that develops during pregnancy.
531
What percentage of women with GDM will develop type 2 diabetes later?
Approximately 50% within 20 years.
532
What are common risk factors for GDM?
Obesity, age over 25, previous GDM, family history of diabetes, and having a macrosomic infant.
533
When is the recommended screening for GDM?
Between 24 and 28 weeks of gestation.
534
What is the preferred diagnostic test for GDM?
Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
535
What fasting glucose level indicates GDM?
Fasting ≥ 5.1 mmol/L (≥ 92 mg/dL).
536
What is the significance of human placental lactogen (HPL) in pregnancy?
It contributes to insulin resistance to ensure glucose availability for the fetus.
537
What are the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia in a pregnant patient?
Sweating, shakiness, confusion, irritability, and palpitations.
538
What should be included in patient education for managing GDM?
Monitoring blood glucose levels, dietary modifications, and the importance of physical activity.
539
How can hypoglycemia be treated in a pregnant patient?
Administering fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice.
540
What is the normal birth weight range for neonates?
Typically between 2500 grams (5.5 lbs) and 4000 grams (8.8 lbs).
541
What is considered a low birth weight (LBW)?
A birth weight less than 2500 grams (5.5 lbs).
542
What are potential complications for infants born to mothers with GDM?
Macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, and respiratory distress syndrome.
543
How does maternal diabetes affect fetal development?
It can lead to increased fetal growth and potential birth injuries during delivery.
544
What is the definition of hypothermia in newborns?
A body temperature below 36.5°C (97.7°F).
545
What are common causes of hypothermia in neonates?
Prematurity, low birth weight, and inadequate thermal protection.
546
How can hypothermia be prevented in newborns?
Using appropriate clothing, skin-to-skin contact, and maintaining a warm environment.
547
What is the primary nursing intervention for a hypothermic newborn?
Provide warming measures such as radiant warmers or incubators.
548
What are the signs of neonatal hypoglycemia?
Jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, and seizures.
549
How is neonatal hypoglycemia typically managed?
Feeding the infant or administering intravenous dextrose if necessary.
550
What IV gauge size is commonly used for neonates?
A 24-gauge catheter is often used for small veins in neonates.
551
What IV gauge size is suitable for pediatric patients?
A 22-gauge catheter is commonly used for children.
552
Why is it important to monitor blood glucose levels in neonates at risk for hypoglycemia?
Early detection allows prompt treatment to prevent neurological damage.
553
What are potential long-term effects of untreated neonatal hypoglycemia?
Developmental delays and neurological impairments.
554
How does gestational diabetes impact postpartum care?
Women should be screened again for diabetes within 6-12 weeks after delivery.
555
What dietary recommendations are important for patients with GDM?
A balanced diet with controlled carbohydrate intake to manage blood glucose levels.
556
How does stress affect blood sugar levels during pregnancy?
Stress can increase blood sugar levels due to hormonal changes.
557
What are common symptoms of hyperglycemia in pregnancy?
Increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision.
558
What role does insulin play in managing GDM?
Insulin may be required when lifestyle modifications alone do not control blood glucose levels.
559
When should a postpartum woman with a history of GDM have her glucose re-evaluated?
Within 6-12 weeks after delivery.
560
What is the purpose of monitoring fetal growth in mothers with GDM?
To assess for macrosomia and plan appropriate delivery methods to reduce risks.
561
How can nurses educate patients about recognizing signs of hyperglycemia?
Teach them to monitor symptoms like excessive thirst and frequent urination regularly.
562
What factors contribute to the development of macrosomia in infants of diabetic mothers?
Maternal hyperglycemia leading to increased fetal insulin production and growth stimulation.
563
How often should blood glucose be monitored in women with GDM during pregnancy?
Typically at least four times daily: fasting and postprandial readings after meals.
564
What is transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)?
A temporary breathing problem in newborns caused by delayed clearance of lung fluid after birth.
565
What are the main risk factors for TTN?
C-section delivery
566
What are the symptoms of TTN?
Rapid breathing (>60 breaths/min)
567
How is TTN diagnosed?
Based on clinical symptoms and chest X-ray showing fluid in the lungs.
568
What is the usual treatment for TTN?
Supportive care including oxygen therapy and monitoring; it typically resolves within 48-72 hours.
