Obstetric anaesthesia Flashcards

(29 cards)

1
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A

The onset of hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

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2
Q

What is proteinuria?

A

High levels of protein in urine.

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3
Q

What can happen in severe cases of pre-eclampsia?

A

Haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, impaired liver and kidney function, oedema, visual disturbances and pulmonary oedema.

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4
Q

What is haemolysis?

A

The destruction of red blood cells.

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5
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low platelet count.

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6
Q

What is pulmonary oedema?

A

Excessive fluid accumulation in the tissue or air spaces of the lungs.

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7
Q

What if conservative management with oral anti-hypertensives is unsuccessful with pre-eclampsia?

A

Patients will require IV drugs and infusions, invasive blood pressure monitoring and surgical delivery as the definitive treatment.

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8
Q

What must be checked before epidural?

A

A name-band, working IV access and blood pressure monitoring available in the room.

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9
Q

What must be in patient room before epidural?

A

An ambu-bag and working suction.

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10
Q

Can a patient take entonox during epidural?

A

If already prescribed and in use, then yes.

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11
Q

What is a complication of an epidural?

A

Accidental dural puncture.

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12
Q

What can an accidental dural puncture cause?

A

A post-dural puncture headache in the days after delivery.

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13
Q

If conservative management fails, what treatment is there for a post-dural headache?

A

Blood patch procedure.

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14
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

A hormone that acts on organs in the body (including the breast and uterus) and as a chemical messenger in the brain, controlling key aspects of the reproductive system, including childbirth and lactation.

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15
Q

What is the administration of oxytocin routine in?

A

In patients undergoing caesarean sections.

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16
Q

What does oxytocin promote?

A

Contraction of the uterine smooth muscle.

17
Q

What can oxytocin reduce through helping with contraction?

A

Blood loss at the place of placental detachment – postpartum haemorrhage.

18
Q

When would an anaesthetist choose NOT to top up an existing epidural for surgery?

A

– Problems achieving good pain relief with current epidural.
– Top-up dose likely to exceed toxicity threshold.

19
Q

What is twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?

A

An abnormal connection of blood vessels in the placenta, resulting in an imbalanced blood flow between identical twins in one placenta.

20
Q

How is TTTS treated?

A

Laser foetoscopy.

21
Q

What is a Category 1 caesarean?

A

Immediate threat to life of mother or foetus.

22
Q

What is a Category 2 caesarean?

A

No immediate threat to life but definite compromise requiring surgery.

23
Q

What is a Category 3 caesarean?

A

Requires early delivery, no maternal or foetal concern.

24
Q

What is a Category 4 caesarean?

A

Delivery to suit needs of department or woman.

25
What six reasons makes intubation in an obstetrics patient difficult?
- Weigh gain/obesity. - Large breasts. - High incidence of regurgitation. - Difficult laryngoscopy due to left lateral tilt. - Airway oedema. - Higher incidence of airway trauma.
26
What antacid prophylaxis is given to the obstetric GA patient immediately pre-operatively?
A sodium citrate 0.3M 30ml drink.
27
At what tilt should an obstetrics patient lay supine?
15°-30° left lateral.
28
Why should obstetric GA patients be laid at a tilt?
To reduce aortocaval compression.
29
What four Ts is post-partum haemorrhage categorised into?
Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin