OB, Topnotch Flashcards
(390 cards)
1
Q
male counterpart of: labia majora
A
scrotum
2
Q
male counterpart of: labia minora
A
ventral portion of the penis
3
Q
male counterpart of: clitoris
A
Glans penis
4
Q
male counterpart of: urethral and paraurethral gland
A
prostate gland
5
Q
male counterpart of: uterus and lower 3/4 of vagina
A
prostatic utricle
6
Q
male counterpart of: greater vestibular gland
A
bulbourethral gland (Cowper)
7
Q
male counterpart of: hymen
A
seminal colliculus
8
Q
AKA mullerian duct
A
paramesonephric duct
9
Q
anlage of female reproductive tract
A
paramesonephric duct
10
Q
male counterpart of the following: hydatid of morgagni uterus and cervix fallopian tube upper 1/4 of vagina
A
appendix of testes
11
Q
AKA wolffian duct
A
mesonephric duct
12
Q
male counterpart of: appendix of vesiculosis
A
appendix of epididymis
13
Q
male counterpart of: duct of epoophoron
A
ductus of epididymis
14
Q
male counterpart of: gartner’s duct
A
ductus deferens
ejaculatory duct
seminal vesicle
15
Q
male counterpart of: ovarian folicle
A
seminiferous tubule
16
Q
male counterpart of: rete ovarii
A
rete testis
17
Q
male counterpart of: round ligament of uterus
A
gubernaculum testis
18
Q
derivatives of paramesonephric duct/mullerian duct in female
A
uterus and cervix
fallopian tube
upper 1/4 of the vagina
male: appendix testis
19
Q
derivatives of mesonephric duct/wolffian duct in male
A
vas deferens ejaculatory duct epididymis seminal vesicle female: gartner's duct
20
Q
derivatives of urogenital sinus in female
A
lower 3/4 of the vagina
vestibule
bladder
urethra
21
Q
mullerian duct agenesis
A
rokitansky-kuster-hauser syndrome
22
Q
derivatives of urogenital sinus in male
A
urinary bladder
prostate gland
bulbourethral gland
23
Q
anlage of kidney
A
metanephron
24
Q
part of hymen that first rupture during first intercourse
A
6 o clock
25
AKA as periurethral gland
skene's gland
26
AKA as vulvovaginal gland
bartholin's gland
27
homologue of periurethral gland
prostate gland
28
homologue of vulvovaginal gland
bulbourethral gland
29
main blood supply of the vagina
cervico-vaginal branch of the uterine artery
30
main blood supply of the perineum
internal pudendal artery
31
blood supply of the cervix
cervico-vaginal branch of the uterine artery
32
hormone sensitive? endo/exocervix?
exocervix
33
position of the long axis of the uterus in relation to the long axis of the "V"agina
Version
34
position of the "F"undus of the uterus in relation to the cervi"X"
Fle"X"ion
35
divide the pelvic cavity into anterior and posterior part
borad ligament
36
AKA transverse cervical ligament or mackenrodt ligament
cardinal ligament
37
major support of the uterus and cervix
cardinal ligament
38
maintain the anatomical position of the cervix and upper part of the vagina
cardinal ligament
39
termination of round ligament
upper portion labia majora
40
ectopic in this area result in severe maternal morbidity
intramural/interstitial
41
prefered portion for tubal ligation
isthmus
42
narrowest portion of FT
isthmus
43
site of fertilization
ampulla
44
widest and most tortuous part of FT
ampulla
45
site of most ectopic pregnancy
ampulla
46
at what aspect of broad ligament does ovary lies?
posterior
47
in relation to uterus, where does common illiac artery bifurcates?
lateral to the uterus at the pelvic side wall
48
ovary is attached to the broad ligament thru?
mesovarium
49
is ovary covered with peritoneum?
no
50
blood supply of pudenda
pudendal artery
51
improper placement of legs in the stirrups. nerve? will result to?
peroneal nerve - foot drop
52
pressure from the lateral blade of self retaining retractor during abdminal hysterectomy
femoral nerve
53
on dorsal lithotomy position, sacroiliac joint inc by?
