Objective 4

Question 1

For ensuring the security of an HTTP application like WordPress or Magento against threats like SQL injection or cross-site scripting, which monitoring tool or method would be MOST appropriate?

NetFlow
Web application firewall (WAF)
Antivirus software
Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS)

Answer 1

Web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer. A WAF is specifically designed to protect web applications by monitoring and filtering HTTP traffic. It can effectively block or mitigate attacks like SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web application vulnerabilities by analyzing incoming requests and blocking malicious activity before it reaches the application.

NetFlow is incorrect because it is primarily used for monitoring network traffic and flow, but it does not provide specific protection against web application attacks like SQL injection or XSS. Antivirus software is incorrect because it is designed to detect and protect against malware, not specifically web application vulnerabilities. Host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is incorrect because, while it monitors system-level activities for potential intrusions, it does not focus on filtering web traffic or blocking specific web-based attacks like a WAF does.

Question 2

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of environmental variables in regard to vulnerability management?

Environmental variables refer to the unique characteristics of an organization’s infrastructure that can affect vulnerability assessments and risk analysis
Environmental variables are parameters used in vulnerability scanning tools to assess the security posture of an organization’s network and infrastructure
Environmental variables are specific conditions that trigger an automated response when a vulnerability is detected in an organization’s systems
Environmental variables are factors that impact the physical security of an organization’s premises

Answer 2

Environmental variables refer to the unique characteristics of an organization’s infrastructure that can affect vulnerability assessments and risk analysis. This statement best explains the importance of environmental variables in vulnerability management because these variables, such as the organization’s network setup, operating systems, configurations, and specific applications, can significantly influence the identification and severity of vulnerabilities. Understanding these factors helps tailor vulnerability management efforts to the unique environment of the organization.

The other options are incorrect because they either describe specific aspects of vulnerability scanning tools, automated responses, or physical security, which are not directly related to the broader concept of environmental variables in vulnerability management.

Question 3

Which of the following BEST describes the primary purpose of archiving as a method to bolster security monitoring?

To provide historical insights into security incidents for future investigations.
To analyze real-time threats and mitigate them instantly.
To provide an external backup in case of system crashes
To maintain compliance with regulations without needing long-term data storage.

Answer 3

To provide historical insights into security incidents for future investigations is the correct answer. Archiving allows organizations to store and retain historical data about security events, incidents, and logs. This information is valuable for investigating past security issues, identifying patterns, and improving future security measures. It helps organizations conduct thorough forensic analysis when needed.

The other options are incorrect because they either focus on real-time threat mitigation, system backup, or compliance, which do not directly align with the primary purpose of archiving as it pertains to security monitoring. Archiving is more about preserving data for future use, not for immediate analysis or backup in the event of a system failure.

Question 4

In regards to automation and orchestration, which of the following terms accurately captures the challenges faced when dealing with a system characterized by its intricate web of interconnected components and varied functionalities, potentially hindering seamless integration, effortless management, and straightforward comprehension?

Complexity
Ongoing supportability
Technical debt
Cost

Answer 4

Complexity is the correct answer. In automation and orchestration, complexity refers to the challenges posed by systems with many interconnected components and varied functionalities. This complexity can hinder seamless integration, make management more difficult, and complicate understanding of the system. It requires careful planning, design, and maintenance to ensure that all components work together efficiently.

Ongoing supportability is incorrect because it refers to the ability to maintain and support a system over time, which is a consequence of complexity but not the defining challenge itself. Technical debt is incorrect because it refers to the accumulation of suboptimal solutions in a system due to quick fixes or shortcuts, not the inherent challenge of system complexity. Cost is incorrect because, while a complex system might be more expensive, the term complexity specifically addresses the difficulty in managing and understanding the system, not its financial aspects.

Question 5

Reed, a cybersecurity specialist at Dion Training Solutions, is optimizing the company’s IPS. He notes that while signature-based detection is highly effective against known threats, it has some limitations. Which of the following BEST describes a limitation of signature-based detection in an IPS?

It automatically updates with behavioral patterns of users.
It encrypts network traffic to hide malicious signatures.
It might not detect zero-day exploits.
It requires substantial network bandwidth to operate.

Answer 5

It might not detect zero-day exploits is the correct answer. Signature-based detection relies on predefined patterns or signatures of known threats to identify malicious activity. This means it is highly effective against known threats but cannot detect new, previously unknown threats, such as zero-day exploits, which do not yet have a signature in the database.

The other options are incorrect because they describe behaviors or requirements not related to the limitations of signature-based detection. Signature-based detection does not automatically update behavioral patterns of users (which is more related to behavioral or anomaly-based detection), does not encrypt network traffic (encryption is a separate security feature), and does not inherently require substantial bandwidth—its limitations are primarily tied to its inability to detect new or unknown threats.

