Nutrition Block Flashcards
(200 cards)
1
Q
What’s the most common nutritional disorder?
A
Obesity
2
Q
What is considered overweight?
A
6/9 - 7/9
3
Q
What is considered obese?
A
BCS 8/9 - 9/9
4
Q
What are 4 negative consequences of obesity?
A
Source of inflammatory cytokines
Skin disorder
Respiratory compromise
Shortened life span
5
Q
What are 3 increased risks associated with obesity?
A
Increased risk of diabetes mellitus
Increased risk of orthopedic disease
6
Q
When should you switch a puppy to an adult maintenance diet?
A
Once skeletal maturity is reached
7
Q
What BCS should large breed dogs be kept at?
A
4/9
8
Q
Why keep large breed puppies lower on BCS during development?
A
Reduce orthopedic disease
9
Q
When will some large breed dogs switch to adult maintenance diets?
A
12-15 months
10
Q
What is each BCS point roughly equal to?
A
About 10%
11
Q
What percent of body weight would a dog need to lose to go from a 7 to a 5?
A
About 20% of BW to reach IBW
12
Q
What is the RER equation for smaller dogs (3-25kg)
A
30(BW)+70
13
Q
What is the RER equation for larger dogs 25kg+?
A
70(BW^0.75)
14
Q
What is the absolute minimum protein for dogs (g per 100kcal)
A
6.0g/100kcal
15
Q
What is the absolute minimum protein for cats (g per 100kcal)?
A
8.9g/kcal
16
Q
What will an increase in dietary fiber cause?
A
Increased volume and frequency of bowel movements
17
Q
How should you measure your food?
A
ON A g/DAY basis!
18
Q
Are vegetables a good low calorie treat?
A
Yes! Green beans, carrots, cucumbers, and celery
19
Q
What’s a good weight loss goal per week?
For low protein diets?
A
1%-2% per week
Low protein diets 0.5%-1%
20
Q
What is the obesity paradox?
A
Being obese can predispose to chronic wasting diseases but once a chronic wasting disease is diagnosed, it may be better to be obese/overweight
21
Q
What’s a good BCS for an animal with a chronic wasting disease?
A
7/9
22
Q
What 2 things should you do when an animal reaches a plateau?
A
1) Reassure owner its normal
2) Reduce feed intake by 2.5-5%
23
Q
What is the best tool for managing obesity?
A
Prevention!
24
Q
What are the 2 components to a weight loss plan?
A
Animal assessment
Diet assessment
25
What are the only 3 words with legal definitions in weight loss pet foods?
Lite
Light
Low-calorie
26
Can you just feed less food per day to have weight loss?
No, nutritional deficiencies
27
What are the 4 unconventional diets?
Raw
Vegetarian/Vegan
Home prepared
BEG
28
What does BEG stand for?
Boutique, exotic, grain free
29
What are some health risks associated with unconventional diets?
Infectious disease transmission
Nutritional inadequacy
Hyperthyroidism
Dietary associated cardiomyopathy (DCM)
30
What time period is the most profound inadequacies of home prepared meals found?
Growth/puppy stage
31
What are the 4 most common disease risks (bacterial) of feeding raw?
E. coli
Salmonella
Cryptosporidium
Toxoplasma Gondii
32
Who else is especially at risk with feeding raw diets?
Immunocompromised
Children
Elderly
(Even if now showing disease, can still spread it)
33
What metabolic disease is sometimes seen in dogs eating raw diets?
Hyperthyroidism
-Likely from consuming thyroid tissue, normal thyroid resumes after stopping raw diet
34
Are all vegan/vegetarian diets bad?
No
35
What is something common that Vega/vegetarian diets are deficient in?
Essential amino acids
36
What’s the website that the Dr. Recommends using?
BalanceIT
37
What are the 2 types of blood needed to test for taurine deficiency? CHECK TAURINE ON DCM DOGS
Spun down plasma
Whole blood
38
What can hyperintensive lesions on brainstem be caused by?
Thiamine deficiency
39
What are 3 ingredients that have been shown to not be good for dogs?
Peas, chickpeas, lentils
-Probably not good if one of top ingredients
40
What is something that should be considered before recommending a diet?
If at least 1 full time veterinarian is on staff
41
Generational changes lead to increased incidence of postpartum __________
Displaced abomassums
42
When does most of the growth of a fetus occur?
During the latter 1/3rd of gestation
43
As a pig gets older, does it need more or less crude protein, metabolizable protein, and lysine as a percent of its diet?
Less, more, more
44
What is the goal for a dairy calf?
Double weight from birth to weaning (6-8 weeks)
45
What is the rough body weight and height gain for Holsteins to reach appropriate size and weight by breeding at 13 months?