1.5 to 2.0 cm
54
smallest plane in which baby must pass
midpelvis
55
boundaries of pelvic inlet
post: sacral promontory
ant: Symphisis pubis
lateral: linea terminalis
56
transverse diameter
2 farthest point of the brim
57
right and left oblique diameter
13cm
from sacroilliac joint to opposite illiopubic emminence
58
posterior sagital diameter
4cm
intersection of obstertric conjugate and the transverse diameter
59
anatomic conjugate
11cm
60
obstetrical conjugate
Diagonal conjugate - 1.5
61
diagonal conjugate
11.5cm
62
the only pelvic conjugate that can be measured clinically
diagonal conjugate
63
signs of contraction of midpelvis
ischial spine is prominent
sidewalls are convergent
sacrum is shallow
sacroilliac notch is narrow
64
midpelvis diameter
>10cm
65
pelvic outlet diameter
>8cm
66
internal rotation occurs at this level
ischial spine
67
forceps is only applied if the head is at this level
ischial spine
68
pudendal nerve block is carried out at what site?
ischial spine
69
external os is normally located at what level?
ischial spine
70
in treatment of cervical prolapse, ring pesary is applied above what level?
ischial spine
71
pelvic type with inc incidence of deep transverse arrest
android
72
pelvic type with inc incidence of face delivery
anthropoid
73
ape-like pelvis
android
74
vaginal delivery is almost impossible with this type of pelvis
android
75
the 1st meiotic division of primary oocyte arrested at what stage?
prophase
76
the 2nd meiotic division of secondary oocyte arrested at what stage?
metaphase II
77
how many eggs ovulated in a lifetime
500 (400)
78
has FSH receptor
granulosa cell
79
has LH receptor
theca cell
80
how many oocyte produce during fetal period
6-7 million
at birth - 1-2 million
puberty - 400,000
81
hormone that causes the ferning of the cervical mucous
estrogen
82
peak of LH secretion
10 to 12 hours before the ovulation
83
ovulation occurs approx when?
day 14
84
mid cycle pain
mittelschmers
85
causes mid cycle pain
corpus hemorrhagicum
86
key to the initiation of ECM breakdown of the functional layer
pseudoinflammatory
87
the most striking and constant event observed in the menstrual cycle
period of vasoconstriction
88
on what day of menstruation does restoration of endomentrium completes?
5th day
89
the most important factors in recovery of the endometrium
estrogen during the early follicular phase
90
earliest histological evidence of progesterone action?
basal vacuolation
91
predominant hormone during follicular phase
estrogen
92
predominant hormone during luteal phase
progesterone
93
layer of decidua that is in direct contact with chorion
decidua capsularis
94
AKA decidua vera
decidua parietalis
95
layer of decidua that will become unresponsive to vasoactive agent
decidua basalis
96
layer of decidua that will eventually dissapears
decidua capsularies
97
inner cell mass will become?
embryoblast
98
outer cell mass will become?
trophoblast
99
blastocyst implantation will occur when?
day 7 post conception
100
usual site of implantation
posterior superior wall of the uterus
101
morula enters the uterine cavity when?
day 3 post comception
102
produces HCG
syncytiotrophoblast
103
forms the yolk sac
hypoblast
104
contains the amniotic cavity
epiblast
105
coincides with first missed menstrual period
| susceptible to teratogen
embryonic week 3 to 8
106
process that establishes the 3 primary layer.
gastrulation
107
CNS and PNS is derived from?
ectoderm
108
sensory organ of seeing and hearing is derived from?
ectoderm
109
lining of GI and Respi is derived from?
endoderm
110
RBC is derived from?
Mesoderm
111
CVS is derived from?
Mesoderm
112
Urogenital system is derived from?
Mesoderm
113
organ that is first to develop
CNS
114
heart, upper limb and lower limb will be completes its development when?
8 weeks
115
external genitalia will completes it development when?
9 weeks
116
normal AF at term
840ml
117
weight of placenta at term
450 to 500 grams
118
age of the fetus base on the time lapsed since the LMP
gestational age/ menstrual age
119
age of the fetus base from the time of fertilization/ovulation
ovulation age/post conceptional age
120
uterus palpable above the SP
12 weeks
121
the gender can be identified
14 weeks
122
quickening can be felt
16 to 20 weeks
123
testis starts to descend
32 weeks
124
testis is at inguinal canal/scrotum
40 weeks
125
use to determine the AOG via UTZ during first trimester
CRL
126
functional closure of FO
several minutes after birth
127
anatomical closure of FO
1 year after birth
128
functional closure of Ductus arteriosus
10 to 12 hours
129
anatomical closure of ductus arteriosus
2 to 3 weeks
130
test for fetomaternal hge
kleihauer bethke test
131
most active component of surfactant
dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC)
132
acounts for 80% of glycerophospholipids in surfactant.
phosphatidylcholine (lecithin)
133
chromosomal sex is determined when?
fertilization
134
secretes mullerian inhibiting factor
sertoli cell
135
secretes testosterone
leydig cell
136
hormone responsible for formation of male internal genitalia
testosterone
137
hormone responsible for formation of male external genitalia
DHT
138
hormone that is responsible to maternal insulin resistance
Human placental lactogen
139
preferred precursor of progesterone biosynthesis by the trophoblast
maternal plasma LDL cholesterol
140
estrogen type that is a marker for fetal well-being
estriol
141
softening and compresability of the isthmus on 6 to 8 week AOG
Hegar's sign
142
reason for inc incidence of gallstone in pregnancy
progesteron inhibits CCK
143
reason for inntrahepatic cholestasis and pruritus gravidarum
estrogen inhibits intraductal transmission of bile acid to the GB
144
all Coagulation factors inc during pregnancy except?
F11 and F13
145
total weight gain of a pregnant women
24 lbs
1st - 2lbs
2nd - 11 lbs
3rd - 11 lbs
146
crystalization and beading is due to?
progesteron
147
chadwick sign:
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
presumptive evidence
148
Hegar sign
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
probable
149
Goodell's sign
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
probable
150
braxton hick's contraction
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
probable
151
postive pregnancy test
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
probable
152
ballotement
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
probable
153
cessation of menses
a. presumptive
b. probable
c. definitive
presumptive
154
FHR at doppler can be detected when?
10 weeks
155
FHR at stet can be detected when?
17-19 weeks
156
best time for OGCT
24 to 28 weeks
157
treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria
nitrofurantoin
amoxicillin
1st gen cephalosphorin
158
average weight gain in pregnancy
27.5lbs (25 to 35 lbs)
159
contraindicated vaccine for pregnant women
MMR
Polio
varicella
yellow fever
160
hormone responsible for morning sickness
high level of hCG
161
paglilihi or pica is due to?
iron deficiency
162
treatment for bacterial vaginosis
metronidazole 500mg/tab bid x 7days
163
at what AOG does uterine size correlates with AOG?
20 to 31 weeks
164
when to instruct the patient for fetal movement counting?
28 weeks
165
normal fetal movement counting?
8-10 kicks / 2 hours
166
screening for NTD should be done when?
16 - 18 weeks
167
GBS infection screening should be done when?
35 to 37 weeks
168
NST should be done when?
>41 weeks
169
leopolds maneuver should be done when?
35 - 37 weeks
170
DOC for intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS
Pen G
171
test for uteroplacental function
Contraction Stress test
172
criteria for reassuring CST or negative CST
no late decelaration in the presence of 3 UC in 10 minute period
173
5 components of biophysical profile
```
FHR
Fetal breathing
fetal movement
fetal tone
amniotic fluid volume
```
174
criteria for non reassuring umbilical artery doppler velocimetery
absent or reversed End diastolic flow (ARED)
175
normal FHT
110-160 bpm
176
important index of CV function
single most impt indicator of an adequately oxygenated fetus
baseline / beat to beat variability
177
normal variability
moderate variability (6-25)
178
etiology of early deceleration
head compression
179
etiology of variable decelaeation
umbilical cord compression
180
etiology of late deceleration
uteroplacental insufficiency
181
five cranial signs of NTD
```
small BPD
ventriculomegaly
lemon sign
banana sign
effecement of cisterna magnus
```
182
frontal bone scalloping
lemon sign
183
elongation and downward displacement of the cerebellum
banana sign
184
general marker for abnormal development
ventriculomegaly
185
decrease on triple and quadruple serum markers is indicative of?