569
What complications can arise from TTN if untreated?
Hypoxia
570
How can TTN be differentiated from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
TTN shows fluid retention on X-ray
571
What is the typical oxygen saturation goal for newborns with TTN?
Maintain oxygen saturation >90%.
572
What causes fluid retention in the lungs in TTN?
Delayed absorption of lung fluid during delivery.
573
Why are C-section babies at higher risk for TTN?
They miss the mechanical compression of the lungs during vaginal delivery that helps expel fluid.
574
What should nurses monitor for in newborns with TTN?
Respiratory rate
575
When should newborns with TTN be fed?
After respiratory distress resolves or is well-controlled.
576
What is the first priority in managing TTN?
Ensuring adequate oxygenation.
577
What are normal respiratory rates for newborns in the first day of life?
30-60 breaths per minute.
578
What intervention is required if a newborn's respiratory rate exceeds 60 breaths per minute?
Withhold oral feeds and provide IV fluids to prevent aspiration.
579
What are normal heart rates for newborns in the first day of life?
120-160 beats per minute.
580
What is the Apgar score?
A quick assessment of a newborn's health at 1 and 5 minutes after birth.
581
What five criteria are assessed in the Apgar score?
Heart rate
582
What is a normal Apgar score?
7-10 is considered normal.
583
What is the first priority in the delivery room for a newborn?
Drying and warming to prevent hypothermia.
584
What is uterine inversion?
A rare obstetric emergency where the uterus turns inside out
585
What is the most common cause of uterine inversion?
Excessive pulling on the umbilical cord or fundal pressure during delivery.
586
What are signs of uterine inversion?
Severe pain
587
What is the first nursing action in uterine inversion?
Call for immediate assistance and prepare for manual uterine replacement.
588
What medication is administered to relax the uterus in uterine inversion?
Nitroglycerin or a tocolytic like terbutaline.
589
What is the priority after correcting uterine inversion?
Preventing hemorrhage by administering uterotonics like oxytocin.
590
What is the most common complication of uterine inversion?
Postpartum hemorrhage.
591
How is uterine inversion prevented during delivery?
Avoid excessive traction on the umbilical cord and fundal pressure.
592
What is the first nursing action for postpartum hemorrhage?
Perform fundal massage and assess uterine tone.
593
What is the recommended IV fluid for hemorrhagic shock?
Isotonic crystalloids like lactated Ringer’s or normal saline.
594
What gauge IV catheter is preferred for emergency situations?
18- or 16-gauge for rapid fluid resuscitation.
595
How often should vital signs be monitored during IV fluid resuscitation?
Every 5-15 minutes
596
What are the signs of fluid overload during IV therapy?
Edema
597
What is the nursing responsibility for IV infiltration?
Stop the infusion
598
What are normal glucose levels for a newborn in the first day of life?
40-60 mg/dL.
599
What is hypoglycemia in a newborn?
Blood glucose <40 mg/dL.
600
What is the first action if hypoglycemia is suspected in a newborn?
Feed the newborn or administer IV glucose if symptomatic.
601
What are signs of newborn hypoglycemia?
Jitteriness
602
What is a priority nursing action for a newborn with low temperature?
Place the newborn under a radiant warmer and assess for hypoglycemia.
603
What are the signs of neonatal sepsis?
Temperature instability
604
What IV antibiotic is commonly used for neonatal sepsis?
Ampicillin and gentamicin.
605
What is the most common cause of respiratory distress on the first day of life?
Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN).
606
What are signs of dehydration in a newborn?
Sunken fontanelles
607
What IV fluid is typically used for newborns?
Dextrose 10% in water (D10W).
608
What is the normal urine output for a newborn in the first day of life?
1-3 wet diapers per day.
609
What is the priority for a newborn with meconium-stained fluid at birth?
Suction the airway to prevent aspiration if the newborn is not vigorous.
610
What should a nurse do if a newborn is choking during feeds?
Stop feeding
611
What is the role of a tocolytic during uterine inversion?
Relax the uterus for easier manual repositioning.
612
What is the normal blood pressure for a newborn in the first day of life?
60-80/40-50 mmHg.
613
What is the recommended daily caloric increase during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Approximately 100-150 extra calories per day.