1.7lb/day
1.2”/month
46
What is the rough body weight and height gain for Jerseys to reach appropriate size and weight by breeding at 13 months?
1.3lb/day
1.1”/month
NEED TO ACHIEVE BOTH. DONT WANT SHORT FAT HEIFER
47
What is the SIP of colostrum quality?
S = supply of colostrum
I = amount of immunoglobulins
P = Pathogens should not be present (less than 100,000 cfu/mL)
48
What is the total solids measurement?
(0.9984 x Brix reading) + 2.077 = Total solids (%)
49
How do humans and rabbits transfer their Ig?
Through the placenta
50
How do ungulates transfer their Ig?
Through their colostrum
51
How do rats, dogs, and cats transfer their Ig?
Through both placenta and colostrum
52
What stimulates the production of carbohydrase activity?
Consumption of solid feed
53
What stimulates development of rumen in calves?
Butyrate production
54
Which ungulate species has the lowest milk fat?
Mares
55
What ungulate species has the highest milk fat production?
Sows
Ewes are also up there
56
When is the weaning time for dairy cows?
5-6 weeks
57
When is the weaning time for foals?
4-5 months
58
When is the weaning time for piglets?
3-4 weeks / 10-16lb
59
When is the weaning time for goats?
60 days
60
When is the weaning time for sheep?
60 days
61
When is the weaning time for beef cows?
300lbs
62
How much colostrum should a dairy calf get at birth?
Within 12-24hrs?
2 quarts
Another 2 quarts
63
What is the definition of immunity?
The ability to decern self from nonself
64
What is a PAMP and what is its role?
Pathogen associated molecular pattern
It is a conserved region which is recognized by the body
65
What are PRRs and what are their roles?
Pathogen recognition receptor (like an LPS receptor)
Senses the PAMPs to tell cells to respond
66
What is the most well-characterized PRR
TLR (toll like receptors)
67
Which TLR recognizes LPS?
TLR 4 (very evolutionarily conserved)
68
True/False
An infection is only recognized by a single type of PRR resulting in only a single downstream cascade?
False
69
What are some examples of pro inflammatory factors?
IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
70
What cell is the very first line of defense for the innate immune system (NETs, phagocytosis, enzymes)
Neutrophils
71
What are the innate cells best at phagocytosis and also present antigens to T cells?
Macrophages
72
What are the parasitic or allergic reaction innate cells?
Eosinophils
73
What innate cells produce heparin and histamine to encourage blood flow to areas? Also recruit eosinophils
Mast cells
74
What is the innate cell that just focuses on elimination (for the most part)?
Natural killer cells
75
What innate cell is able to trap antigens to present to T cells as its primary job?
Dendritic cells
76
What is the word antigen derived from?
ANTIbody GENerating molecule
77
What do T and B cells actually bind to on the antigen?
The epitope
78
What does APC stand for?
Antigen presenting cell
79
What must an antigen be bound to to be recognized by a T lymphocyte?
An MHC
80
Which MHC is expressed by almost every cell in the body?
MHC 1
81
What does MHC1 present intracellular peptides to?
What does MHCII present extracellular peptides to?
CD8 T cells
CD4 T cells
82
What cells express MHC II?
Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
83
Describe the 3 steps to antigen presentation?
1. Bring it in (phagocytosis)
2. Break it down into smaller structures
3. Antigen presentation on MHC
84
What are the best professional antigen presenting cells?
Dendritic cells
85
What manor do professional antigen presenting cells present antigens?
With MHC II (dendritic cells, macrophages, and sometimes B lymphocytes)
86
What are primary lymphoid tissue?
Where initial maturation, programming and differentiation occurs
Bones and thymus
87
What are secondary lymphoid tissues?
Where lymphocytes reside and mount a response?
Lymph nodes and spleen
88
How many epitopes can a single B and T cell recognize
Just a single epitope!
89
What are the specialized venues that connect the blood system to the lymphatic system?
High endothelial venues (HEVs)
90
What is the first thing that happens when a specific T lymphocyte comes in contact with its specific antigen?
This is called clonal selection then clonal expansion occurs where many more of the same T lymphocyte form
91
What are the 2 general cell populations that form during clonal expansion?
Effector population
Memory population
92
Do you supplement sheep with copper and why?
No, they can develop copper toxicity
93
What is the fix for polioencephalomalacia?
Thiamin injection
94
What reduces fiber quality in goats?
Overfeeding energy and protein
95
What are the compartments of a camelid stomach
C1
C2
C3 (fermentation vat)
96
What does C1 do in the camelid?
Similar to reticule-rumen, buffering secretion
97
What does C2 do?
