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ANP1107B: Human Anatomy & Physiology III Maintenance and Continuity of the Human Body: Digestive and Urinary Systems, Metabolism, Immunity and Reproductive Systems > Nutrition and Energy Balance pt 2 > Flashcards

Nutrition and Energy Balance pt 2 Flashcards

(98 cards)

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1
Q

What are the exocrine cells of the pancreas called?

A

Acinar cells

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2
Q

Do pancreatic islets contain endocrine or exocrine cells?

A

Endocrine

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3
Q

Alpha cells produce what?

A

Glucagon

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4
Q

Beta cells produce what?

A

Insulin

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5
Q

When is insulin secreted?

A

Blood glucose levels increase, blood levels of AAs and FAs increase, ACh is released by parasympathetic nerve fibers

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6
Q

What is insulin first synthesized as?

A

Proinsulin

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7
Q

What are the three ways that insulin lowers blood glucose?

A

Enhance membrane transport of glucose into fat and muscle cells, inhibit breakdown of glycogen, inhibit conversion of AAs and fats to glucose

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8
Q

What is the net effect of insulin?

A

Lower blood glucose and AAs and FFAs, increased glycogen storage

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9
Q

What is glucagon triggered by?

A

Decreased blood glucose, rising AA levels, sympathetic NS

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10
Q

How does the liver use glucagon to raise blood glucose levels?

A

Glycogen into glucose, synthesize glucose from lactic acid and other noncarbs, release glucose into blood

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11
Q

What is the net effect of glucagon?

A

Increased blood glucose and blood AAs and FFAs, decreased glycogen storage

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12
Q

Diabetes mellitus is characterized by what?

A

High levels of blood glucose from defects in insulin production, insulin action, or both. Complex disorders of CHO, fat and protein metabolism.

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13
Q

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

A

Type 1 there is an absolute insulin deficiency, type 2 is insulin resistance

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14
Q

Which is more common, type 1 or type 2 diabetes?

A

Type 2 (90%) compared to type 1 (10%)

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15
Q

What are the consequences of insulin deficiency (diabetes)?

A

Decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral tissue, increased glucose production (gluconeogenesis) and increased release of glucose from the liver (glycogenolysis)

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16
Q

In type 1 diabetes, fats can be used as fuel which can cause _______: high levels of fatty acids in blood

A

Lipidemia

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17
Q

Fatty acid metabolism (lipolysis), as seen in type 1 diabetes, results in the formation of what energy source:

A

Ketones

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18
Q

List 3 risk factors for type 2 diabetes

A

Age, obesity, hypertension, inactivity, family history

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19
Q

What are some consequences of obesity related to type 2 diabetes?

A

Adipose tissue secrete hormones that decrease insulin sensitivity, increased FFAs and cholesterol, increase in inflammatory cytokines that cause insulin resistance and are toxic to beta cells

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20
Q

What are the cells of the liver called?

A

Hepatocytes- they carry out around 500 metabolic functions

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21
Q

What are some of the roles of the liver in metabolism?

A

Process every class of nutrient, regulate plasma cholesterol levels, store vitamins and minerals, metabolize alcohol, drugs, hormones, and bilirubin

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22
Q

Is cholesterol used as an energy source?

A

No

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23
Q

What is cholesterol used for?

A

Structural basis for bile salts, steroid hormones, vitamin D, major component of plasma membranes

