OB BM4 LONG EXAM2: Flashcards

1
Q

When is pulmonary embolism shown to be most common during gestation?

Second trimester
Between 32-33 weeks AOG
On the 6 weeks postpartum
Immediately after delivery

A

On the 6 weeks postpartum

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2
Q

Which of the statements is true regarding hypercoagulability of blood during pregnancy?

a. There is progressive increase of Factor XI
b. There is an increase in resistance to activated protein C
c. Fibrinolytic Inhibitors activity is decreased during pregnancy
d. Protein S increases progressively during pregnancy

A

b. There is an increase in resistance to activated protein C

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3
Q

Which thromboembolic disorder is considered lethal?

Homozygous Antithrombin deficiency
Heterozygous Prothrombin G20210A mutation
Homozygous Protein C or S deficiency
Heterozygous Factor V inheritance

A

Homozygous Antithrombin deficiency

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4
Q

Which vitamin is associated with elevated homocysteine levels secondary to autosomal recessive inheritence of C6671 ___table mutation

Vit B1
Vit D
Vit B9
Vit B6

A

Vit B9 - kani daw sa ans key

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5
Q

One of the adverse pregnancy complications of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

abruptio placenta
gestational diabetes
postpartum hemorrhages
perinatal death

A

perinatal death

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6
Q

Which one is an obstetrical risk factor for thromboembolism?

connective tissue disorder
obesity
multiparity
thrombophilia

A

multiparity

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7
Q

What coagulation factor does Protein S inactivate?

Factor VIIa
Factor VIIIa
Factor IXa
Factor Xa

A

Factor VIIIa

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8
Q

When is the best time to perform screening for thrombophilia?

At the first trimester
During hormonal therapy
When patient is not pregnant
At the early third trimester

A

When patient is not pregnant

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9
Q

The most common location of deep vein thrombosis is:

iliac vein
iliofemoral vein
calf vein
saphenous vein

A

iliofemoral vein

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10
Q

What is the common side effect of warfarin treatment as its anti-protein C effects?

Paradoxical thrombosis
hemorrhage
Decreased INR activity
Fetal malformation

A

Paradoxical thrombosis

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11
Q

One of which is a vascular change in pregnancy

Melasma
Palmar erythema
Striae gravidarum
Linea nigra

A

Palmar erythema

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12
Q

Which among these diseases is improved during pregnancy?

Porphyria cutanea tarda
pseudoxanthoma elasticum
Hidradenitis suppurativa
Acrodermatitis enteropathica

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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13
Q

These are characterized as 1-5mm pruritic red papules on the extensor surfaces and trunk

Eczema of pregnancy
Pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy
Pemphigoid gestationis
Prurigo of pregnancy

A

Prurigo of pregnancy

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14
Q

What body part does pemphigoid gestationis begin to occur?

extremities
face
palms
Abdomen

A

extremities

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15
Q

Differential diagnosis of pemphigoid gestationis

Atopic dermatitis
Urticarial allergic reactions
Erythema multiforme
Viral Exanthema

A

Erythema multiforme

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16
Q

Where do we usually see lesions of PUPPP?

Arms
Umbilicus
Striae
Legs

A

Striae

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17
Q

What is the pathophysiology of PUPP?

Increase level of fetal DNA
Binding of the IgG antibodies to the lumina lucida
Mutation of genes encoding for protein transport
Hormonally mediated

A

Increase level of fetal DNA

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18
Q

Which is a differential diagnosis of Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

Uremia
Atopic dermatitis
Pemphigoid gestationis
Erythema multiforme

A

Uremia

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19
Q

Which statement is true regarding pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy?

Lesions often spares the umbilicus
The cause is unknown
One of the differentials is PUPP
Treatment includes antihistamine

A

The cause is unknown

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20
Q

This condition is characterized as erythematous plaques with pustules seen on the inner thigh and spread to the trunk:

Pemphigoid gestationis
Intrahepatic cholestasis
Impetigo herpetiformis
Erythema multiforme

A

Impetigo herpetiformis

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21
Q

Multiparous women have low risk for which type of malignancies?

Ovarian cancer
Cervical cancer
Lymphoma
Thryoid cancer

A

Ovarian cancer

22
Q

Exposure to radiotherapy during pregnancy would lead to CNS disorders in the fetus, what is the threshold dose for intellectual disability at 20 weeks AOG?

0.01 Gy
0.05 Gy
0.10 Gy
0.25 Gy

A

0.25 Gy

23
Q

To prevent undue risk for infection what is the recommended management for chemotherapy

Should be avoided at first trimester
Patient should be given empirical dose of antibiotics
Withheld 3 weeks prior to delivery
Start immediately postpartum

A

withheld 3 weeks prior to delivery

24
Q

This therapy inhibits the human epidermal growth factor type 2

Targeted Tyrosine kinase
Monoclonal antibodies
Small molecular inhibitors
Molecular therapy

A

Monoclonal antibodies

25
Q

One of these malignancies can metastasize to the placenta:

breast cancer
endometrial cancer
uterine sarcoma
ovarian cancer

A

breast cancer

26
Q

This is a ferric substance that can be applied with pressure to the stalk stub for hemostasis after polypectomy

policresulen concentrate
albothyl ointment
Monsel paste
Cryoprecipitation

A

Monsel paste

27
Q

Which statement is true regarding screening guidelines for epithelial neoplasia?