Similar to omasum, absorb VFA and water
98
Why are camelids less prone to ketosis than ruminants?
Propionate higher than ruminant
99
What should the primary diet of horses be?
Forage diet
100
What nutritional factor can cause laminitis/founder in horses?
Pasture (spring) or over feeding of grain
101
What can nutritional change can decrease colic in horses?
Limiting starch intake
102
What increases risk of insulin resistance?
Over conditioning, age
103
When are pigs usually weaning?
10-16lb
3-4 weeks
104
How should you feed gilts vs barrows?
Gilts have better feed efficiency, require higher level of protein and need more energy dense diets than barrows
105
What are high quality protein diets?
Soybean meal and fish meal
106
What are low quality protein diets?
Peanuts meal or cottonseed meal
107
What occurs when you use low quality protein in feed?
Excess nitrogen excretion
108
What critical enzyme do swine lack?
Phytase which disallows swine from utilizing bound phosphorus
109
How is the lack of phytase fixed?
Synthetic phytase enzyme can be added
110
How long do chickens need to reach market weight?
6-7 weeks
111
How much time elapses before fetus weighs as much as membranes?
50%
112
What nutritional requirement decreases as pigs grow older?
Less protein is needed
113
What is the goal for a dairy calf in terms of BW at weaning
Goal is to double BW from birth to weaning
114
What is the growth weight per day for Holsteins at breeding time?
1.7lb/day
1.2”/month
115
What does SIP stand for?
Supply of colostrum
Immunoglobulin concentration
Pathogens of low presence
116
How do humans and rabbits transfer Ig?
Through placenta
117
How do ungulates transfer Ig?
Through colostrum
118
What stimulate the development of carbohydrase development?
Solid feed consumption
119
What stimulates rumen development?
Butyrate production
120
Do mares have high or low milk fat?
Very low
121
Do sows and ewes have high or low milk fat?
Very high
122
Do heifers get forage before weaning?
NO!
123
What is the difference between accelerated snd traditional weaning?
Accelerated aims to wean calves a couple week earlier while traditional stays at 8 weeks
124
What are the 2 greatest health risks at parturition?
Hypocalemia
Ketosis
125
Why does plasma vitamin E decrease at parturition?
Decreased intake prior to calving
Increase vitamin E in colostrum
Use of vitamin E in immune system
126
What are 2 examples of passive immunity?
Maternal antibodies and anti-serum
127
What are the 2 categories of active immunity?
Infectious
Non-infectious
128
What are 4 examples of infectious active immunity?
Live
Live-attenuated
Heterologous
Recombinant
129
What are 3 examples of non-infectious active immunity?
Killed (whole)
Subunit
DNA/RNA/mRNA
130
What is another term for wild-type strain?
Street virus
131
What is the capability of an organism to induce clinical disease as a result of infection?
Virulence
132
What is a reduction in the ability of a pathogen to induce clinical disease?
Attenuation
133
What is a viable organisms capable of infection and replication?
Live
134
What is a substance added to a vaccine to promote induction of the immune response towards the vaccine components?
Adjuvant
135
What does passive immunity (pre-formed antibodies) help to eliminate?
The lag phase
136
What are live virulent vaccines?
Vaccine contains the full infectious form of the pathogen
Uncommon due to risk of clinical disease
137
What are live attenuated vaccines?
VERY COMMON
Composed of intact organisms capable of infection and replication but has modifications that limit the infectivity and virulence reducing morbidity and mortality
138
What are ways to attenuate a vaccine?
Heat
Virulence gene modification/mutation
139
What is a risk of live attenuated vaccines?
Risk of reversion of pathogen through a mutation
Risk of disease in immunocompromised
Less stable (storage to preserve viability)
140
What are heterologous vaccines?
Usage of antigenically related pathogen (probably lowest ability to work)
Like a virus that infects another species but a virus within the same family causes enough of an immune response to reduce disease
141
What are recombinant vaccines?
Organism that expressed modified protein to be targeted by immune system without virulent pathogen use
142
How can you tell the difference between an immune response to a vaccine vs a wild type exposure?
Can check for epitope specific antibodies in order to discern vaccine Ig vs wild-type Ig
Basically the Ig will have a slightly different gene expression between the two
143
What are non-infectious vaccines?
Those incapable of replication or expression of virulence factors (no clinical disease)
144
What is a subunit vaccine?
Does not contain entire organism, just specific proteins derived from that organism that are highly antigenic (FeLV)
145
What are naked DNA vaccine/mRNA vaccines?
Insertion of antigenic gene into bacterial plasmid (good at both humoral and cell-mediated)
146
What are mucosal vaccines?
Increased local immunity
147
What are needle-free vaccine?
