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Medicine I > Obesity > Flashcards

Obesity Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the worldwide prevalence of obesity?

A

13%

11% of men and 15% of women are obese, with 38% of men and 40% of women being overweight.

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2
Q

Define obesity.

A

An excess accumulation of fatty tissue.

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3
Q

What factors influence obesity?

A
  • Genetics & hormonal resistance (insulin & leptin)
  • Environmental factors
  • Low levels of physical activity
  • Socioeconomic Status
  • Unhealthy eating habits
  • Diseases (e.g., Hypothyroidism, Cushing’s, DMT2)
  • Drugs (e.g., insulin, cortisone, antidepressants)
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4
Q

What are the causes of obesity?

A
  • Nutritional factors
  • Activity levels
  • Endocrine factors
  • Genetic factors
  • Drugs
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5
Q

What is the BMI formula for obesity classification?

A

BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m²)

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6
Q

What are the BMI categories for obesity?

A
  • Underweight: <18.5
  • Healthy weight: 18.5-24.9
  • Overweight: 25.0-29.9
  • Obese (Grade I): 30.0-34.9
  • Morbidly obese (Grade II): 35.0-39.9
  • Super obese (Grade III): >40
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7
Q

What waist circumference indicates increased health risk for men?

A

> 102 cm

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8
Q

What waist circumference indicates increased health risk for women?

A

> 88 cm

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9
Q

True or False: BMI is always an accurate measure of obesity.

A

False

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10
Q

What are the two types of body fat?

A
  • Visceral fat
  • Subcutaneous fat
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11
Q

What is juvenile-onset obesity?

A

Obesity that develops in infancy or childhood, characterized by an increase in the number of adipose cells.

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12
Q

What is adult-onset obesity?

A

Obesity that develops in adulthood, characterized by fewer adipose cells that are larger.

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13
Q

What are short-term health problems associated with obesity?

A
  • High Blood Pressure
  • High Cholesterol
  • High Triglycerides
  • Arthritis
  • Cardiovascular Disease
  • Diabetes
  • Gallbladder Disease
  • Infertility
  • NAFLD/NASH
  • Depression
  • Cancers
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14
Q

What are long-term health problems associated with obesity?

A
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15
Q

What are the main treatment strategies for obesity?

A
  • Behavior Modifications
  • Dietary Therapy
  • Drugs
  • Surgery
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16
Q

Fill in the blank: Medical Nutrition Therapy (MNT) is a specific application of the Nutrition Care Process in _______.

A

[clinical settings]

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17
Q

What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) for carbohydrates?

A

130 g/day

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18
Q

What is carbohydrate counting?

A

A method where each choice of carbohydrate equals approximately 15 grams.

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19
Q

What is the Glycemic Index (GI)?

A

A measure of how quickly foods that contain carbohydrate raise blood glucose levels.

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20
Q

What is the goal for dietary fat intake?

A

25-35% of total calories from healthy sources.

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21
Q

What are monounsaturated fats?

A

Fats found in vegetable oils such as olive oil and peanut oil.

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22
Q

What is the RDA for protein?

A

0.8 grams protein/kg of body weight/day.

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23
Q

What drugs are approved by the US FDA for treating obesity?

A
  • Orlistat (Xenical)
  • Phentermine/Topiramate
  • Naltrexone/Bupropion
  • GLP-1 agonists (e.g., Liraglutide)
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24
Q

What is the primary purpose of using drugs to treat obesity?

Study These Flashcards
A

To suppress appetite

Various medications are approved by the US FDA for this purpose.

