Obstetrics - 1P Flashcards

1
Q

A 26 year old woman complains of abdominal pain
and dizziness. On examination, she is found to be pale
and tachycardic. Her urine pregnancy test is positive and
her hemoglobin is 5. Bedside ultrasound reveals a left
adnexal mass and free fluid. She is taken to the
operating room for a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. While
in the operating room she arrests and unable to be
resuscitated. How would her death be classified?
a. nonmaternal death
b. direct maternal death
c. indirect maternal death
d. pregnancy-related death

A

d. pregnancy-related death

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2
Q

Which of the following is defined as the number of
maternal deaths that result from the reproductive
process per 100,00 live births?
a. maternal mortality ratio
b. direct maternal deathrate
c. maternal mortality rate
d. pregnancy related mortality rate

A

a. maternal mortality ratio

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3
Q

A patient present with severe preeclampsia at 37
weeks, labor was induced and she spontaneously
delivers at 3.2 kgs neonate. In the delivery room she
complains severe headache and suddenly collapses.
She is unable to be resuscitated. At autopsy it revealed
hemorrhage. Based on gestational age, how would her
neonate be classified?
a. early term
b. full term
c. post dates
d. post term

A

a. early term

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4
Q

Which of the following purposes would fetal
chromosomal microarray analysis be potentially
beneficial?
a. screening of a fetus with an advance age mother
b. evaluating a stillborn fetus
c. screening the fetus at 12 weeks’ gestation
whose mother personally carries a balanced
translocation
d. evaluating the fetus with trisomy 21 and a
double- outlet right ventricle

A

*answer in study guide is letter b (evaluating a stillborn fetus)

*ans in FB:
c. screening the fetus at 12 weeks’ gestation
whose mother personally carries a balanced
translocation

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5
Q

Which of the following best describe the primary role
of the ob-gyne hospitalist?
a. care for hospitalized patient who have no
primary doctor
b. care for hospitalized obstetrical patients and
help manage their emergencies
c. assists other obstetricians in procedures
d. be a back-up physicians taking calls from
home

A

b. care for hospitalized obstetrical patients and

help manage their emergencies

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6
Q

Which of the following is the single most way to
reduce maternal death according to joint WHO, UNFPA
and UNICEF?
a. skilled attendant
b. complete facility based
c. good referral system
d. transportation

A

a. skilled attendant

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7
Q

A 16-year old G1 delivers an infant with complex
congenital heart defect. The death of the newborn at 5
days of life due to the congenital heart defect. Regarding
this patient, the patient makes family planning decisions
in the post-partum period. Which of the following will
cause her to be most affected by government
interference with women’s reproductive rights?
a. ethnicity
b. pregnancy within the last year
c. age
d. prior child with congenital anomaly

A

c. age

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8
Q

G4P3 3003 at 25 weeks presents at the ER because
of severe abdominal pain, on examination the patient is
hypotensive and there were severe uterine contractions.
The patient has 3 previous caesarian section, she
underwent explore lap and upon opening up there was
complete rupture of the uterus. So fetus was delivered
with no heart beat weighing 692 grams, patient later on
develop DIC because of severe blood loss and
subsequently expired. How will you classify her death
now?
a. direct maternal death
b. perinatal death
c. indirect maternal death
d. nonmaternal death

A

a. direct maternal death

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9
Q

Which of the following cases is categorized as
nonmaternal death?
a. death from cardiac failure secondary to
thyroid storm in pregnancy
b. death due to congestive heart failure
secondary to rheumatic heart disease
c. death due to complications of breast cancer
associated with pregnancy
d. death from cerebrovascular accidents
secondary to preeclampsia severe

A

c. death due to complications of breast cancer

associated with pregnancy

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10
Q
Deficiency of which of the following nutrients will lead 
to miscarriage?
a. folate
b. iodine
c. iron
d. calcium
A

b. iodine

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11
Q

A primigravid who is 38 weeks was is in labor for 12
hours, on the 12th hour OB resident decided emergency
caesarian section for dysfunctional labor, during you IE
(internal examination) you noted the patient diagonal
conjugate is 11.5, the ischial spine was not palpable, the
bituberous diameter is 8 cm, the head is stationed 0, the
posterior fontanel is located posteriorly. What was the
most probable cause of dysfunctional labor?
a. inadequate inlet
b. inadequate midpelvis
c. inadequate pelvic outlet
d. posterior occiput posterior of the fetal head