Question 6

After remedying a previously identified vulnerability in their systems, Kelly Innovations LLC wants to ensure that the remediation steps were successful. Which of the following is the BEST method that involves examining related system and network logs to enhance the vulnerability report validation process?

Rescanning
Threat modeling
Reviewing event logs
Patch management

Answer 6

Reviewing event logs is the correct answer. After remediating a vulnerability, reviewing system and network event logs is an effective method to ensure that the remediation steps were successful. It allows you to verify that no related issues persist and that the system behaves as expected without any signs of compromise or residual vulnerabilities.

Rescanning is also a valid option but it involves re-running vulnerability scans rather than analyzing logs, so it doesn’t provide as much insight into the actual system and network behavior after remediation. Threat modeling is more about identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities during the planning phase, rather than validating remediation efforts. Patch management is focused on the process of applying updates to systems, not directly on validating the effectiveness of those patches through log analysis.

Question 7

Why might an organization be particularly concerned about introducing automation tools that become single points of failure during secure operations?

Challenges in upholding data confidentiality.
Potential gaps in maintaining data integrity.
Compromised availability leading to operational disruptions.
Issues related to system scalability and slow authentication.

Answer 7

Compromised availability leading to operational disruptions is the correct answer. Introducing automation tools that become single points of failure can severely impact an organization’s ability to operate securely. If the automation tool fails, it can bring down critical processes, causing operational disruptions and potentially leading to extended downtime, which can have serious business implications.

The other options are less relevant in this context. While maintaining data confidentiality and integrity is important, a single point of failure is more directly concerned with the availability of systems and processes. System scalability and slow authentication are also concerns, but they are not as directly tied to the risks of introducing single points of failure in automation tools.

Question 8

Last month at Kelly Innovations LLC, Jamario reported receiving inappropriate images while researching industry competitors. To prevent employees from accidentally accessing such media in the future, which of the following solutions would be MOST effective?

Requiring two-factor authentication for internet access
Installing a state-of-the-art firewall
Implementing content categorization
Upgrading to a faster internet connection

Answer 8

Implementing content categorization would be the most effective solution in this case. Content categorization involves filtering and blocking access to certain types of content based on categories, such as adult content or inappropriate media. This would prevent employees from accidentally accessing inappropriate images or websites while browsing.

Requiring two-factor authentication for internet access primarily enhances security for user authentication but does not address the specific issue of blocking inappropriate content. Installing a state-of-the-art firewall can help filter traffic, but content categorization is a more targeted solution for blocking specific types of media. Upgrading to a faster internet connection would improve speed but has no direct impact on preventing access to inappropriate content.

Question 9

Dion Training Solutions has partnered with several smaller companies. They set up a system allowing employees from any company to access resources from another partner company without requiring a separate username and password. Which of the following is this an example of?

RBAC
Federation
Access delegation
Centralized access management

Answer 9

This is an example of Federation. Federation allows users from one organization to access resources in another organization using a shared identity management system. It eliminates the need for separate usernames and passwords by establishing a trust relationship between the partner companies, often via Single Sign-On (SSO).

RBAC (Role-Based Access Control) defines access based on roles within an organization, but it does not involve multiple organizations or a trust relationship for resource sharing. Access delegation refers to granting someone else the ability to manage or access resources on behalf of another, which isn’t what is described here. Centralized access management involves managing access to resources from a central point but doesn’t necessarily include cross-organization access without separate credentials like federation does.

Question 10

Which of the following statements BEST explains the purpose of Netflow?

Netflow is a protocol used for secure data transmission and encryption between devices on a network
Netflow is a network tool that provides visibility into network traffic and helps identify potential security threats
Netflow is a hardware-based security appliance that monitors and filters network traffic to prevent unauthorized access
Netflow is a type of firewall that inspects network traffic and blocks malicious packets to prevent cyber-attacks

Answer 10

Netflow is a network tool that provides visibility into network traffic and helps identify potential security threats.

NetFlow is a network protocol used to collect and analyze traffic flow data across a network. It provides insights into traffic patterns, network performance, and helps in identifying unusual or malicious activities. This visibility is valuable for network management, performance monitoring, and detecting security threats.

The other options are incorrect:
- NetFlow is not a protocol for secure data transmission or encryption.
- It is not a hardware-based security appliance like a firewall.
- While it monitors network traffic, it does not block malicious packets—this is the role of a firewall or intrusion prevention system.

Question 11

Which email security standard helps prevent email spoofing by allowing domain owners to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on their behalf?

DMARC
SMTP
DKIM
SPF

Answer 11

SPF (Sender Policy Framework) helps prevent email spoofing by allowing domain owners to specify which mail servers are authorized to send email on their behalf. SPF is a DNS record that lists the authorized IP addresses or mail servers for a particular domain, helping to verify whether the email sender is legitimate.

DMARC and DKIM are related email security standards that also help with email authentication, but they work in conjunction with SPF to provide a more comprehensive email security solution. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for sending emails, but it does not specifically address spoofing prevention.