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24
Q

__% of cholesterol is ingested and the rest is made in the liver

A

15

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25
What molecule transports cholesterol through blood?
Lipoprotein
26
VLDLs have very low density, which means they have more/less lipids?
More
27
What are the four types of transport lipoproteins?
HDLs, LDLs, VLDLs, chylomicrons
28
What is the role of chylomicrons?
To carry absorbed lipids from intestine to liver
29
What is the role of VLDLs?
To carry TGs from liver to peripheral tissues, mostly to adipose tissue
30
What is the role of LDLs?
To carry cholesterol from liver to tissues
31
What is the role of HDLs?
To carry cholesterol from tissues to liver
32
What is the ideal recommended cholesterol levels in Canada?
Less than 5.2mml/L is ideal, more than 6.2 is high
33
What is the ideal HDL intake levels in canada?
More than 0.9mmol/L
34
What is the ideal LDL intake levels in canada?
Less than 3.5mmol/L is ideal, more than 4.0 is high
35
True or false: the liver produces more cholesterol if you do not ingest enough
False. Produces cholesterol at a basal level regardless of dietary intake.
36
Which fatty acid, saturated or unsaturated, enhances excretion of cholesterol into bile salts?
Unsaturated. Saturated fat stimulates liver synthesis of cholesterol and inhibits cholesterol excretion
37
What are the effects of trans fat on the levels of lipoproteins?
Increase LDL, reduce HDL
38
What are three effects of unsaturated omega-3 fatty acids to lower the proportion of saturated fats and cholesterol?
Make platelets less sticky and help prevent spontaneous clotting, have antiarrhythmic effects on the heart, can lower blood pressure
39
Fat carried on the upper body, also known as an apple body shape, correlates with what?
High cholesterol and LDL levels
40
Follicles, found in the thyroid gland, produce which glycoprotein?
Thyroglobulin
41
Parafollicular cells produce which hormone?
Calcitonin
42
True or false: the thyroid hormone is the body's major metabolic hormone
True
43
T4 (Thyroxine), is the major form of the thyroid hormone and is bound to _ iodine atoms
4
44
What are some of the effects of the thyroid hormone?
Increase basal metabolic rate and heat production (calorigenic effect), regulate tissue growth and development, maintain BP
45
Where are T3 and T4 stored?
Follicles lumen until triggered to release by TSH
46
What molecule transports thyroid hormone?
Thyroxine-binding globulins
47
Falling thyroid hormone levels stimulate the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone. This is a positive/negative feedback mechanism.
Negative
48
Hypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) can overcome the negative feedback mechanism of TH during:
Pregnancy or exposure to cold
49
What causes myxedema? How can a goiter develop?
TH Hyposecretion; lack of iodine
50
In infants, hyposecretion of TH can cause:
cretinism
51
Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone can cause what?
Grave's disease
52
What proportion of energy is immediately lost as heat?
60%
53
Almost all energy from food is eventually converted to heat which is useful because:
It warms tissues and blood, helps maintain homeostatic body temp, allows metabolic reactions to occur efficiently
54
What is the BMI formula?
BMI= weight (in kg)/height (in m^2)
55
Name 3 diseases/consequences that have an increased incidence as a result of obesity:
Atherosclerosis, diabetes, hypertension, heart disease, osteoarthritis
56
What is the proportion of adults that are overweight?
2/3
57
What is the proportion of adult overweight individuals who are obese?
1/3
58
What is the proportion of diabetes in obese individuals?
1/10
59
What are the five risk factors of metabolic syndrome?
1. Increased waist circumference 2. Increased BP 3. Increased blood glucose 4. Increased blood triglycerides 5. Decreased HDL cholesterol
60
The presence of risk factors associated with metabolic syndrome can result in what?
Double the chance of heart disease, increase the risk of diabetes 5x
61
The _________ plays an important role in regulating food intake
Hypothalamus
62
What are the three areas of the hypothalamus that release peptides to influence feeding behaviour?
Arcuate nucleus (ARC), lateral hypothalamic area (LHA), ventromedial nucleus (VMN)
63
Some ARC neurons release _________ that enhance appetite
Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
64
Some ARC neurons release _________ and _________ which suppress appetite.
Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) and cocaine-amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART)
