OB 2 - Generalist Exam Questions

Question 1

What type of placenta gives a “shelf” appearance?

Answer 1

Circumvallate

Question 1

What is the normal size of a placenta?

Answer 1

2-4 cm

Question 2

What is the difference between placenta previa and low-lying placenta?

Answer 2

Previa = covering internal os
Low-lying = less than 2cm from internal os

Question 3

What are two important risk factors for placenta accreta?

Answer 3

1) previous C-section
2) placenta previa

Question 4

What is a common US finding with placenta accreta?

Answer 4

Multiple vascular lacunae

Question 5

What are the two primary non-trophoblastic tumors of the placenta?

Answer 5

1) Chorioangiomas
2) Teratomas

Question 6

Common S/S of placental abruption?

Answer 6

1) pelvic and abdominal pain
2) bleeding
3) fetal distress

Question 7

What abnormality is the result of rupture of the amnion without rupture of the chorion?

Answer 7

ABS

Question 8

When the placenta appears to have “grape-like vesicles”, what may be the diagnosis?

Answer 8

PMD - placenta mesenchymal dysplasia

Question 9

Cerebellar measurements lose accuracy after which GA?

A) 20 weeks
B) 25 weeks
C) 30 weeks
D) 35 weeks

Answer 9

20 weeks

Question 10

Epiphyseal centers won’t be identified until how many weeks?

A) 20 weeks
B) 25 weeks
C) 30 weeks
D) 35 weeks

Answer 10

30 weeks

Question 11

What menstrual week do fetal kidneys begin to develop?

A) 4th
B) 5th
C) 6th
D) 7th

Answer 11

6th menstrual week

Question 12

Fetal urine production begins at what week?

A) 7th
B) 8th
C) 9th
D) 10th

Answer 12

9th week

Question 13

By how many mm do kidneys grow per week of gestation?

A) 1mm
B) 2mm
C) 3mm
D) 4mm

Answer 13

1mm/week

Question 14

What are the anterior and posterior points of the spine in TRV?

Answer 14

Anterior = laminae

Posterior = centrum/vertebral bodies

Question 15

What denotes an inevitable abortion?

A) low lying gestational sac
B) SCH
C) open cx
D) GS in myometrium

Answer 15

Open cx - cervical os has begun to dilate

Question 16

A threatened miscarriage is vaginal bleeding under how many weeks?

A) <10
B) <15
C) <20
D) <25

Answer 16

<20

Question 17

SF of anembryonic pregnancy?

Answer 17

No fetal tissue or YS

Question 18

What is a fetal demise characterized as?

Answer 18

An embryo at least 5mm with no cardiac activity

Question 19

Whats another term for a missed abortion?

Answer 19

Delayed abortion - will contain RPOC within the uterus since not all tissue has been expelled

Question 20

What are the main SF of PUV?

Answer 20

Megaureter, dilated thickened bladder, hydro

Question 21

Holoprosencephaly and cyclopia are mostly associated with what genetic disorder?

A) Trisomy 21
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 13
D) Turners syndrome

Answer 21

Trisomy 13

Question 22

Echogenic kidneys are mostly associated to what abnormality?

A) Trisomy 21
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 13
D) Turners syndrome

Answer 22

Trisomy 13

Question 23

All of the following have decreased AFP except?

A) Trisomy 21
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 13
D) Turners syndrome

Answer 23

Trisomy 13

Question 24

On ultrasound, you find a unilateral CP cyst along with clinodactyly. Whats the most likely diagnosis? A) Trisomy 21 B) Trisomy 18 C) Trisomy 13 D) Turners syndrome

Answer 24

Trisomy 18

Question 25

Cystic hygroma and fetal hydrops is associated with what abnormality? A) Trisomy 21 B) Trisomy 18 C) Trisomy 13 D) Turners syndrome

Answer 25

Turners

Question 26

Partial molar pregnancy is associated with what genetic disorder? A) Trisomy 21 B) Triploidy C) Trisomy 13 D) Turners syndrome

Answer 26

Triploidy - also see syndactyly and ventriculomegaly

Question 27

In what abnormality is the only blood marker, increased AFP? A) Trisomy 21 B) Trisomy 18 C) Trisomy 13 D) Turners syndrome

Answer 27

Trisomy 13

Question 28

Sandal toe gap is associated with what abnormality? A) Trisomy 21 B) Trisomy 18 C) Trisomy 13 D) Turners syndrome

Answer 28

Trisomy 21

Question 29

What test is used to determine lung maturity? A) Blood test B) Amniocentesis C) PUBS D) CVS

Answer 29

Amnio

Question 30

Optimal GA for karyotyping with amniocentesis is? A) 10-15 weeks B) 12-16 weeks C) 15-20 weeks D) 18-23 weeks

Answer 30

15-20 weeks

Question 31

Performing amniocentesis earlier than how many weeks has been shown to significantly increase the risk for pregnancy loss? A) 12 wks B) 14 wks C) 15 wks D) 20 wks

Answer 31

14

Question 32

What test offers the possibility for very early prenatal diagnosis, from at least 7 weeks of gestation? A) Amnio B) PUBS C) CVS D) Coelocentesis

Answer 32

D

Question 33

When must NT tests be performed?

Answer 33

11 W - 16 W 6D

Question 34

What is the classic triad for ectopic pregnancy?

Answer 34

Pain, bleeding, palpable adnexal mass

Question 35

Where are most ectopic pregnancies located?

Answer 35

Ampullary portion of fallopian tube

Question 36

What is the most obvious indicator of an ectopic pregnancy?

Answer 36

Free fluid

Question 37

In the first trimester, what are the blood marker levels for Trisomy 21?

Answer 37

Increased HcG and NT Decreased PAPP-A

Question 38

Fetus appears to have macrocephaly and macroglossia. Whats the most likely diagnosis? A) BWS B) Potters sequence C) VACTERL D) TORCH

Answer 38

BWS

Question 39

Meckel-Gruber is NOT associated with what? A) Polydactyly B) Polyhadramnios C) Echogenic kidneys D) Encephalocele

Answer 39

Poly - it is associated with oligo

Question 40

Potter sequence is most commonly caused by what?

Answer 40

Oligohydramnios - low amniotic fluid impairs normal development