Question 12

Reed is getting a new computer from his employer, Kelly Innovations LLC. He wants to remove all his personal data from his old computer, ensuring it’s irretrievable. Which of the following methods should he use?

Secure erase
System restore
Emptying the recycle bin
Disk defragmentation

Answer 12

Reed should use secure erase to remove all his personal data from his old computer, ensuring it’s irretrievable. Secure erase is a method that overwrites the data on the storage device multiple times, making it nearly impossible to recover.

System restore only restores the system to a previous state, and emptying the recycle bin or performing disk defragmentation does not guarantee the complete removal of personal data.

Question 13

A company’s access control mechanism determines access to resources based on users’ job functions. The system enforces access control based on these predefined responsibilities, and users do not have the discretion to modify or override access permissions. Which type of access control mechanism is being used in this scenario?

Discretionary
Attribute-based
Rule-based
Role-based

Answer 13

The access control mechanism being used in this scenario is role-based access control (RBAC). In RBAC, access is granted based on a user’s role within the organization, and these roles are predefined based on job responsibilities. Users do not have the ability to modify or override the permissions associated with their roles.

Discretionary access control (DAC) allows users to modify access permissions, while attribute-based access control (ABAC) uses attributes like user characteristics and the environment to determine access. Rule-based access control involves policies that define access based on certain conditions, but RBAC is the best fit here based on job functions.

Question 14

Which option BEST explains the importance of having vulnerability scanners?

Vulnerability scanners are responsible for monitoring user activities and detecting suspicious behavior on the network
Vulnerability scanners are critical in detecting and assessing security weaknesses in applications and systems
Vulnerability scanners detect and mitigate many potential problems on a wide variety of devices
Vulnerability scanners continuously monitoring network traffic and identifying potential security breaches

Answer 14

The best explanation for the importance of vulnerability scanners is:

Vulnerability scanners are critical in detecting and assessing security weaknesses in applications and systems.

Vulnerability scanners are designed to identify potential vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, and security weaknesses in software, hardware, and networks, allowing organizations to proactively address security risks before they can be exploited by attackers. While they are not typically responsible for monitoring user activities or network traffic, they play a crucial role in improving overall security posture.

Question 15

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of considering technical debt?

Considering technical debt allows organizations to prioritize cybersecurity investments based on the cost of eliminating debt
Technical debt only applies to non-security-related IT systems such as outdated software and hardware and does not impact the security posture of an organization
Technical debt can increase the complexity of long term security issues, making automation and orchestration more difficult
Addressing technical debt helps organizations to automate security operations more effectively, reducing the need for human intervention

Answer 15

The best explanation for the importance of considering technical debt is:

Technical debt can increase the complexity of long-term security issues, making automation and orchestration more difficult.

Technical debt refers to the accumulation of shortcuts, outdated technology, and suboptimal solutions that may have been implemented to meet short-term goals but can create long-term challenges, particularly in security. As technical debt grows, it can complicate the integration of new security measures, increase the risk of vulnerabilities, and make the automation of security tasks more challenging, potentially leaving systems more exposed. Addressing technical debt helps reduce these complexities and enhances the overall security infrastructure.

Question 16

Which email security protocol uses cryptographic signatures to verify the authenticity of an email’s sender?

MTA
DKIM
DMARC
SPF

Answer 16

The correct answer is DKIM. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) uses cryptographic signatures to verify the authenticity of an email’s sender by attaching a digital signature to the email header. This allows the recipient’s mail server to check the signature against the sender’s public key to confirm the email’s legitimacy. MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) is not an email security protocol, but rather a system for transferring emails between servers. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) builds on SPF and DKIM to further authenticate email, but it does not directly use cryptographic signatures like DKIM. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) checks if an email comes from an authorized server but does not involve cryptographic signatures for sender verification.

Question 17

Kelly Innovations LLC has integrated a new payment gateway into their application. To ensure no potential security gaps exist, especially related to data breaches or financial data leaks, which of the following actions would be the MOST effective?

Engaging penetration testers to mimic real-world hacking techniques
Ensuring two-factor authentication is enabled for application users
Deploying a new intrusion detection system for the payment module
Updating the application to its latest version post-integration

Answer 17

The most effective action is engaging penetration testers to mimic real-world hacking techniques. Penetration testing can help identify potential security vulnerabilities and flaws in the new payment gateway by simulating actual attack methods. This proactive approach ensures that the system is thoroughly assessed for weak points, particularly in the context of financial data security. While two-factor authentication enhances user security, it does not directly address vulnerabilities in the payment gateway. Deploying an intrusion detection system can monitor for attacks but does not prevent them. Updating the application to its latest version is important for patching known vulnerabilities but does not guarantee that the integration is secure against new threats.

Question 18

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of ‘continuous’ integration for the security of an organization?