25
Name one drug approved by the US FDA for obesity treatment.
Orlistat (Xinical) ## Footnote Other approved drugs include Phentermine/Topiramate, Naltrexone/Bupropion, GLP-1 agonists, and GIP1 agonist.
26
What is the mechanism of action of GLP-1 agonists in obesity treatment?
They mimic glucagon-like peptide-1 to promote weight loss ## Footnote Examples include Liraglutide (Saxenda) and Semaglutide (Wegovy).
27
What are the two main types of obesity surgery?
* Restrictive (e.g., intra-gastric balloon) * Mal-absorption (e.g., bypass) ## Footnote These surgeries reduce the amount of food that can be eaten or absorbed.
28
Who are the typical candidates for obesity surgery?
Individuals with a BMI >40 with no comorbidity or a serious medical condition and BMI >35 ## Footnote This indicates severe obesity and associated health risks.
29
Define eating disorder.
Mental illness that causes serious disturbances in a person’s everyday diet ## Footnote It can manifest as eating extremely small amounts of food or severely overeating.
30
List three types of eating disorders.
* Anorexia Nervosa * Bulimia Nervosa * Binge Eating Disorder ## Footnote Eating disorders can have severe health consequences.
31
What is the typical age of onset for eating disorders?
Mid-adolescence (teenage) ## Footnote However, eating disorders can start at any age.
32
What are common risk factors for Anorexia Nervosa?
* Genetics * Depression * Anxiety * Perfectionism * Adverse life events ## Footnote These factors can contribute to the development of the disorder.
33
What are the clinical manifestations of Anorexia Nervosa?
* Fatigue * Impaired cognition * Dizziness * Constipation * Amenorrhea ## Footnote There are various physical and psychological symptoms associated with the disorder.
34
What is the SCOFF questionnaire used for?
To screen for anorexia nervosa or bulimia ## Footnote A score of >2 indicates a likely eating disorder.
35
What is the prognosis for individuals with Anorexia Nervosa?
1/3 recover completely, 1/3 improve, and 1/3 develop a chronic eating disorder ## Footnote Mortality is higher if treatment is delayed.
36
What is Re-feeding Syndrome?
A potentially fatal condition due to rapid initiation of food after >10 days of under-nutrition ## Footnote It can lead to severe electrolyte imbalances.
37
What characterizes Bulimia Nervosa?
* Recurrent episodes of binge eating * Preoccupation with control of body weight * Regular use of mechanisms to overcome weight gain ## Footnote This includes starvation, vomiting, laxatives, and over-exercise.
38
What is the classical triad of Pellagra?
* Diarrhea * Dementia * Dermatitis ## Footnote Pellagra is caused by a deficiency of nicotinic acid (niacin).
39
What are the laboratory findings associated with Beriberi?
* Decreased thiamine (Vitamin B1) levels * Decreased red cell transketolase activity ## Footnote This can lead to wet or dry beriberi, characterized by heart failure or neuropathy, respectively.
40
What is the management for Kwashiorkor?
* Gradually increasing high-protein diet * Vitamins ## Footnote Education of the child and family is also important.
41
What are the signs of Marasmus?
* Distended abdomen * Diarrhea * Infection * Mid-arm circumference <9.9cm ## Footnote It results from a lack of calories and can be associated with HIV.
42
What is the recommended dietary treatment for Scurvy?
Dietary education; ascorbic acid ≥250mg/24h PO ## Footnote Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C.
43
What is Pellagra caused by?
Lack of nicotinic acid ## Footnote Pellagra is associated with a classical triad of diarrhea, dementia, and dermatitis.
44
What is the classical triad of symptoms for Pellagra?
* Diarrhea * Dementia * Dermatitis ## Footnote Dermatitis may present as Casal’s necklace.
45
What are common treatments for Pellagra?
* Education * Electrolyte replacement * Nicotinamide 100mg/4h ## Footnote Nicotinamide is a form of nicotinic acid.
46
What role does Vitamin B12 play in the body?
Helps synthesize thymidine and DNA ## Footnote A deficiency can lead to slow RBC production.
47
What are the clinical features of Vitamin B12 deficiency?
* Symptoms of anemia * 'Lemon tinge' skin * Glossitis * Angular cheilosis * Neuropsychiatric symptoms * Neurological symptoms ## Footnote Neurological symptoms include peripheral neuropathy and sub-acute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.
48
What is Pernicious Anemia?
An autoimmune condition leading to lack of intrinsic factor secretion ## Footnote This impairs the absorption of dietary Vitamin B12.
49
What tests are indicative of Pernicious Anemia?
* ↓ Hb * ↑ MCV * Low WCC and platelets if severe * ↓ Serum B12 * Hypersegmented neutrophils * Megaloblasts in the marrow ## Footnote Specific tests include parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies.
50
What is the treatment for Vitamin B12 deficiency due to malabsorption?
Hydroxocobalamin 1mg IM alternate days for 2 weeks ## Footnote Followed by 1mg IM every 3 months for life.
51
What is Xerophthalmia?
Vitamin A deficiency syndrome causing blindness ## Footnote Dry conjunctivae and cloudy corneas are symptoms.
52
What is the clinical presentation of Vitamin K deficiency?
Bleeding that mimics hemophilia ## Footnote Oozing may occur at venipuncture sites.
53
What tests are used to diagnose Vitamin K deficiency?
Both PT and PTT are elevated ## Footnote A correction in response to vitamin K administration confirms the diagnosis.
54
What are common causes of Vitamin D deficiency?
* Malabsorption * Poor diet * Lack of sunlight * Renal osteodystrophy * Drug-induced ## Footnote Anticonvulsants can increase the breakdown of vitamin D.
55
What are the signs and symptoms of Rickets?
* Growth retardation * Hypotonia * Knock-kneed posture * Bow-leggedness * Deformities of the metaphyseal-epiphyseal junction ## Footnote Symptoms occur in infants and children during bone growth.
56
What is the treatment for Vitamin D deficiency due to dietary insufficiency?
Vitamin D (e.g., calcium D3 forte tablet/12h PO) ## Footnote High doses may be necessary for malabsorption or hepatic disease.
57
What are the symptoms of Zinc deficiency?
* Alopecia * Dermatitis * Night blindness * Diarrhea ## Footnote Look for red, crusted skin lesions around the nostrils and corners of the mouth.
58
What are the potential effects of Selenium deficiency?
* Increased risk of neoplasia * Atheroma * Cardiomyopathy * Arthritis ## Footnote Deficiency symptoms may arise from increased replacement.

Medicine I (7 decks)

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