trisomy 18
186
decrease on triple and quadruple serum markers except for hCG and inhibin is indicative of?
trisomy 21
187
nuchal translucency
down syndrome
188
hormone responsible for maintenance of phase 1 of parturition or quiescence.
progesterone
189
at what phase of parturition does braxton hicks occur?
phase 1 or quiesence
190
hormone responsible for pahse 2 of parturition or activation
estrogen
191
at what phase of parturition does lightening or baby drop occurs?
phase 2 or activation
192
at what phase of parturition does formation of lower uterine segment occurs?
phase 2 or activation
193
most common fetal lie
longitudinal lie
194
most common fetal presentation
cephalic
195
most common fetal position
LOA
196
collection of fluid in vagina (what test?)
pool test
197
in nitrazine test, when the paper turns blue it indicates that the amniotic fluid is in what pH?
alkaline
198
crystalization of amniotic fluid (what test?)
fern test
199
if the cervix is as thin as LUS it said to be that cervix is how many % effaced?
100
200
bishop scoring is to determine what?
status of cervix
201
cervical position if the fetus is low down the cervix
anterior
202
bishop score that indicates the probability of vaginal delivery
>=8
203
most important force in the expulsion of the fetus
maternal intraabdominal pressure
204
normal cervical length
2-2.5 cm (?)
205
pathologic retraction ring, extreme thining of the LUS in obstructed labor
ring of bandl
206
first pre requisite for birth
descent
207
narrowest fetal head diameter
suboccipitobregmatic
208
greatest transverse diameter of fetal head
BPD
209
cardinal movement that allows the suboccipitobregmatic to present in birth canal
flexion
210
when does BPD pass through the pelvic inlet?
engagement
211
duration of latent phase on nullipara
212
duration of latent phase on multipara
213
at what cervical dilatation does descent begins?
7-8 cm
214
duration of active phase on nullipara?
215
duration of active phase on multipara?
216
duration of 2nd stage of labor on nullipara?
50 minutes
217
duration of 2nd stage of labor on multipara?
20 minutes
218
duration of 3rd stage of labor
5 minutes
219
predictive of outcome of labor (division of active phase)
acceleration phase
220
measures overall efficinecy of the machine (division of active phase)
phase of maximum slope
221
reflective of the fetopelvic relationship (division of active phase)
deceleration phase
222
the hand may be used to exert forward pressure on the chin of the fetus through the perineum just front of the coccyx and the other hand exerts presssure posteriorly against the occiput
ritgen maneuver
223
what sign is when the uterus becomes globular and firmer
calkin sign
224
degree of laceration when fascia and perineal muscles is involve
second degree
225
early amniotomy accelerates labor by?
4 hours
226
late amniotomy accelerates labor by?
2 hours
227
nerve supply of lower genital tract
pain on second stage of labor
228
nerve supply of upper genital tract
pain on first stage of labor
229
anesthetic agent that is contraindicated in patient with pre eclampsia
ketamine
230
blocked by paracervical block
frankenhauser ganglion plexus (T11-T12)
231
ob anesthesia procedure that is most ideal for eclampsia and pre eclampsia
epidural anesthesia
232
forcep, for delivery of fetus with molded head
simpson
233
forcep, for delivery of fetus with rounded head
tucker mac lane
234
forcep, for transverse arrest of the head
kielland
235
transverse suprapubic abdominal incision
pfannenstiel
236
transverse abdominal incision made with rectus muscle and are divided with scissors
maylard
237
uterin incision above the LUS upto fundus
classical
238
transverse incision at LUS, least likely to rupture, does not promote adhesion
kerr/LTCS/transverse
239
vertical incision at LUS
kronig
240
MC indication for primary CS delivery?
dystocia
241
time interval immediately after the delivery of the placenta up to the time when the reproductive organs return to their normal non-pregnant condition.
puerperium
242
puerperium usually last for how many weeks?
6 weeks
243
uterus will regain non-pregnant size on what week post partum?