Continuous integration makes collaboration of security teams and developers easier
Continuous integration allows for real-time monitoring of network activities
Continuous integration automates the process of updating and patching software
Continuous integration automatically generates regular backups of critical data and encrypts them

Answer 18

Continuous integration promotes the seamless collaboration of security teams and developers by integrating code changes regularly into a shared repository. This practice helps in identifying and addressing security issues early in the development process, ensuring that security is prioritized throughout the software development lifecycle. By incorporating security from the outset, organizations can build more secure software and reduce the likelihood of vulnerabilities. Continuous integration is not specifically related to real-time monitoring of network activities. Continuous integration is more focused on the process of integrating code changes frequently into a shared repository to ensure that software development is consistent and streamlined. Continuous integration is not specifically focused on generating data backups.

Question 19

As a network administrator, you have been assigned the critical task of upgrading a company’s encryption protocol for wireless devices. The current encryption method is outdated and poses a significant security risk. Your objective is to select the most secure option for the upgrade. Which of the following encryption mechanisms BEST represents the ideal choice for this upgrade?

TKIP
WEP
AES
WPA

Answer 19

The correct answer is AES.

AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is the most secure option for upgrading encryption in wireless networks. It is widely regarded as strong, modern encryption and is used in WPA2 and WPA3 protocols. WEP and TKIP are outdated and vulnerable to various attacks, making them unsuitable for securing modern networks. WPA, while more secure than WEP and TKIP, is not as secure as WPA2 or WPA3, which use AES encryption. Therefore, AES provides the highest level of security for wireless networks.

Question 20

Jamario, an IT administrator for Dion Training Solutions, is considering deploying an agent-based web filter solution to manage and monitor web traffic for remote employees. Which of the following is the MOST important advantage of implementing agent-based web filters over traditional gateway-based filters for this purpose?

It reduces the total cost of ownership (TCO) due to the absence of hardware
It can filter traffic at a faster rate than gateway solutions
It doesn’t require any updates or maintenance
It allows for consistent policy enforcement regardless of the user’s location

Answer 20

The correct answer is It allows for consistent policy enforcement regardless of the user’s location. An agent-based web filter is installed directly on the user’s device, meaning it can enforce security policies and monitor web traffic even when the device is used remotely or outside the corporate network. This ensures that web filtering is applied consistently, regardless of whether the employee is on-site or working from a different location.

The other options are incorrect because agent-based filters do not necessarily reduce the total cost of ownership due to the need for software installation and maintenance on each device. They also do not inherently filter traffic at a faster rate than gateway-based solutions, nor do they eliminate the need for updates and maintenance, as both types of solutions require regular updates to maintain effectiveness.

Question 21

Mary, a network administrator at Dion Training, is discussing with Enrique ways to harden the company’s mobile devices. Which technique would be the MOST effective for them to implement first?

Enforce full device encryption
Recommend users to use strong Wi-Fi passwords
Enforce screen lock after inactivity
Enable Bluetooth discoverable mode

Answer 21

The correct answer is Enforce full device encryption. Full device encryption is one of the most effective ways to protect sensitive data on mobile devices, as it ensures that if the device is lost or stolen, the data on it remains inaccessible without the proper decryption key. This helps mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to company data.

The other options are incorrect because while strong Wi-Fi passwords, screen locks, and disabling Bluetooth discoverable mode can contribute to overall security, they do not provide as high a level of protection for the device and its data compared to full device encryption. For example, a screen lock can prevent unauthorized access to the device, but it doesn’t protect the data if the device is compromised while the user is logged in. Similarly, Wi-Fi passwords and Bluetooth settings address specific threats but don’t provide comprehensive data protection like encryption does.

Question 22

John is an IT administrator at Dion Training Solutions. Due to the dynamic nature of his job, he often requires access to various servers and systems on an as-needed basis. The organization wants to ensure that John is granted access only when required and for a short duration. Which security approach would be MOST suitable for John’s role?

Mandatory access control
RBAC
Just-in-time permissions
Data classification

Answer 22

The correct answer is Just-in-time permissions. Just-in-time (JIT) permissions grant temporary access to systems and resources only when needed and for a limited time. This is ideal for a role like John’s, where access is required on an as-needed basis, reducing the risk of prolonged access to sensitive systems.

The other options are incorrect because Mandatory access control (MAC) enforces strict access policies based on classifications and labels, which is less flexible for dynamic access needs. RBAC (Role-based access control) assigns permissions based on roles, but it doesn’t inherently provide the temporal aspect of access that JIT permissions offer. Data classification focuses on organizing data based on sensitivity, but doesn’t manage user access directly.

Question 23

Which of the following is a disadvantage of agentless posture assessment in Network Access Control (NAC) solutions?

Requires more storage space on the client device
Less detailed information about the client is available
Increased risk of malware infection on client devices
Inability to support smartphones, tablets, and IoT devices

Answer 23

The correct answer is Less detailed information about the client is available. Agentless posture assessment in Network Access Control (NAC) solutions generally relies on network traffic analysis, without requiring software to be installed on the client device. As a result, it provides less granular or detailed information about the client, compared to agent-based assessments.