a. HPV cytology should be done starting at 31 years old
b. screening should start at 21 years old or once sexually active
c. cytology should be done every year from 21-29 years of age
d. cytology co-testing is done every 3 years onward after 30 years old

A

a. HPV cytology should be done starting at 31 years old

28
Q

What is the management for a 25 y/o pregnant woman at 30 weeks AOG with stage 2A cervical carcinoma?

a. radical hysterectomy after chemotherapy
b. neoadjuvant therapy prior to surgery
c. hysterotomy then radical hysterectomy
d. delay treatment until term then chemoradiation

A

b. neoadjuvant therapy prior to surgery

29
Q

The most common type of fibroid degeneration during pregnancy is:

hyaline
myxomatous
calcific
carneous

A

carneous

30
Q

What is the recommended diagnostic modality for pregnancy luteoma?

MRI
ultrasonography
serum testosterone
doppler/color flow

A

serum testosterone

31
Q

Which organ is primarily involved in Hodgkin’s lymphoma stage 2?

spleen
thymus
mediastinum
bone marrow

A

mediastinum

32
Q

What is the recommended treatment for acute myeloid leukemia in pregnancy?

delay therapy until delivery
chemotherapy at any trimester
early abortion
multiagent chemotherapy after first trimester

A

early abortion

33
Q

What is the strongest determinant of survival in malignant melanoma during pregnancy?

age of gestation of diagnosis
clinical stage of the disease
prompt and early treatment
timing of therapeutic abortion

A

clinical stage of the disease

34
Q

When do we expect fetal antibodies level to be same with the mother’s antibodies?

9-15 weeks AOG
16 weeks AOG
12-14 weeks AOG
26 weeks

A

26 weeks

35
Q

When does fetal infection occur with cytomegalovirus?

During amniocentesis
At Third trimester
During delivery
Immediate Postpartum

A

During delivery

36
Q

How would you interpret the CMV serological test with high IgG avidity but non-reactive with IgM?

Primary infection
Infection is unlikely
Low risk for infection
Past infection

A

Past infection

37
Q

What is the incubation period of Varicella Zoster Infection in pregnant women?

4 days prior to lesions
14 days
2 days
7 days

A

14 days

38
Q

Recommended diagnostic test for Herpes simplex infection in pregnancy?

Polymerase chain reaction
Indirect fluorescent antibodies
Latex agglutination
Fluorescent antibodies

A

Polymerase chain reaction

39
Q

This viral infection is caused by an RNA togavirus with a period of infectivity of 1 week before rashes occur:

Rubella
Herpes Simplex
Rubeola
Varicella Zoster

A

Rubella

40
Q

The risk of congenital malformation with vertical transmission of Congenital Rubella syndrome at ???? weeks AOG is:

33%
90%
11%
50%

A

50%
?

41
Q

The mainstay test for the diagnosis of rubella infection is:

Rapid agglutination assay
Direct fluorescent antibody test
Hemagglutination Inhibition assay
Immune adherence agglutination test

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition assay

42
Q

The main congenital anomaly that can be seen in mumps infection is

Endocardial fibro elastosis
Microcephaly
Chorioretinitis
Hepatosplenomegaly

A

Endocardial fibro elastosis

43
Q

Transmission of syphilis to the fetus usually occur at what AOG

15 weeks AOG
17 weeks AOG
19 weeks AOG
21 weeks AOG

A

17 weeks AOG

44
Q

Which other condition can also manifest reactivity to non-treponemal test?

Herpes
Leukemia
Lymphoma
Tuberculosis

A

Lymphoma

45
Q

What medication can be given to neonates born to mother with active pulmonary tuberculosis

Etambutol
Pyrazinamide
Isoniazid
Rifampicin

A

Isoniazid

46
Q

What is the recommendation for vaccination of pregnant women?

Varicella vaccine can be given after the first trimester
Tetanus toxoid should be given at 27 weeks AOG
HepA vaccine is recommended if otherwise indicated
LAV influenza is recommended at any trimester

A

HepA vaccine is recommended if otherwise indicated

47
Q

This is true regarding tetanus vaccine

Should be given to infants starting 5 months
Booster dose should be given to children at 4 years old
Additional booster of tetanus vaccine should be given at 12 years old
Continued booster doses should be given every 5 years

A

Additional booster of tetanus vaccine should be given at 12 years old

48
Q

Tdap immunization at 27 weeks AOG should be given as follows:

Booster if more than 3 years after last dose of tetanus toxoid
Should replace TD at 24-26 weeks AOG
Should be starte

A

Should replace TD at 24-26 weeks AOG

49
Q

Hepatitis B vaccination is recommended for high-risk pregnant patients such as :

young individuals
had history of blood transfusion
with promiscuous partner
HIV positive patients

A

with promiscuous partner

50
Q

Which is true regarding general recommendation if immunization during pregnancy?

a. Inactivated and Live Vaccine b. can be given with precaution
c. Immunization of household members is a must to prevent infection
d. Termination of pregnancy warrants prevention of congenital infections
Pregnancy test is a must before giving immunizations

A

Immunization of household members is a must to prevent infection