A

d. posterior occiput posterior of the fetal head

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12
Q

Which pelvic type has a sacral angle of <90 degree?

a. android
b. gynecoid
c. anthropoid
d. platepelloid

A

a. android

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13
Q

A 33-year old nulligravid undergoing labor witout
anesthesia arrest at station +2, you decided to perform
outlet forcep delivery with the pudendal nerve block.
What is the landmark you use to perform the nerve
block?
a. sacrospinous ligament
b. sacrotuberous ligament
c. ischial spine
d. all of the above

A

c. ischial spine

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14
Q

Which of the following statement regarding borders
of ischiorectal fossae is incorrect:
a. posterior border: maximus gluteus muscle
and tuberous ligament
b. anterior border: inferior border of the posterior
triangle
c. lateral border: obturator internus muscle
fascia and ischial tuberosity
d. medial border: anal sphincter complex

A

b. anterior border: inferior border of the posterior

triangle

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15
Q

Which of the following does not characterize the
obstetric conjugate?
a. cannot be measured directly
b. normally measures 11 cm or more
c. shortest distance from the sacral promontory
and the symphysis pubis
d. less clinical importance of the pelvic inle

A

b. normally measures 11 cm or more

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16
Q

A 22-year old primigravid presents in active labor at
5 cm and station -2, 2 hours later she is 8 cm dilated and
the fetal head is noted at station 0, which of the following
is true?
a. fetus is too big
b. the top of the fetal head is noted at the level
of the midpelvic interspinous diameter
c. internal rotation of the fetal head to traverse
should be occurring
d. the biparietal has reached the level of the
pelvic inlet

A

b. the top of the fetal head is noted at the level

of the midpelvic interspinous diameter

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17
Q

The ability of which joint aids in the delivery of
obstructed shoulder in the case of shoulder dystocia?
a. pubic symphysis
b. sacroiliac joint
c. sacrococcygeal joint
d. all of the above

A

b. sacroiliac joint

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18
Q

The fetal head presents at station +5 in a transverse

diameter. What is the most likely pelvic shape?

A

d. Gynecoid (adequate pelvis)

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19
Q

Which of the ffg planes is bounded by the 2nd to the
3rd verterbra posteriorly, ischial bones laterally, and the
middle surface of the symphysis pubis anteriorly?

A

c. the plane of the greatest pelvic diameter

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20
Q

Which of the ffg types of pelvis has a none prominent
ischial spine, but with short and curved pubic arch, very
wide subpubic angle, and a wide bituberous diameter

A

c. Platypelloid pelvis

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21
Q
Oogonia found in the female fetuses found before 
birth
a. they degenerate
b. they become primary follicles
c. they become Graafian follicles
d. they multiply
A

a. they degenerate

*At 6 to 8 wks of intrauterine life, the ovary starts to
develop and at 20 wks, about 6 to 7 million germ cells
can be found. But from this time on, there will only be
continuous atresia until some time later, when the store
of germ cells becomes fully exhausted. The egg
depletion process of atresia starts at 15 wks so that at
birth, what remains is only 80% of that number and at
puberty the germ cell mass is only 300,000

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22
Q

An 18 yr-old female was diagnosed to have brain
tumor located at the neural stalk interrupting the vessels.
Which of the following will most likely result?
a. Inactivity and atrophy of the gonads
b. Hyperadrenalism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Decreased oxytocin production

A

a. Inactivity and atrophy of the gonads

*The control of the pituitary with the hypothalamus is
achieved by materials secreted in the cells of
hypothalamus and transported to the pituitary via the
portal vessel system. Experiments have been done
transplanting the pituitary to ectopic sites like under the
kidneys and it resulted to the failure of gonadal function.

On the other hand, returning the transplanted tissue to
an anatomic site under the median eminence is followed
by the generation of the portal system and normal
gonadal function is regained.

