Obs + Gynae - Urogynaecology + GUM Flashcards

1
Q

Match the definition to the type of urinary incontinence:

a. ) unable to reach the toilet in time, for such reasons as poor mobility or unfamiliar surroundings
b. ) involuntary leakage of urine on effort or exertion, or on sneezing or coughing due to incompetent sphincter
c. ) involuntary urine leakage accompanied by, or immediately preceded by, urgency of micturition
d. ) involuntary leakage of urine associated with both urgency and exertion, effort, sneezing or coughing
e. ) urgency that occurs with or without urge incontinence and usually with frequency and nocturia
f. ) usually due to chronic bladder outflow obstruction. It is often due to prostatic disease in men
g. ) may be due to a fistulous track between the vagina and the ureter, or bladder, or urethra. There is continuous leakage of urine

  1. ) Urge incontinence
  2. ) Mixed incontinence
  3. ) Overactive Bladder syndrome
  4. ) True incontinence
  5. ) Overflow incontinence
  6. ) Functional Incontinence
  7. ) Stress incontinence
A

a.) 6 b.) 7 c.) 1 d.) 2 e.) 3 f.) 5 g.) 4

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2
Q

Management of urge incontinence

A
  • bladder retraining (lasts for a minimum of 6 weeks - gradually increase the intervals between voiding)
  • bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinics are first-line. (Oxybutynin, Tolterodine (immediate release) or darifenacin (once daily preparation)) Immediate release oxybutynin should be avoided in ‘frail older women’!)
  • mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) may be useful if there is concern about anticholinergic side-effects in frail elderly patients
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3
Q

Management of stress incontinence

A
  • pelvic floor muscle training: at least 8 contractions performed 3 times per day for a minimum of 3 months
  • surgical procedures: e.g. retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures
  • duloxetine (noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor) may be offered to women if they decline surgical procedure
    (mechanism of action: increased synaptic concentration of noradrenaline and serotonin within the pudendal nerve → increased stimulation of urethral striated muscles within the sphincter → enhanced contraction)
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4
Q

Initial investigation of urinary incontinence

A
  • bladder diaries should be completed for a minimum of 3 days
  • vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse and ability to initiate voluntary contraction of pelvic floor muscles (‘Kegel’ exercises)
  • urine dipstick and culture
  • urodynamic studies
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5
Q

What muscle is responsible for urge incontinence?

A

Detrusor overactivity

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6
Q

Risk factors for urinary incontinence

A
  • advancing age
  • previous pregnancy and childbirth
  • high body mass index
  • hysterectomy
  • family history
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7
Q

What is a rectocele?

A

Rectoceles are caused by a defect in the posterior vaginal wall, allowing the rectum to prolapse forwards into the vagina

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8
Q

What is the most common symptom in patients with a rectocele?

A

Constipation (faecal loading)

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9
Q

Risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse

A
  • Multiple vaginal deliveries
  • Instrumental, prolonged or traumatic delivery
  • Advanced age and postmenopause status
  • Obesity
  • Chronic respiratory disease causing coughing
  • Chronic constipation causing straining
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10
Q

Features of pelvic organ prolapse

A
  • A feeling of “something coming down” in the vagina
  • A dragging or heavy sensation in the pelvis
  • Urinary symptoms, such as incontinence, urgency, frequency, weak stream and retention
  • Bowel symptoms, such as constipation, incontinence and urgency
  • Sexual dysfunction, such as pain, altered sensation and reduced enjoyment
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11
Q

What are the main three management options for pelvic organ prolapse?

A
  • Conservative management
    Physiotherapy (pelvic floor exercises) / Weight loss / Lifestyle changes (reduced caffeine intake and incontinence pads) / Treatment of symptoms, such as treating stress incontinence with anticholinergic mediations) / Vaginal oestrogen cream
  • Vaginal pessary
    Ring pessaries sit around the cervix holding the uterus up
    Shelf and Gellhorn pessaries sit below the uterus with the stem pointing downwards
    Cube pessaries
    Donut pessaries consist of a thick ring
    Hodge pessaries are almost rectangular. One side is hooked around the posterior aspect of the cervix and the other extends into the vagina.
  • Surgery
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12
Q

What are some possible complications of pelvic organ prolapse surgery?

A
  • Pain, bleeding, infection, DVT and risk of anaesthetic
  • Damage to the bladder or bowel
  • Recurrence of the prolapse
  • Altered experience of sex
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13
Q

What is thrush also called

A

Vaginal candidiasis

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14
Q

Risk factors for thrush

A
  • Increased oestrogen (higher in pregnancy, lower pre-puberty and post-menopause)
  • Poorly controlled diabetes
  • Immunosuppression (e.g. using corticosteroids)
  • Broad-spectrum antibiotics
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15
Q

Thrush features

A
  • Thick, white discharge that does not typically smell
  • Vulval and vaginal itching, irritation or discomfort

More severe infection can lead to:

  • Erythema
  • Fissures
  • Oedema
  • Pain during sex (dyspareunia)
  • Dysuria
  • Excoriation
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16
Q

Investigation of thrush

A
  • Test vaginal pH using a swab
    pH paper can be helpful in differentiating between bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas (pH > 4.5) and candidiasis (pH < 4.5)

A charcoal swab with microscopy can confirm the diagnosis.