The other options are incorrect because agentless posture assessments do not require storage on client devices—they simply monitor network traffic. It does not inherently increase the risk of malware infection as it doesn’t involve installing software that could be exploited. Finally, agentless NAC can support a wide variety of devices, including smartphones, tablets, and IoT devices, because it does not rely on installed agents on those devices.

Question 24

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of package monitoring in the context of vulnerability management?

It helps identify and address vulnerabilities in software packages
It insures that all software packages are up to date with the latest features and enhancements
It involves tracking the dependencies of software packages to ensure that all required components are up to date and compatible
It allows organizations to track the physical location and status of hardware packages

Answer 24

The correct answer is It helps identify and address vulnerabilities in software packages. Package monitoring in vulnerability management focuses on identifying security issues and flaws in the software packages that are used within an organization. By tracking these packages, organizations can ensure they stay aware of any vulnerabilities that may arise and apply patches or updates to mitigate potential risks.

The other options are incorrect because while monitoring software packages does involve updating components and ensuring compatibility, the primary focus is on identifying and addressing vulnerabilities, not just enhancing features or tracking dependencies. Additionally, hardware package tracking is not related to vulnerability management, which focuses on software security.

Question 25

Dion Training Solutions recently remediated a critical vulnerability on their servers. Which of the following actions is the BEST step to verify the remediation efforts were successful? Reviewing event logs Segmentation Intrusive scanning Rescanning

Answer 25

The correct answer is **Rescanning**. Rescanning after remediation ensures that the vulnerability was effectively addressed and that the fix is operational. It involves re-running vulnerability scans on the affected systems to confirm that the issue no longer exists and that no new vulnerabilities have been introduced during the remediation process. The other options are incorrect because reviewing event logs helps track past actions but doesn’t confirm the effectiveness of remediation, segmentation refers to network architecture and isn’t relevant to verifying vulnerability fixes, and intrusive scanning may involve more intensive methods than necessary just to verify a specific remediation. Rescanning is a more straightforward and reliable way to ensure that remediation was successful.

Question 26

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the importance of continuous integration in relation to secure operations? Continuous integration can increase software quality by catching and fixing bugs quickly Continuous integration automates the building and testing of code, which enhances developer productivity Continuous integration may slow down the development process but it provides far more secure systems overall Continuous integration enables early detection of issues, making it easier to address them before they escalate

Answer 26

The correct answer is **"Continuous integration may slow down the development process but it provides far more secure systems overall."** This statement is **NOT true** because continuous integration (CI) typically **speeds up the development process** by automating repetitive tasks like building and testing code. It doesn't necessarily slow down the process. Instead, CI helps catch bugs early, reducing the overall time spent on fixing issues later in the development lifecycle. The other statements are true because continuous integration does improve software quality by quickly detecting bugs, automates testing to improve productivity, and helps identify security vulnerabilities early, preventing them from escalating into bigger issues.

Question 27

Sasha, a network administrator for Kelly's Technical Innovations, has just recently installed a NGFW on her company’s network to replace the previous traditional stateful firewall they were using. This change was made to keep up with shortcomings that were with the previous firewall. Which of the following improvements does this NGFW provide that were not available previously? (Select all that apply.) Can be integrated with various other security products Addition of multiple functions, including firewall, intrusion prevention, antivirus, and more Application awareness that can distinguish between different types of traffic Increased focus on HTTP traffic, helping to prevent common web application attacks like cross-site scripting and SQL injections Improved awareness of connection states on layer 4 traffic Ability to conduct deep packet inspection and use signature-based intrusion detection

Answer 27

The correct answers are: - **Can be integrated with various other security products** - **Application awareness that can distinguish between different types of traffic** - **Ability to conduct deep packet inspection and use signature-based intrusion detection** These improvements are characteristic of a **Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)**. NGFWs provide **advanced features** such as the ability to integrate with other security products, which enhances the overall security infrastructure. They also offer **application awareness**, allowing them to identify and control different types of traffic, which is critical for blocking threats based on applications rather than just ports. Additionally, NGFWs are equipped with **deep packet inspection** capabilities and can perform **signature-based intrusion detection**, helping detect and mitigate sophisticated attacks by analyzing the actual content of network traffic in more detail than traditional stateful firewalls.