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23
Q

Assume that a woman could be an on-demand
ovulator like the rabbit in which copulation stimulates the
hypothalamic anterior pituitary axis and causes LH
release. An oocyte is ovulated and fertilized on day 26 of
her 28-day cycle. Which of the following is most likely to
happen?
a. Cell division of the fertilized ovum will be
delayed
b. Transit time of the fallopian tube to the ovum will
be longer
c. No implantation will occur
d. Implantation will be delayed

A

c. No implantation will occur

*On the 26th day of a 28-day cycle, the endometrium will
already be starting to respond with the diminishing
progesterone levels with a modest shrinking of the tissue
heights and the spiral arteriole vasomotor responses.
With shrinkage of the height and decrease in the blood
flow, venous dilatation occurs. Therefore the spiral
arterioles undergo arrhythmic vasoconstriction leading to
endometrial blanching. So even if it is not yet sloughed
off, the endometrium is not receptive anymore to a
fertilized ovum, so no implantation will occur.

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24
Q

If making available an ovum during ovulation is the
primary task of the ovarian cycle, what is the primary
task of the endometrial cycle?
a. Periodic sloughing of the stratum functionalis
b. Prompt individual recovery after the slough
c. Maximal secretory changes in preparation for
the (inaudible)
d. Vasoconstriction of the end arterioles

A

(not answered)

*c. Maximal secretory changes in preparation for
the (inaudible)?