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17
Q

Which is acidic / alkaline on a pH swab? (vaginosis and Trichomonas vs candidiasis)

A

bacterial vaginosis and trichomonas (pH > 4.5) and candidiasis (pH < 4.5)

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18
Q

Thrush management

A

Treatment of candidiasis is with antifungal medications
- Antifungal cream (i.e. clotrimazole) inserted into the vagina with an applicator
- Antifungal pessary (i.e. clotrimazole)
- Oral antifungal tablets (i.e. fluconazole)
(Canesten Duo is a standard over-the-counter treatment worth knowing - It contains a single fluconazole tablet and clotrimazole cream to use externally for vulval symptoms)

Recurrent infections (more than 4 in a year) can be treated with a regime over six months with oral or vaginal antifungal medications

Warn women that antifungal creams and pessaries can damage latex condoms and prevent spermicides from working, so alternative contraceptive is required for at least five days after use.

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19
Q

Public Health England has set out a National Chlamydia Screening Programme (NCSP)

How often and for who?

A

This program aims to screen every sexually active person under 25 years of age for chlamydia annually or when they change their sexual partner. Everyone that tests positive should have a re-test three months after treatment

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20
Q

What are the two types of swabs used in sexual health screening?

A
  • Charcoal swabs
  • Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) swabs

Charcoal swabs allow for microscopy (looking at the sample under the microscope), culture (growing the organism) and sensitivities (testing which antibiotics are effective against the bacteria). Charcoal swabs look like a long cotton bud that goes into a tube with a black transport medium at the end. The transport medium is called Amies transport medium, and contains a chemical solution for keeping microorganisms alive during transport.

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21
Q

What swab is used to test for Chlamydia vs Gonorrhoea?

A

Charcoal - Gonorhhoea

NAAT - Chlamydia

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22
Q

Features of Chlamydia in women vs men

A

The majority of cases of chlamydia in women are asymptomatic. Consider chlamydia in women that are sexually active and present with:
- Abnormal vaginal discharge
- Pelvic pain
- Abnormal vaginal bleeding (intermenstrual or postcoital)
- Painful sex (dyspareunia)
- Painful urination (dysuria)
(Chlamydial conjunctivitis?)

Consider chlamydia in men that are sexually active and present with:
- Urethral discharge or discomfort
- Painful urination (dysuria)
- Epididymo-orchitis
- Reactive arthritis
(Lymphogranuloma Venereum in me who have sex with. men = painless ulcer > lymphadenitis > proctitis)

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23
Q

What is first-line treatment for uncomplicated chlamydia infection?
(Other measures for patient to consider?)

A

doxycycline 100mg twice a day for 7 days.
(alternative - Azithromycin / Erythromycin)

  • Abstain from sex for seven days of treatment of all partners to reduce the risk of re-infection
  • Refer all patients to genitourinary medicine (GUM) for contact tracing and notification of sexual partners
  • Test for and treat any other sexually transmitted infections
  • Provide advice about ways to prevent future infection
  • Consider safeguarding issues and sexual abuse in children and young people
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24
Q

Most common complication of Chlamydia?

+ any others?

A

PID

Also:

  • Chronic pelvic pain
  • Infertility
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Epididymo-orchitis
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • Reactive arthritis
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25
Q

Pregnancy-related complications of Chlamydia?

A
  • Preterm delivery
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Low birth weight
  • Postpartum endometritis
  • Neonatal infection (conjunctivitis and pneumonia)
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26
Q

What are the friendly bacteria in the vagina called?

+ what condition is caused by a lack of these?

A

lactobacilli (produce lactic acid that keeps the vaginal pH low)
(+ Bacterial vaginosis)

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27
Q

What are some anaerobic bateria associated with bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Gardnerella vaginalis (most common)
  • Mycoplasma hominis
  • Prevotella species
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28
Q

What is the standard presenting feature of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

fishy-smelling watery grey or white vaginal discharge. (Half of women with BV are asymptomatic)
(Itching, irritation and pain are not typically associated with BV)

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29
Q

Investigation of Bacterial Vaginosis

A
  • Vaginal pH can be tested using a swab and pH paper. The normal vaginal pH is 3.5 – 4.5. BV occurs with a pH above 4.5.
  • A standard charcoal vaginal swab can be taken for microscopy. (High vaginal swab taken during speculum or a self-taken low vaginal swab)
  • Bacterial vaginosis gives “clue cells” on microscopy. Clue cells are epithelial cells from the cervix that have bacteria stuck inside them, usually Gardnerella vaginalis.
30
Q

What characteristic cell on microscopy is diagnostic for Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Clue cells

Clue cells are epithelial cells from the cervix that have bacteria stuck inside them, usually Gardnerella vaginalis.