Question 28

After a security assessment, Jono has been tasked with replacing his home office AP with one that has the capability of providing WPA3, which his previous one was unable to handle. Which of the following is true when considering WPA3 standards? (Select all that apply.) It uses a 4-way handshake for initial authentication and key validation It utilizes a Diffie-Hellman key agreement It is the latest and most secure wireless security protocol It prevents eavesdropping, forging, and tampering with management frames It encrypts the authentication process using TCP for enhanced security It provides individualized data encryption even in open networks

Answer 28

The correct answers are: - **It utilizes a Diffie-Hellman key agreement** - **It is the latest and most secure wireless security protocol** - **It prevents eavesdropping, forging, and tampering with management frames** - **It provides individualized data encryption even in open networks** WPA3 is designed to enhance security over WPA2. It uses **Diffie-Hellman key agreement** to securely establish a shared secret between devices, ensuring stronger protection for encrypted communications. As the latest standard, WPA3 is indeed the **most secure wireless protocol** available. It improves upon previous standards by protecting against **eavesdropping, forging, and tampering with management frames**, making attacks like deauthentication attacks more difficult. Additionally, WPA3 offers **individualized data encryption**, which protects user data even when using open (unencrypted) networks, something WPA2 lacked.

Question 29

You are an IT security manager for an enterprise that deals with sensitive customer information and intellectual property. The organization is concerned about data loss through email and removable storage devices. As a security manager, you recommend implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution to enhance security. Which of the following configurations would be the MOST effective way to implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) for the given scenario? Enabling the DLP solution to block all email attachments and USB storage devices to prevent data leakage Using the DLP solution solely for monitoring purposes without implementing any preventive measures Configuring the DLP solution to scan all outbound emails and files leaving the organization for sensitive information Implementing DLP on endpoints with a focus on monitoring and preventing data transfers between internal users

Answer 29

The most effective way to implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution for the given scenario is **configuring the DLP solution to scan all outbound emails and files leaving the organization for sensitive information**. This approach ensures that sensitive data is identified and protected before it leaves the organization through email or file transfers, addressing the risk of data loss via these vectors. Enabling the DLP solution to block all email attachments and USB storage devices would be overly restrictive and could hinder business operations. Using the DLP solution solely for monitoring without any preventive measures wouldn't provide proactive protection, only alerting administrators without stopping data leakage. Implementing DLP on endpoints focusing on internal transfers might help with internal threats but doesn't address the critical risk of data leakage through outbound communications like email.

Question 30

Why might an organization be particularly concerned about introducing automation tools that become single points of failure during secure operations? Challenges in upholding data confidentiality Compromised availability leading to operational disruptions Issues related to system scalability and slow authentication Potential gaps in maintaining data integrity

Answer 30

The correct answer is Compromised availability leading to operational disruptions, because automation tools, when relied upon as critical components of operations, can create single points of failure. If these tools become unavailable or compromised, it can disrupt the entire workflow, resulting in delays or operational outages. The other answers are incorrect because challenges in upholding data confidentiality, issues with scalability and authentication, and gaps in maintaining data integrity are important considerations in secure operations, but they don't directly address the specific concern related to the risk of a single point of failure in automation tools.

Question 31

The New York Inquirer's main headquarters has a diverse IT infrastructure, including servers, workstations, and IoT devices. They have implemented a firewall to protect their internal network from external threats. The organization wants to modify the firewall rules to enhance security and minimize potential attack vectors. Which modification to firewall ports and protocols is NOT recommended for the organization to enhance security? Implementing port forwarding for remote access to internal servers Allowing any outgoing traffic to any destination Enabling stateful Inspection for packet filtering Closing unused and unnecessary ports and protocols

Answer 31

Allowing any outgoing traffic to any destination is NOT recommended for enhancing security. Limiting unrestricted outbound traffic is crucial for security, as it may carry sensitive data and allow unauthorized communication with potentially harmful external servers. Controlling outbound traffic helps prevent data leaks and ensures only necessary communication is permitted. Enabling stateful inspection in firewalls is recommended, as it tracks active connections and allows only legitimate packets, thereby blocking unauthorized traffic. Closing unused ports and protocols further reduces the attack surface, preventing threats from exploiting open ports. Although port forwarding can allow remote access to internal servers, it should be used cautiously and only for essential services to avoid introducing security risks.

Question 32

In a large financial institution, the access control mechanism utilizes a set of predefined conditions to determine access rights to various resources. The system evaluates a number of factors, which are compared to the predefined conditions to determine access. Users and administrators do not have the ability to modify or override the access control policies. Which type of access control mechanism is being used in this scenario? Role-based Rule-based Discretionary Attribute-based

Answer 32

The correct answer is Rule-based, because in this scenario, the access control system evaluates a set of predefined rules or conditions to determine access to resources, and users or administrators do not have the ability to modify or override these rules. This fits the description of rule-based access control (RBAC), where access is granted based on specific rules set by administrators. The other answers are incorrect because role-based access control (RBAC) grants access based on predefined roles, but the scenario specifies conditions rather than roles. Discretionary access control (DAC) allows users to control access to their own resources, which is not the case here. Attribute-based access control (ABAC) evaluates attributes such as user characteristics or environmental factors but does not rely solely on predefined rules.