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25
After ovulation, a new ovarian structure emerges – the corpus luteum. Which of the following is true? a. Continuous administration of small amounts of FSH is essential to maintain the viability of the corpus luteum b. The hallmark of the corpus luteum is its secretion of progesterone and estradiol c. The secretory capability of the corpus luteum wanes during menstruation d. Rapidly rising concentrations of the placental lactogen rescues the corpus luteum from degeneration (what will rescue the corpus luteum is the early trophoblast secretion of hCG)
The hallmark of the corpus luteum is its | secretion of progesterone and estradiol
26
Endometrial biopsy was done on a woman on day 13 on her regular 28-day cycle. Which of the ffg will most likely be found?
a. Presence of subnuclear vacuoles (first sign of | secretory changes)
27
Which of the ffg conditions will be common to intrauterine pregnancy, viable ectopic pregnancy and persistent corpus luteum cyst a. Continuous increase progesterone levels b. Continuous increase levels of estrogen c. Apoptosis of functional layer of the endometrium d. Decidua formation (common in intrauterine pregnancy and viable ectopic pregnancy)
a. Continuous increase progesterone levels
28
The intracellular morula would now have developed a blastocyst. Which of the ffg structure of the blastocyst will ultimately form the physical connection b/n the embryo and the uterus? a. Inner cell mass (forerunner of the embryo) b. Blastocyst cavity c. Trophoblast (gives rise to the placenta) d. Stromal cells of the deciduas
c. Trophoblast (gives rise to the placenta)
29
Which of the ffg is true regarding implantation? a. Starts right away once a developing morula reaches the uterine cavity b. Precipitated by the degradation of the extracellular matrix of the endometrium c. Supported by the estrogen secretion of the endometrium d. Heralded by the intrusion of the cytotrophoblast b/n endometrial cell layers
b. Precipitated by the degradation of the | extracellular matrix of the endometrium
30
Excessive invasion of the cytotrophoblast can cause which of the ffg complications of pregnancy? a. Preeclampsia (defective invasion of the spiral arteries by the cytotrophoblast) b. Preterm labor c. IUGR d. Placenta accreta
d. Placenta accreta
31
``` The primitive uteroplacenta circulation is formed by sipping into the? a. Chorionic plate b. Lacunar system c. Embryonic hypoblast ```
b. Lacunar system
32
With the establishment of the inter/intravillous circulation, fetal and maternal blood come in close contact but are always separated by which of the ffg: a. Amniotic cavity b. Maternal endothelial cells c. Syncytiotrophoblast covering the villi d. Decidua
c. Syncytiotrophoblast covering the villi
33
At the 3rd week of development, embryonic vessels will start to develop at the chorionic villi which will later connect with the forerunner of the a. Umbilicus b. Maternal sinusoids c. Amniotic cavity d. Tertiary villi
a. Umbilicus
34
What happens with the uteroplacental circulation during uterine contractions a. Diastolic blood flow velocity in the spiral arteries are increased (must be decreased) b. Inflow but not outflow are curtailed (both are curtailed) c. A somewhat larger volume of blood are available for exchange
c. A somewhat larger volume of blood are | available for exchange
35
Since the BP in normal pregnancy is unchanged or decreases slightly, which of the following mechanisms will ensure adequate blood supply of the fetus?
Circumferential structural enlargement of the | entire uterine vasculature
36
Is it important that mechanisms of trophoblastic invasion, important in which steps for normal implantation?
Uterine artery remodeling
37
It is also important that the trophoblastic invasion is controlled because unchecked invasion of the trophoblast can result in which of the following disease conditions?
Choriocarcinoma
38
Which of the following is the feature of term | placenta?
The term placenta contains villi mainly | consisting of fetal capillaries
39
Acceptance and the survival of the conceptus in the | uterus is attributable to which of the following?
Immunologic preclarity of trophoblast and later | the embryo
40
Prevention of smooth muscle contraction and maintenance of uterine ...so that premature labor doesn’t occur is the function of which hormone
Progesterone
41
Which of the following statement regarding hcg is | true ?
hCG stimulates the production of progesterone | by the corpus luteum in early pregnancy
42
Which of the following hormones is most responsible for the provision for the enough nutrition for the developing fetus and which is the highest level of term amongst placental hormones
Human placental lactogen
43
Which of the following substances is transported of | placenta mainly by active transport?
Free fatty acids Glucose, amino acids are transported are transported via facilitated diffusion
44
Placental estrogen synthesis is markedly decreased | in which of the following conditions?
Placenta Previa
45
What is the source of precursor of progesterone
Synctiotrophoblast
46
Umbilical artery becomes which of the following?
Medial umbilical ligament
47
Which of the statements describes the determination | of gestational age?
Average menstrual age is 280 days
48
``` The outer layer of blastocyst gives rise to what structure? a. Placenta b. Embryo c. Extraembryonic tissues d. Neural tube ```
a. Placenta
49
Which statement is not part of embryonic period? a. Start at the third week after fertilization b. Lasts for 12 weeks c. Organogenesis takes place d. Start at the 3rd week after ovulation
b. Lasts for 12 weeks
50
In early human embryogenesis, neurolation starts at | what stage of gestation?
c. Stage 6-7
51
``` At what age of gestation when the uterus can be palpated just above the symphisis pubis? a. 12 week b. 14 weeks c. 16 weeks d. 18 weeks ```
a. 12 week
52
``` At what age of gestation is the gender can be identified by an experienced sonologist? a. 12 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 16 weeks d. 18 weeks ```
b. 14 weeks
53
It is during this stage of gestation when the fetal lung | development is almost complete?