614
How much extra protein should a pregnant woman consume daily?
About 25 grams more than usual.
615
What nutrient prevents neural tube defects in pregnancy?
Folic acid.
616
How much folic acid is recommended for pregnant women daily?
400-800 mcg.
617
Which vitamin is essential for iron absorption during pregnancy?
Vitamin C.
618
What is the recommended daily iron intake for pregnant women?
27 mg.
619
Which foods are high in iron for pregnancy?
Lean meats, spinach, fortified cereals, and legumes.
620
How much calcium is recommended daily during pregnancy?
1,000 mg.
621
Which foods are rich sources of calcium for pregnancy?
Dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified plant milk.
622
Why is omega-3 fatty acid important in pregnancy?
It supports fetal brain and eye development.
623
Name two dietary sources of omega-3 fatty acids.
Salmon and flaxseeds.
624
What is the recommended daily iodine intake during pregnancy?
220 mcg.
625
What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal BMI during pregnancy?
25-35 lbs (11.5-16 kg).
626
What is the recommended weight gain for an underweight woman during pregnancy?
28-40 lbs (12.7-18.1 kg).
627
What is the recommended weight gain for an overweight woman during pregnancy?
15-25 lbs (6.8-11.3 kg).
628
What is the caloric need increase during the second trimester?
About 340 extra calories per day.
629
What is the caloric need increase during the third trimester?
About 450 extra calories per day.
630
What is the primary energy source for term infants?
Carbohydrates.
631
Which nutrient is critical for term infant growth and brain development?
Protein.
632
What is the primary source of nutrition for a term infant in the first 6 months?
Breast milk or formula.
633
What is the average weight of a term infant at birth?
5.5-8.8 lbs (2.5-4 kg).
634
How many calories per day does a term infant need?
About 100-120 kcal/kg/day.
635
What is the recommended daily fluid intake for a term infant?
100-150 mL/kg/day.
636
Why is vitamin D supplementation recommended for breastfed infants?
To prevent rickets and ensure proper bone health.
637
How much vitamin D is recommended for breastfed infants daily?
400 IU.
638
What is the recommended protein intake for term infants?
1.5-2.2 g/kg/day.
639
What type of fat is important for infant brain development?
DHA (Docosahexaenoic acid).
640
What is the normal growth rate for term infants during the first 6 months?
About 1 oz (30 g) per day.
641
At what age can term infants begin solid foods?
Around 6 months old.
642
What is the first solid food recommended for infants?
Iron-fortified single-grain cereal.
643
What is the recommended iron intake for infants aged 7-12 months?
11 mg per day.
644
What is the average birth length of a term infant?
19-21 inches (48-53 cm).
645
How much weight should a healthy term infant regain by 2 weeks of age?
Birth weight should be regained.
646
What is the calorie content of breast milk or formula per ounce?
Approximately 20 kcal/oz.
647
What is the recommended breastfeeding duration by the WHO?
Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months.
648
What is the recommended daily zinc intake for term infants?
3 mg per day.
649
What is the daily caloric increase for breastfeeding mothers?
500 extra calories per day.
650
How much fluid should breastfeeding mothers consume daily?
About 3 liters (12 cups).
651
What foodborne illness should pregnant women avoid by avoiding deli meats and unpasteurized cheeses?
Listeria.
652
What is the average weekly weight gain during the second and third trimesters?
0.5-1 lb (0.2-0.45 kg).
653
What is the role of choline during pregnancy?
Supports fetal brain development.
654
What is the recommended daily choline intake during pregnancy?
450 mg.
655
What is the recommended daily fiber intake during pregnancy?
25-30 grams.
656
What is the normal weight of a term infant at one year?
Approximately 20-22 lbs (9-10 kg).
657
Which vitamin is essential for preventing anemia in pregnant women?
Vitamin B12.
658
What is the recommended daily vitamin B12 intake during pregnancy?
2.6 mcg.
659
How much weight should a healthy term infant gain per week after the first month?
4-7 oz (113-198 g) per week.
660
What is the benefit of colostrum for newborns?
Rich in antibodies and nutrients for immunity.
661
How long should formula be the sole source of nutrition for non-breastfed infants?
Until 6 months old.
662
What is the recommended daily caloric increase during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Approximately 100-150 extra calories per day.
663
How much extra protein should a pregnant woman consume daily?
About 25 grams more than usual.
664
What nutrient prevents neural tube defects in pregnancy?
Folic acid.
665
How much folic acid is recommended for pregnant women daily?
400-800 mcg.
666
Which vitamin is essential for iron absorption during pregnancy?
Vitamin C.
667
What is the recommended daily iron intake for pregnant women?
27 mg.
668
Which foods are high in iron for pregnancy?
Lean meats, spinach, fortified cereals, and legumes.
669
How much calcium is recommended daily during pregnancy?
1,000 mg.
670
Which foods are rich sources of calcium for pregnancy?
Dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified plant milk.
671
Why is omega-3 fatty acid important in pregnancy?
It supports fetal brain and eye development.
672
Name two dietary sources of omega-3 fatty acids.
Salmon and flaxseeds.
673
What is the recommended daily iodine intake during pregnancy?
220 mcg.
674
What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal BMI during pregnancy?
25-35 lbs (11.5-16 kg).
675
What is the recommended weight gain for an underweight woman during pregnancy?
28-40 lbs (12.7-18.1 kg).
676
What is the recommended weight gain for an overweight woman during pregnancy?
15-25 lbs (6.8-11.3 kg).
677
What is the caloric need increase during the second trimester?
About 340 extra calories per day.
678
What is the caloric need increase during the third trimester?
About 450 extra calories per day.
679
What is the primary energy source for term infants?
Carbohydrates.
680
Which nutrient is critical for term infant growth and brain development?
Protein.
681
What is the primary source of nutrition for a term infant in the first 6 months?
Breast milk or formula.
682
What is the average weight of a term infant at birth?
5.5-8.8 lbs (2.5-4 kg).
683
How many calories per day does a term infant need?
About 100-120 kcal/kg/day.
684
What is the recommended daily fluid intake for a term infant?
100-150 mL/kg/day.
685
Why is vitamin D supplementation recommended for breastfed infants?
To prevent rickets and ensure proper bone health.
686
How much vitamin D is recommended for breastfed infants daily?
400 IU.
687
What is the recommended protein intake for term infants?
1.5-2.2 g/kg/day.
688
What type of fat is important for infant brain development?
DHA (Docosahexaenoic acid).
689
What is the normal growth rate for term infants during the first 6 months?
About 1 oz (30 g) per day.
690
At what age can term infants begin solid foods?
Around 6 months old.
691
What is the first solid food recommended for infants?
Iron-fortified single-grain cereal.
692
What is the recommended iron intake for infants aged 7-12 months?
11 mg per day.
693
What is the average birth length of a term infant?
19-21 inches (48-53 cm).
694
How much weight should a healthy term infant regain by 2 weeks of age?
Birth weight should be regained.
695
What is the calorie content of breast milk or formula per ounce?
Approximately 20 kcal/oz.
696
What is the recommended breastfeeding duration by the WHO?
Exclusive breastfeeding for 6 months.
697
What is the recommended daily zinc intake for term infants?
3 mg per day.
698
What is the daily caloric increase for breastfeeding mothers?
500 extra calories per day.
699
How much fluid should breastfeeding mothers consume daily?
About 3 liters (12 cups).
700
What foodborne illness should pregnant women avoid by avoiding deli meats and unpasteurized cheeses?
Listeria.
701
What is the average weekly weight gain during the second and third trimesters?
0.5-1 lb (0.2-0.45 kg).
702
What is the role of choline during pregnancy?
Supports fetal brain development.
703
What is the recommended daily choline intake during pregnancy?
450 mg.
704
What is the recommended daily fiber intake during pregnancy?
25-30 grams.
705
What is the normal weight of a term infant at one year?
Approximately 20-22 lbs (9-10 kg).
706
Which vitamin is essential for preventing anemia in pregnant women?
Vitamin B12.
707
What is the recommended daily vitamin B12 intake during pregnancy?
2.6 mcg.
708
How much weight should a healthy term infant gain per week after the first month?
4-7 oz (113-198 g) per week.
709
What is the benefit of colostrum for newborns?
Rich in antibodies and nutrients for immunity.
710
How long should formula be the sole source of nutrition for non-breastfed infants?
Until 6 months old.