31
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for Bacterial Vaginosis?

+ what should patients avoid whilst on this antibiotic?

A

Metronidazole
(Alternative - Clindamycin)
(Alcohol and metronidazole can cause a “disulfiram-like reaction”, with nausea and vomiting, flushing and sometimes severe symptoms of shock and angioedema).

32
Q

Pregnancy-related complications of Bacterial Vaginosis?

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Preterm delivery
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Chorioamnionitis
  • Low birth weight
  • Postpartum endometritis
33
Q

Trichomoniasis features

A
  • Vaginal discharge
  • Itching
  • Dysuria (painful urination)
  • Dyspareunia (painful sex)
  • Balanitis (inflammation to the glans penis)
  • Vaginal discharge is frothy and yellow-green, although this can vary. It may have a fishy smell.
  • Examination of the cervix can reveal a characteristic “strawberry cervix” (also called colpitis macularis). A strawberry cervix is caused by inflammation (cervicitis) relating to the trichomonas infection. There are tiny haemorrhages across the surface of the cervix, giving the appearance of a strawberry.
  • Testing the vaginal pH will reveal a raised ph (above 4.5), similar to bacterial vaginosis.
34
Q

Trichomoniasis Dx + Mx

A

Diagnosis
- Standard charcoal swab with microscopy (examination under a microscope).

  • Swabs from the posterior fornix of the vagina in women. (A self-taken low vaginal swab may be used as an alternative)
  • A urethral swab or first-catch urine is used in men.

Management
Refer to GUM specialist service for diagnosis, treatment and contact tracing
Treatment is with metronidazole

35
Q

Gonorrhoea features women vs men

A

Female

  • Odourless purulent discharge, possibly green or yellow
  • Dysuria
  • Pelvic pain

Male genital infections can present with:

  • Odourless purulent discharge, possibly green or yellow
  • Dysuria
  • Testicular pain or swelling (epididymo-orchitis)

Rectal infection may cause anal or rectal discomfort and discharge. Pharyngeal infection may cause a sore throat. Prostatitis causes perineal pain, urinary symptoms and prostate tenderness on examination. Conjunctivitis causes erythema and a purulent discharge.

36
Q

Gonorrhoea Diagnosis

A
  • NAAT is use to detect the RNA or DNA of gonorrhoea. (endocervical, vulvovaginal or urethral swabs, or in a first-catch urine sample)
    (Rectal and pharyngeal swab are recommended in all men who have sex with men (MSM))
  • Charcoal endocervical swab should be taken for microscopy, culture and antibiotic sensitivities

TIP: It is worth remembering that NAAT tests are used to check if a gonococcal infection is present or not by looking for gonococcal RNA or DNA. They do not provide any information about the specific bacteria and their antibiotic sensitivities and resistance. This is why a standard charcoal swab for microscopy, culture and sensitivities is so essential, to guide the choice of antibiotics to use in treatment.

37
Q

Gonorrhoea management

A

For uncomplicated gonococcal infections:

  • A single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone 1g if the sensitivities are NOT known
  • A single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg if the sensitivities ARE known
  • All patients should have a follow up “test of cure” given the high antibiotic resistance.

Other factors to consider are:

  • Abstain from sex for seven days of treatment of all partners to reduce the risk of re-infection
  • Test for and treat any other sexually transmitted infections
  • Provide advice about ways to prevent future infection
  • Consider safeguarding issues and sexual abuse in children and young people
38
Q

Disseminated Gonococcal Infection features

A
  • Various non-specific skin lesions
  • Polyarthralgia (joint aches and pains)
  • Migratory polyarthritis (arthritis that moves between joints)
  • Tenosynovitis
  • Systemic symptoms such as fever and fatigue
39
Q

Features of genital herpes

A

symptoms of an initial infection with genital herpes usually appear within two weeks

  • Ulcers or blistering lesions affecting the genital area
  • Neuropathic type pain (tingling, burning or shooting)
  • Flu-like symptoms (e.g. fatigue and headaches)
  • Dysuria (painful urination)
  • Inguinal lymphadenopathy

Symptoms can last three weeks in a primary infection. Recurrent episodes are usually milder and resolve more quickly

40
Q

What medication is used to treat Genital Herpes

A

Aciclovir

41
Q

What bacterium causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

42
Q

Name some features of: Primary Syphilis, Secondary Syphilis, Latent Syphilis, Neurosyphilis