Question 33

Jason, an IT administrator for Kelly Innovations LLC, is tasked with enforcing specific access rights only for the marketing department. Given the tools available on a Windows Active Directory network, which would be the MOST effective way for Jason to accomplish this? Linking a GPO to the organizational unit containing marketing department users Linking a GPO to a site Applying a local group policy on individual marketing department computers Creating a new domain for the marketing department

Answer 33

The correct answer is "Linking a GPO to the organizational unit containing marketing department users" because linking a Group Policy Object (GPO) to an Organizational Unit (OU) is the most effective method to enforce specific access rights for a targeted group of users, in this case, the marketing department. OUs allow for precise management of policies based on department or role, making it easier to apply security or access restrictions to only the necessary users. The other answers are incorrect because linking a GPO to a site affects all users within that site, which is broader than just the marketing department, and applying a local group policy on individual computers limits the scope and requires manual configuration on each device. Creating a new domain would be unnecessary and complex for simply managing access rights within one department.

Question 34

Before providing access to a new cloud-based application, a company verifies the authenticity of its employees by asking them a series of knowledge-based questions, checking their government-issued IDs, and validating their current employment status. This process is an example of: Identity proofing Access delegation Account recovery 2FA

Answer 34

The correct answer is "Identity proofing" because this process involves verifying the identity of an individual before granting access, using various methods such as knowledge-based questions, government-issued IDs, and employment verification. This ensures that the person requesting access is who they claim to be. The other answers are incorrect because "Access delegation" refers to the act of transferring access rights or responsibilities to another user, "Account recovery" involves restoring access to a user's account after a loss or compromise, and "2FA" (two-factor authentication) is a security measure that requires two forms of identification, which wasn't the focus of the process described.

Question 35

You are a security analyst tasked with investigating a suspected security breach on a company's Linux server. You decide to examine the operating system (OS)-specific security logs. Which of the following pieces of information would be MOST valuable in these logs to investigate the incident? The amount of free storage space left on the server and whether the amount has changed recently Records of failed and successful system and user level authentications Information about the latest patches and software updates installed on the server Information about the number of users added to the server in the past year

Answer 35

The correct answer is "Records of failed and successful system and user level authentications" because these logs provide insight into any unauthorized access attempts, which is crucial for identifying potential breaches. Patterns in authentication attempts, such as failed logins or successful logins from unfamiliar IP addresses or times, can indicate malicious activity. The other answers are incorrect because while storage space, software updates, and user additions can be relevant in some situations, they are not directly tied to identifying a security breach. The authentication logs specifically target the most immediate and direct indicators of unauthorized access, making them the most valuable in this context.

Question 36

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of OSINT in the context of vulnerability management? OSINT helps organizations assess and analyze vulnerabilities in operating systems OSINT uses public information to discover vulnerabilities in an organization's network infrastructure OSINT uses proprietary software to eliminate vulnerabilities in an organization's network infrastructure OSINT allows organizations to track and monitor the physical location and status of hardware assets

Answer 36

The correct answer is "OSINT uses public information to discover vulnerabilities in an organization's network infrastructure," because OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) refers to the collection and analysis of publicly available information, such as online databases, forums, and websites, to identify potential vulnerabilities in an organization's network or systems. This information can help organizations proactively address security risks before they are exploited. The other answers are incorrect because OSINT does not typically involve proprietary software for vulnerability elimination, nor is it focused on assessing vulnerabilities specifically in operating systems. Additionally, OSINT is not used to track the physical location or status of hardware assets.

Question 37

Sasha, a system administrator at Dion Training Solutions, is looking to enhance the security of her Linux servers by restricting processes to minimum necessary privileges and defining their behavior. Which Linux feature should Sasha MOST likely implement? SELinux SSH key authentication Chroot environment Filesystem quotas

Answer 37

The correct answer is SELinux because it is a Linux security feature that provides mandatory access control (MAC) to enforce the principle of least privilege by restricting processes to only the necessary resources and actions. This helps to define the behavior of processes and reduces the potential impact of a compromised process by limiting what it can access. The other options are incorrect because SSH key authentication is used for secure remote access, Chroot environments are used to isolate processes by limiting their filesystem access (but not privileges), and filesystem quotas are used to manage disk space usage, not security privileges.

Question 38

Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of 'E-discovery' in incident response? E-discovery involves examining drives to find data that is electronically stored to use them for evidence E-discovery requires the finding and recognizing potential threats or breaches in the security infrastructure to prevent incidents E-discovery dictates the steps in preserving evidence in its original state to maintain its integrity for future forensic or legal needs E-discovery is a step in the process of documenting the details of a security incident, its impact, and potential remedies

Answer 38

The correct answer is that "E-discovery involves examining drives to find data that is electronically stored to use them for evidence." This process is vital in incident response because it allows investigators to locate and retrieve digital evidence from various devices that may be critical for understanding the scope of an incident and for supporting legal actions or compliance. The other options are incorrect because while E-discovery does involve preserving evidence, its primary focus is on identifying electronically stored information that can be used in legal proceedings. Additionally, it is not specifically about recognizing threats, documenting incidents, or detailing remedies, which are separate activities in the broader incident response process.