4 weeks
244
signs and symptpoms of subinvoluted uterus
prolongation of lochial discharge
irregular or excessive uterine bleeding
profuse hemorrhage
on bimanual exam: uterus is large and softer than normal
245
on post-partum bimanual exam:
subinvolution
246
DOC for subinvoluted uterus
methylergonovine
247
how long does vaginal ruggae reappear?
4 weeks
248
breast feeding can provide contraception until?
6 months
249
colostrum has all vitamins except?
vitamin k
250
fever of >38 C that occur on any two of the first 10 days post partum, EXCLUSIVE of the first 24 hours
post partum fever
251
most common risk factor for post partum fever
route of delivery
252
most common cause of post partum fever
endometriosis
253
three or more consecutive spontaneous abortion
recurrent abortion
254
most common cause of spontaneous abortion during 1st trimester
chromosomal abnormality (trisomy)
255
type of abortion that is characterized by ruptured BOW in the presence of cervical dilatation.
inevitable abortion
256
on UTZ: empty getational sac in blighted ovum.
missed abortion
257
resumption of ovulation after abortion occurs when?
2 weeks
258
cannon ball exudates on CXR
metastasis of h.mole at lungs
259
MC site of GTT metastasis
lung
260
2nd MC site of GTT metastasis
brain
261
medical treatment for non-metastatic GTT
methotrexate/actinomycin
262
MC cause of pregnancy related death during the 1st trimester
ectopic pregnancy
263
most identified RF for ectopic pregnancy
PID
264
velamentous insertion of umbilical cord
vasa previa
265
all previas deleivered by CS except
low lying placenta
266
painless vaginal bleeding on 3rd trimester
placenta previa
267
painful bleeding on 3rd trimester with crampy adominal pain. associated with hypertension and previous trauma
abruptio placenta
268
UTZ: retroperitoneal blood clot
abruptio placenta
269
uterine apoplexy, extravasation of blood into the myometrium and between the serosa
couvelaire uterus
270
MC cause of uterine rupture
separation of previous CS scar
271
type of abruptio placenta that has external bleeding into the vagina
overt
272
type of abruptio placenta that the bleeding remain inside.
concealed
273
Prolonged PROM, PROM that occurs?
>18 hours
274
ROM occurs >37 weeks
PROM
275
ROM occurs
PPROM
276
biochemical markers for preterm labor
fetal fibronectin and salivary estriol
277
MC S/E of Mg SO4?
flushing
278
causes premature constriction of ductus aretriosus
indomethacin
279
type of breech with high incidence of cord prolpase
incomplete breech
280
type of breech with lowest incidence of cord prolapse
frank
281
delivery of the posterior shoulder ahead of the anterior
loveset maneuver
282
the index and the Middle finger are placed over the baby's Maxilla to maintain flexion
Mauriceau Maneuver
283
prefered method for breech delivery
piper's forcep
284
fingers are placed over the shoulder and upward traaction is made, legs are grasped and body is swung over abdomen.
prague maneuver
285
breech is allowed to deliver spontaneously up to the navel, suprapubic pressure is then applied
bracht maneuver
286
breech decompostion, frank breech to footling delivery
pinard's maneuver
287
incision of the cervix at 2, 6, and 10 o clock position
duhrssen incision
288
replacement of the fetus higher into the vagina and uterus, followed by CS
zavanelli maneuver
289
surgical incision of the fibrocartilage of the Symphisis pubis
symphisiotomy
290
an active phase disorder where in there is an slow rate of cervical dilatation or descent
protraction disorder
291
complete cessation of of dilatation or descent
arrest disorder
292
pelvic inlet contraction (criteria)
diagonal conjugate less than 11.5cm
shortest AP diameter less than 9cm
greatest transverse diameter less than 12cm
293
prominent ischial spine
convergent sidewall
narrow sacrosciatic notch
midpelvis contraction
294
intertuberous
outlet contraction
295
acromion presentation
transverse lie
296
extremity proplapse alongside the presenting part with both presenting in the pelvis at the same time
compound presentation
297
deep transverse arrest of the head is associated with what type of pelvis?
android and platypoid
298
deep transverse arrest of the head can be delivered via?