A

Primary syphilis:

  • A painless genital ulcer (chancre) (resolves over 3 – 8 weeks)
  • Local lymphadenopathy

Secondary syphilis (after chancre has healed):

  • Maculopapular rash
  • Condylomata lata (grey wart-like lesions around the genitals and anus)
  • Low-grade fever
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Alopecia (localised hair loss)
  • Oral lesions

Tertiary syphilis:

  • Gummatous lesions (gummas are granulomatous lesions that can affect the skin, organs and bones)
  • Aortic aneurysms
  • Neurosyphilis

Neurosyphilis can occur at any stage if the infection reaches the central nervous system:

  • Headache
  • Altered behaviour
  • Dementia
  • Tabes dorsalis (demyelination affecting the spinal cord posterior columns)
  • Ocular syphilis (affecting the eyes)
  • Paralysis
  • Sensory impairment
    • Argyll-Robertson pupil is specific to neurosyphilis (constricted pupil that accommodates when focusing on a near object but does not react to light)
43
Q

Early latent syphilis and late latent syphilis occur how long after the initial infection?

A

Early latent - within two years of the initial infection

Late latent - from two years after the initial infection onwards.

44
Q

What testing is used for to confirm the presence of T. pallidum (Syphilis) in sites of infection?

A
  • Dark field microscopy
  • Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

rapid plasma reagin (RPR) and venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) tests are also used

45
Q

What is the standard treatment for Syphilis?

A

A single deep intramuscular dose of benzathine benzylpenicillin (penicillin)

(Full screening for other STIs
Advice about avoiding sexual activity until treated
Contact tracing
Prevention of future infections)

46
Q

Anogenital warts are caused by which organism?

A

HPV

47
Q

Name an AIDS-defining illness

A
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
  • Cytomegalovirus infection
  • Candidiasis (oesophageal or bronchial)
  • Lymphomas
  • Tuberculosis
48
Q

What is the typical screening test for HIV?

A

Antibody testing

also p24 antigen testing + PCR testing

49
Q

Name a Highly Active Anti-Retrovirus Therapy (HAART) Medication

A

Protease inhibitors (PIs)
Integrase inhibitors (IIs)
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
Entry inhibitors (EIs)

50
Q

How often do women with HIV have their cervical smear?

A

Every year

51
Q

What prophylaxis may be given to the baby, depending on the mothers HIV viral load?

A

zidovudine (or lamivudine and nevirapine) for four weeks

52
Q

Can you breastfeed with HIV?

A

No, HIV can be transmitted during breastfeeding, even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable

53
Q

When must HIV post-exposure prophylaxis be commenced?

+ what drugs?

A

within a short window of opportunity (less than 72 hours)

ruvada (emtricitabine and tenofovir) and raltegravir for 28 days

54
Q

What is first-line treatment for urge vs stress incontinence?

A

urge incontinence: bladder retraining

stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training

55
Q

First-line for Gonorrhoea

A

1g Ceftriaxone

56
Q

What condition is strawberry cervix?

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

57
Q

Thin or frothy vaginal discharge is usually?

A

Trichomonas Vaginalis

58
Q

First-line of Trichomonas Vaginalis?

A

2g Metronidazole

59
Q

Most thrush caused by what organism?

A

Candida Albicans

60
Q

First-line for Thrush?

A

Fluclonazole 150mg or

Clotrimazole 200mg pessary

61
Q

Fishy discharge is what?

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

62
Q

First-line for Bacterial Vaginosis?

A

Metronidazole

63
Q

Clue cells is what condition?

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

64
Q

HIV is what type of virus?

A

Retrovirus

65
Q

Which HIV protein binds to CD4 receptor on T helper cell surface?

A

Gp120

66
Q

Mx of cryptococcal Meningitis

A

Amphotericin + Flucytosine (+ Fluconazole)

67
Q

Mx of Cerebral Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine, Sulfadiazine, Folinic acid

Cat poo!

68
Q

2 Post-Eexposure Prophylaxis drugs for HIV

A

Raltegravir + Truvada for 28 days
(Suitability of prescribing is dependent on circumstances)
(prescribe after recent anal sex!)

69
Q

Cottage-cheese vaginal discharge?

A

Candidiasis

70
Q

What kind of drug is Oxybutynin

A

Antimuscarinic

71
Q

Drugs used for urge incontinence

A

bladder stabilising drugs: antimuscarinics are first-line.
- Oxybutynin (immediate release)
- Tolterodine (immediate release)
- Darifenacin (once daily preparation)
(Oxybutynin should be avoided in ‘frail older women’!)
- Mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) may be useful if there is concern about anticholinergic side-effects in frail elderly patients

72
Q

What demographic should not be prescribed Oxybutynin and what would be prescribed instead?

A

Frail older women and Mirabegron