d. 24 weeks
54
This description is not part of a 36 weeks fetus? a. Average CRL is 28 weeks b. Weight approximately 2,500 grams c. Deposition of subcutaneous fats d. Loss of facial wrinkling
d. Loss of facial wrinkling
55
20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020. What is the approximate EDC of this patient?
a. March 11, 2021
56
20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020. Same patient as above, what is the approximate menstrual age?
b. 16-17 weeks
57
20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020. Same patient as above, she is on what trimester of pregnancy?
b. Second trimester
58
20-year old consulted due to amenorrhea, she claims to have last menstrual cycle on June 4 to 8, 2020. Same patient as above, if she delivers at term, which of the shunts functionally close within minutes after delivery? a. Ductus arteriosus b. Foramen ovale c. Ductus venosus d. NOTA
b. Foramen ovale
59
``` What is the average fetal blood volume if she delivers at term? (ml/kg) a. 70 ml b. 80 ml c. 90 ml d. 100 ml ```
b. 80 ml
60
``` From birth to ovulation, oocytes are suspended from which phase of meiosis I? a. Early prophase b. Mid-prophase c. Late prophase d. Mid-metaphase ```
b. Mid-prophase
61
Which event does not occur in autosomal trisomy? a. Non-disjunction b. One gamete receives two copies of the affected chromosomes causing trisomy c. Aneuploidy is higher in sperm cells d. One gamete does not receive the affected chromosome and may produce monosomy
c. Aneuploidy is higher in sperm cells
62
This factor is not seen in down syndrome? a. Females are fertile b. Males are sterile c. Clenched fist and overlapping digits d. Endocardial cushion defect
c. Clenched fist and overlapping digits
63
Which of the following describes trisomy 18?
3-4 folds more common in females
64
Which of the following genetic disorder needs growth | hormone therapy
Turner syndrome
65
In Klinefelter’s syndrome,the karyotype is
47, XXY
66
Which is not a characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome?
There is normal virilization
67
Which of the following is the common micro deletion | syndrome
Di George syndrome
68
This type of heterogeneity describes disease states | can arise from different mutation in same gene
Phenotypic heterogeneity
69
Which of the following is autosomal recessive | inheritance
Sickle cell anemia
70
Pregnant patients that are followed up for possible birth defects is an example of which of the following clinical questions?
Prognosis
71
Detemining the outcome of patient exposed to | ionizing radiation is an example of
Harm
72
Research about harm can be studied by
Observational studies
73
29 year old primigravid who regularly goes to clinic for prenatal check up .She was diagnosed with GDM diet controlled at 24 weeks age of gestation. She is now 37 weeks. The clinical estimated fatal weight is 3200gram.She complains of irregular contractions. Cervix is closed at unaffected with soft consistency. At an age of gestation 37 weeks, GDM diet controlled and with irregular contractions, the obstetrician would have to make a decision as when to deliver the baby in the safest possible manner. This is a question on which of the following
Therapy
74
In which of the study all other factor that might influence the study outcome equalizes by the nature of study design.
Randomized control trial
75
A change in the course of an existing disease would | babe classified as a
Outcome
76
Which term used in epidemiology refers to the probability of correctly identifying a non diseased person with a screening test?
Specificity
77
What is the primary purpose of meta-analysis
Improve precision
78
Which of the following question appraises validity
Were allocations concealed?
79
Clinical practice guidelines are made from
Systematic review
80
Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a) Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b) Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c) Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d) Compute the sensitivity rate
11/(11+21) =11/32 = 34% (a/a+c)
81
Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a) Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b) Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c) Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d) Specificity?
124/ 124+5 = 96% (d/b+d)
82
Diseases present, Test positive: 11 (a) Diseases absent, Test positive: 5 (b) Diseases present, Test negative: 21 (c) Diseases absent, Test negative: 124 (d) Positive predictive value?
68.7% (a /a+b)
83
In categorising level of evidence what is a Controlled | trial without randomisation
Level 2A
84
Which of the following provides a convenient method | for estimating disease probability?
Likelihood ratio
85
True about the uterus during pregnancy
Uterine enlargement causes stretching and | marked hypertrophy of muscle cells
86
Cervix during pregnancy softens and gain blush tone | which results from
Increase vascularity and edema
87
During pregnancy the vaginal ph varies from 3.5 to 6from increase production of lactic acid by lactobacilli during metabolism of glycogen in the vagina increase risk for
Vulvo vaginal candidiasis
88
Average weight during pregnancy is approximately | 12.5kgs attributed mostly to
Uterus and its contents
89
True about hypervolemia during pregnancy
Safeguards mother from parturition related blood | loss
90
Normal pregnancy induces characteristic changes in | ECG
Slight left axis deviation
91
True about cardiac output during pregnancy
When measured in lateral recumbent position at rest it increases significantly starting early pregnancy peak until 24 week AOG
92
True about pulmonary volume in pregnancy
Tidal volume increases
93
During pregnancy ureteral dilatation as result of uterus completely out of pelvis, which of the following describes it properly?
Unequal dilation is due to cushioning of sigmoid | colon
94
28 year old G1P0 pregnant for 30 weeks came to ER due to abdominal pain fever and vomiting. Abdominal exam the abdomen is globularly enlarged… pain at right upper quadrant. What is the possibility of appendicitis?
The appendicitis is possibility since the appendix | is usually displaced upwards