kielland forcep
299
flexion of the thigh upon patient's abdomen.
mc robert's maneuver
300
progressively rotating the posterior shoulder 180 degrees.
wood's corkscrew maneuver
301
fetal shoulder rocks from side to side by applying force on the mother's abdomen or pressure on the accessible fetal chest
rubin's maneuver
302
shoulder horn instrument consisting of a concave blade with long handle, slipped between the symphisis pubis and impacted shoulder
chavis maneuver
303
posterior arm sweep across the chest wall, followed by delivery of the arm
delivery of the posterior shoulder
304
pressure is applied to the infants jaw and neck in the direction of the mother's rectum with strong fundal pressure applied by the assitant as anterior shoulder is freed
hibbard's maneuver
305
cephalic placement into the pelvis
zavanelli maneuver
306
cutting of the clavicle with scissors or other sharp instruments
cleidotomy
307
fetal macrosomia, weight?
>4000 grams
308
normal head circumference
32-38 cm
309
in the presence of fetal hydrocephalus, cephalic presentation, cephalecentesis can be done on what cervical dilatation?
3cm
310
rate of cervical dilatation: 5cm/hour for nulli and 10cm/hour for multi is called?
preciptous labor and delivery
311
volume of blood loss in post partum delivery.
| vaginal and cs route.
vaginal - >500ml
| cs - >1000 ml
312
management for uterine atony
uterine massage
oxytocin
methylergonovine
carboprost
313
absence or imperfect development of these layers could lead to placenta accreta
decidua basalis and fibrinoid layer (nitabuch layer)
314
pituitary infarct/necrosis following massive blood loss during delivery.
HPE: mother unable to lactate after massive blood loss.
sheehan syndrome
315
squamous cells or debris of fetal origin in the central pulmonary circulation.
HPE: hypotension, DOB, DIC
amniotic fluid embolism
316
a newborn weighs less than 2500 gms no matter the age of gestation is considered?
low birth weight
very low - less than 1500 grams
extremely low - less than 1000 grams
317
fetal weight falls below 10th percentile for gestational age
SGA
318
decrease in rate of fetal growth.
IUGR
319
accurate at diagnosing IUGR related to placental insufficiency.
head to abdominal circumference
320
Amniotic fluid index value for polyhydramnios.
>24-25
321
Amniotic fluid index value for anhydramnios.
less than 5
322
if indomethacin is given as your management for polyhydramnios it could cause?
premature closure of ductus arteriosus
323
fetal malformation of CNS and GIT could lead to?
polyhydramnios
324
obstruction of fetal urinary tract or fetal renal agensis could lead to?
oligohydramnios
325
earliest sonographic finding for IUFD/still birth
robert sign
gas bubble on fetal heart, aorta and big vessel
326
gas bubble on fetal heart, aorta and big vessel
robert sign
327
overlapping of fetal skull bones
spalding sign
328
exaggeration of fetal spinal curvature
ball sign
329
multiple placenta with a single fetus
bipartite/bilobata
330
one or more small accessory lobe developed in the membranes at a distance from the periphery of main placenta.
succenturiate
331
placental villi attached to the myometrium.
placenta accreta
332
placental villi invade the myometrium.
placenta increta
333
placenta penetrate the myometrium
placenta percreta
334
UTZ: lack of normal "hypoechoic retroplacental zone"
| colored doppler: dilated vascular channels with diffuse lacunar flow
placenta accreta/increta/percreta
335
normal length of umbilical cord
55-60cm
336
cord insertion at the placental margin
marginal insertion (battledore placenta)
337
cord inserts in the membrane at a distance from the placenta, associated with vasa previa.
velamentous insertion
338
fetal vessel in the membranes cross the region of internal os and occupy a postion ahead of the presenting part.
vasa previa
339
fertilization of 2 different ova forming 2 embryos and 2 human beings.
influenced by race, heredity, parity and infertility drugs.
fraternal (dizygotic)
340
fertilization of one ova that subsequently divide into 2 separate embryos.
not influenced by race, heredity, parity and infertility drugs.
identical (monozygotic)
341
most common?
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
monochorionic, diamniotic
342
least mortality?
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
dichorionic, diamniotic
343
highest mortality?