Question 39

Jamario, the CISO of Dion Training Solutions, noticed that many employees were using simple passwords that were easy to guess. He wants to improve the security of employee accounts. What would be the MOST effective method to enhance password security against brute force attacks? Using encrypted communication channels Regularly updating firewall rules Implementing a policy for longer passwords Switching to biometric authentication

Answer 39

The correct answer is "Implementing a policy for longer passwords." Longer passwords are more resistant to brute force attacks because they increase the number of possible combinations an attacker must try, making it harder for automated tools to crack the password. The other answers are incorrect because while encrypted communication channels (such as HTTPS) can protect passwords during transmission, they do not affect the strength of the passwords themselves. Updating firewall rules and switching to biometric authentication are not directly related to mitigating brute force attacks on passwords; biometric systems could add security, but they don't specifically address the issue of weak passwords.

Question 40

Which of the following statements best explains the importance of Threat Hunting in incident response? Threat Hunting determines the individuals or groups responsible for the incident and helps in legal proceedings Threat hunting is the process of identifying and classifying incidents based on their severity and impact to the organization Threat Hunting allows the identifying and mitigating of security threats before they cause damage Threat hunting involves removing the root cause of the incident from affected systems and networks to prevent its recurrence

Answer 40

The correct answer is "Threat Hunting allows the identifying and mitigating of security threats before they cause damage." Threat hunting involves proactively searching for signs of potential threats within a network or system, allowing security teams to identify vulnerabilities or malicious activity early before significant damage can occur. The other answers are incorrect because threat hunting is more focused on proactively identifying and addressing threats, not directly on determining responsibility for an incident (which is more of a forensics task). It also doesn't focus on classifying incidents by severity (which is part of incident management) or removing root causes after an incident occurs (which is part of incident remediation).

Question 41

Sasha, a security consultant at Kelly Innovations LLC, has been tasked with finding a solution that can monitor and filter the web traffic of employees who frequently travel or work remotely. Which of the following would be the MOST effective solution for ensuring consistent policy enforcement regardless of the user's location? Implementing an agent-based web filter Deploying a VPN for remote users Setting up strict firewall rules for outbound traffic Requiring remote users to use a specific browser

Answer 41

The correct answer is "Implementing an agent-based web filter." An agent-based web filter is installed on the user's device, allowing it to monitor and enforce security policies regardless of the user's location, even when they are working remotely or traveling. This approach ensures consistent policy enforcement for web traffic no matter where the user is. The other answers are incorrect because a VPN only secures the network connection but does not specifically monitor or filter web traffic. Setting up strict firewall rules for outbound traffic would apply only within the network perimeter and wouldn't be effective for remote users. Requiring a specific browser does not provide comprehensive web traffic filtering or policy enforcement.

Question 42

Kelly Innovations LLC has identified a vulnerability in one of its systems. However, due to a critical ongoing project, the IT team decides it's not the right time to apply the recommended fix. Which of the following strategies is the MOST appropriate for Kelly Innovations LLC to implement? Increase cybersecurity training for employees Conduct a penetration test Implement an vulnerability exception Migrate all data to another system

Answer 42

The correct answer is "Implement a vulnerability exception." When an organization identifies a vulnerability but decides not to apply the recommended fix immediately due to operational constraints or other priorities, it can implement a vulnerability exception. This exception is a formal acknowledgment of the risk, along with additional mitigations or controls to manage the vulnerability until it can be addressed properly. The other answers are incorrect because increasing cybersecurity training for employees helps reduce human error but does not directly address the identified vulnerability. Conducting a penetration test is useful for assessing the overall security posture, but it does not address the immediate need to manage the specific vulnerability. Migrating data to another system is often an unnecessary and complex solution when the problem can be mitigated by other means like applying a fix or implementing a vulnerability exception.

Question 43

Which of the following BEST underscores the value of enumeration in the effective management of hardware, software, and data assets? Enumeration identifies potential vulnerabilities in hardware, software, and data assets Enumeration assigns unique identifiers and access controls to hardware, software, and data assets Enumeration identifies and counts all hardware, software, and data assets in an organization Enumeration ranks and prioritizes all hardware, software, and data assets based on their value to the organization

Answer 43

The correct answer is "Enumeration assigns unique identifiers and access controls to hardware, software, and data assets." Enumeration is important because it involves creating an organized and identifiable inventory of an organization’s assets, ensuring that each asset is properly tracked, categorized, and protected. By assigning unique identifiers and access controls, it helps ensure that these assets are secured, monitored, and managed effectively. The other answers are incorrect because while enumeration does identify and count assets, it goes beyond just counting or identifying them; it involves providing detailed tracking and management controls. Additionally, ranking and prioritizing assets based on value might come later in the asset management process, but enumeration itself is more focused on identifying and assigning controls to each asset rather than ranking them.