65
The LHA increases/decreases hunger when stimulated by neuropeptides
Increases
66
VMN increases/decreases hunger through release of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) when stimulated by appetite-suppressing peptides (POMC and CART)
Decrease
67
List 3 ways that feeding behaviour and hunger is regulated by:
Neural signals from GI tract, bloodborne signals related to body energy stores, hormones, body temperature, psychological factors. Additional factors in regulation of food intake include: temperature (cold activates hunger), stress, adenovirus infections, sleep deprivation, composition of gut bacteria.
68
True or false: Food intake is regulated by short and long-term controls.
True
69
How do neural signals from the digestive tract regulate food intake?
High protein content of meal increases and prolongs afferent vagal signals-> sends signals along vagus nerve to suppress hunger center
70
Name 2 hormones that stimulate hunger
Glucagon, epinephrine, ghrelin (
71
Name 2 hormones that depress hunger
Insulin, CCK
72
What hormone is the major component of long-term regulation of food intake?
Leptin
73
Leptin is secreted by what type of cells?
Fat cells, in response to increased body fat mass
74
What are some of the roles of leptin?
Protects against weight loss in times of nutritional deprivation, acts on ARC neurons in hypothalamus, suppresses secretion of NPY (potent appetite stimulant), stimulates expression of appetite suppressants
75
True or false: Obese people have high leptin levels
True, but they seem resistant to its action
76
Metabolic rate is defined as:
Total head produced by chemical reactions and mechanical work of body
77
What tool is used to measure metabolic rate directly?
Calorimeter
78
What tool is used to measure metabolic rate indirectly?
Respirometer
79
Basal metabolic rate can be defined as:
Energy body needs to perform its most essential activities
80
List 3 ways that basal metabolic rate is influenced by
Age, gender, body temp, stress, thyroxine. BMR decreases with age; males have higher BMR; BMR increases with temp and stress; thyroxine increases O2 consumption and BMR
81
Total metabolic rate is defined as:
Rate of kilocalorie consumption to fuel all ongoing activities. Can be considered as daily energy expenditure.
82
What are the three components of total metabolic rate?
Basal energy expenditure, thermic effect of food, energy expended on physical activity
83
True or false: At rest, most heat is generated from muscles
False: Liver, heart, brain, kidneys, and endocrine organs.
84
What is normal body temperature?
37 degrees celsius +/- 5 degrees (98.6F)
85
True or false: Tissues can tolerate low temperatures better than high temperatures
True
86
What is the temperature that is the limit for life?
Around 43 degrees celsius
87
True or false: Taking temperature via the mouth is the best clinical indicator
False: rectum
88
What are the four mechanisms of heat transfer?
Radiation, conduction, convection, evaporation
89
What is insensible heat loss?
Water loss from lungs, oral mucosa, and skin
90
What region of the hypothalamus is the main integrating center for thermoregulation?
Preoptic region
91
Hypothalamus receives afferent input from which thermoreceptors?
Peripheral (skin) and central (core)
92
List 3 heat-promoting mechanisms
Putting on more clothes, drinking hot fluids, changing posture, increasing physical activity. Constriction of cutaneous blood vessels (sympathetic NS), shivering, increases in metabolic rate (epinephrine and norepinephrine, brown adipose tissue), enhanced release of thyroxine
93
List 3 heat-loss mechanisms
Wearing light-coloured, loose-fitting clothing, take off sweater, turn on fan, cold drink, reduce activity, seek cooler environment, dilation of cutaneous blood vessels, enhanced sweating
94
Why does vasoconstriction promote heat?
Less blood flow to skin where heat loss is likely to occur
95
In hypothermia, at what temperature does shivering stop? What temperature can lead to coma and death by cardiac arrest?
30-32 degrees celsius; around 21 degrees celsius
96
In hyperthermia, at what temperature can a heat stroke begin?
41 degrees celsius
97
What causes heat exhaustion?
Vigorous exercise, dehydration, low BP
98
How does the hypothalamus increases the set-point of the body temperature?
Macrophages release cytokines called pyrogens that release prostaglandins from the hypothalamus

ANP1107B: Human Anatomy & Physiology III Maintenance and Continuity of the Human Body: Digestive and Urinary Systems, Metabolism, Immunity and Reproductive Systems (2 decks)

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