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
monochorionic, monoamniotic
344
associated with twin-twin transfusion?
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
monochorionic, monoamniotic
345
cleavage at day 1 to 3
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
346
cleavage at day 4 to 8
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
347
cleavage at day 9 to 12
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
348
cleavage after day 12
a. dichorionic, diamniotic
b. monochorionic, diamniotic
c. monochorionic, monoamniotic
d. none
none (conjoined twin)
349
fusion of the chest
thoracophagus (MC)
350
twin peak sign
dichorionic twin
351
T signs/ hair like sign
monochorionic twin
352
MC cause of morbidity and mortality in twin pregnancy
preterm labor
353
mean age of twin pregnancy
35 weeks
354
results from abnormal arerial-venous communications between monochorionic twins
causes anemia or polycythemia
discordancy
355
MC presentation of twin
cephalic cephalic
356
MC medical complication of pregnancy
DM
357
MC CNS anomaly that is most specific with DM
caudal regression syndrome
358
best time to screen for congenital anomalies
18-22 weeks
359
inc in HBA1c will increase the risk for?
NTD/congenital heart defect
360
the only mineral that is proven to prevent NTD, HPN and post partum depression
folic acid
361
FBS value of GDM patient
>92 to less than 126
362
FBS value of overt DM
>126
363
OGTT values to diagnosed GDM
Fasting: >95mg/dl
1st hour: >180mg/dl
2nd hour: >155mg/dl
3rd hour: >140mg/dl
364
define gestational HPN
HPN after 20 weeks AOG/ during 24 hours post partum.
no proteinuria.
BP returns to normal by 12 weeks post partum.
diagnosis made post partum.
365
in GDM FPG should be maintained at?
60-90 mg/dl
366
proteinuria. laboratory values for diagnosis.
dipstick: 30mg/dl 1+ taken Q6
367
most important RF for gestational hypertension.
nulliparity
368
most important etiology of gestation hypertension.
exposure to chorionic villi for the first time
369
most consistent anatomical findings of HPN in pregnancy
glomerular capillary endotheliosis
370
pathognomonic lesion in eclampsia.
periportal hemorrhagic necrosis
371
most common cerebral findings in eclampsia.
edema
372
hallmark of placental lesion in pre eclampsia/eclampsia.
acute atherosis of decidual arteries
373
most common hematologic findings pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
thrombocytopenia
374
diastolic notch (doppler)
inc stuart index
absent or reversed end diastolic blood flow (ARED)
pre-eclampsia (?)
375
most reliable sign in preeclampsia
diastolic pressure
376
the only cure for pre eclampsia.
delivery
377
what to monitor in patient administered with MgSO4
DTR
RR >12
UO >30cc/hr
378
antidote for MgSO4 toxicity
calcium gluconate 1gm IV
379
anesthesia of choice for pre eclampsia
epidural anesthesia
380
main ingredient in spermicides
nonoxynol 9
381
emergency contraception
levonorgestrel/mifepristone
382
contraceptive for lactating mother
progestin only pill
383
after vasectomy man should ejaculate how many times?
14 to 20 ejaculation
384
similar to pomeroy but without excision, segment is lifted and crashed by hemostat and tied at base
madlener method
crash!!! = mad!
385
isthmus is cut, proximal segment buried at myometrium, distal end in mesosalphinx.
irving method
burried "nilibing si irving"
386
a window is made in the mesosalphinx and a segment of isthmus is tied proximally and distally and then excised.
parkland method
window sa park
387
segment is tied and a suture is tied around the aprroximated base.
the resulting loop is excised, leaving a gap between the proximal and distal ends
pomeroy method
388
epinephrine is injected beneath the serosa of the isthmus.
the mesosalphinx is reflected off the tube, and the proximal end of the tube is ligated and excised. the distal end is not excised. the mesosalphinx is reattached to the excised proximal stump, while the long distal end is left to "dangle" outside of the mesosalphinx.
uchida method
ui! kita ang nakadangle!
389
resection of the distal ampulla and fimbrae following ligation around the proximal ampulla.
kroener method
F-K!!!
390
Groove sign
Lymphogranuloma venereum