Induce a more natural immune response through transdermal administration
148
Is vaccination a medical procedure?
YES
149
What is the most common cause for failure of vaccine protection?
Not storing or using correctly
150
What is the most common adverse reaction to vaccines?
Transient lethargy, pyrexia, hyporexia
151
What are the 3 major goals of vaccination?
Prevent infection
Reduce risk / severity of morbidity
Reduce risk of mortality
152
What is higher? The minimal antibody level to reduce risk of morbidity/mortality? Or minimal antibody level to prevent infection?
Minimal antibody level to prevent infection
153
What do maternal antibodies interfere with?
Interfere with development of their own antibody response to infection OR vaccination
154
Why would vaccinating really young animal not result in an adequate response?
Maternal antibodies are still protecting the neonate
155
What is the window of susceptibility?
When young animals are neither protected by maternal antibodies or endogenous antibodies
156
When is the best time to vaccinate a neonate?
At the tail end of the window of susceptibility
157
Does the window of protection vary between animals?
YES! Depends on maternal antibody quality/quantity
158
Which is older, innate or adaptive immunity?
Innate
159
What is LPS a component of?
Gram-negative bacteria
160
What is the major PRR discussed in this course?
TLRs
161
What TLR recognizes LPS?
TLR4
162
Where are TLRs that sense viruses?
Intracellular
163
What do IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha do?
Proinflammatory both systemically and locally
164
What do eosinophils primarily respond to?
Parasites and allergic reactions
165
How do T cells recognize antigens?
As peptide sequences
166
How do B cells recognize antigens?
As 3D structures
167
What expresses MHCII?
Professional antigens presenting cells
168
What type of T cell expresses CD4?
Helper T cells
169
What type of T cell expresses CD8?
Cytotoxic T cells
170
WHat is VDJ recombination?
TCR is generated as a completely random receptor that functions to produce a unique TCR for each T cell created
171
What are T cells released from the thiamus called?
Naive T cells
172
What are the 3 steps necessary to activate a naive T cell?
Antigen presented via MHC
Costimulation via accessory surface molecules
Cytokine stimulation
173
What cytokine signals to replicate an activated T cell?
IL-2
174
What is a cell-mediated response?
Primarily dominated by T CD8 cells
175
What is humoral immunity?
Primarily dominated by B cells and antibodies
176
What is Th1 skewed?
Cell-mediated
177
What is th2 skewed?
Humoral
178
Why does it make sense that MHC1 trigger CD8 and a cell-mediated response?
Because almost all cells have MHC1 receptors so the CD8 causes cytotoxic killing of many viruses before they can occur while MHC II is only carried by professional antigen presenting cells and activated CD4 which are T helper cells thus releasing cytokines to cause more of a response
179
What is the secreted version of BCR?
Antibodies / immunoglobulins
180
What is the main antibody present in the primary antibody response?
IgM
181
What is the main antibody present in the secondary antibody response?
IgG
182
What is the primary antibody present in allergic reactions?
IgE
183
What immunoglobulin is released on mucosal surface?
IgA
184
What are the rapid acting type of B cell?
Plasma B cell
185
What are the 2 types of B cells?
Plasma cells
Memory cells
186
What activates B cells?
Helper T cells
187
Why is a secondary response so much faster in terms of B cells?
Skips lag phase and IgGs (better at opsonization) are already there to bind pathogen
188
What is a lite, light, or low calorie diet in cats?
Less than 3250 kcal/kg dry
Less than 950 kcal/kg wet
189
What is lite, light, and low calorie in dog?
Less than 3100 kcal/kg dry
Less than 900 kcal/kg wet
190
What are the 4 levels of MCS in dogs?
Normal muscle mass
Mild muscle loss
Moderate muscle loss
Severe muscle loss
191
Is AAFCO a regulatory agency?
NO!
192
What is the difference between “formulate to meet AAFCO diet” and AAFCO diet trial
Formulated to meet AAFCO: Has the nutrition but does not take bioavailability into consideration
AAFCO diet trial: Has been tested in animals but may not meet every requirement
193
What is NOT a life stage that can be claimed?
Senior
194
What are life stages that can be claimed?
All-ages
Gestation/lactation
Adult maintenance
Growth
195
What is more accurate, guaranteed analysis or typical (as fed) nutrient analysis?
Typical (as fed) nutrient analysis
196
About how many calories do cats need to have a day?
180-225kcal
197
Do energy requirements increase or decrease after neuter?
Decrease
198
Is there a max Ca large breed dogs can have? How much should they have?
Max: 450g/100kcal
Suggested: 300g
199
What is sarcopenia?
Muscle loss associated with age in absence of disease
200
What is cachexia?
Muscle loss associated with disease
