Obstetrics - 1M Flashcards by Arianne DG

Which of the following statements on the
pharmacokinetic properties of drugs used in
pregnancy is/are correct?
A. Fat-soluble drugs are distributed more
widely and tend to linger in the body
because they are slowly released from the
storage sites.
B. The absorption of an intramuscularly
administered drug is highly effective.
C. Since the placenta is a semi-permeable
membrane and a site of metabolism, all drugs
that pass through the placenta will be nontoxic to the fetus.
D. All of the above

A. Fat-soluble drugs are distributed more
widely and tend to linger in the body
because they are slowly released from the
storage sites

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To be considered a teratogen, a candidate substance
or process should:
A. Result in a characteristic set of
malformation, including a selectivity for
certain target organs
B. Exert its effects at any stage of fetal
development
C. Show a dose-independent incidence
D. All of the above

A. Result in a characteristic set of
malformation, including a selectivity for
certain target organs

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Fetal anoxia secondary to the use of
vasoconstrictors like prostaglandin and ergot is an
example of which teratogenic mechanism?
A. Direct drug actions on the process of
differentiation
B. Deficiency of a critical substance
C. Indirect effects on fetal tissue
D. Continued exposure to a teratogen may
produce cumulative effects or may affect
several organs going through varying stages
of development

C. Indirect effects on fetal tissue

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The most crucial period of organogenesis and
therefore the time of greatest theoretical risk for
congenital malformations is
A. Pre-embryonic phase
B. Embryonic phase
C. Fetal phase

B. Embryonic phase

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Thalidomide may affect the development of arms
and legs after only a brief exposure during
A. 3rd-8th weeks of gestation
B. 3rd-7th weeks of gestation
C. 4th-8th weeks of gestation
D. 4th-7th weeks of gestation

D. 4th-7th weeks of gestation

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The principle of rational prescribing in pregnancy
will include the following:
A. Drugs that have teratogenic effects in animal
studies always present with risk of
malformation in humans when given in
clinical doses
B. Drugs that have been proven effective
should be continued and experimenting
new drugs should be avoided
C. Since pregnant women are orphan patients, it
is safe to assume that absence of data in
clinical studies means no teratogenic risk to
the fetus
D. All of the above

B. Drugs that have been proven effective
should be continued and experimenting
new drugs should be avoided

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The following statements on physiologic and
relative pharmacokinetic changes of pregnancy is/are
true:
A. Because of the 50% increase in blood
volume and body water, drug dosage
should be increased in women taking
water-soluble drugs
B. Drug dosage should be increased in drugs
that are highly protein-bound since more free
drug is available for therapeutic effects on
mother and for placental transfer to the fetus
C. The dose of amoxicillin for a pregnant patient
with a UTI should be doubled because
amoxicillin is excreted unchanged in urine
D. All of the above

A. Because of the 50% increase in blood
volume and body water, drug dosage
should be increased in women taking
water-soluble drugs

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Choose the best anticoagulant for a 32-year-old
primigravid on her 18th week AOG with lower limb
deep vein thrombosis
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Aspirin
D. Streptokinase

A. Heparin

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A 25-year-old G1P0 on her 24th week AOG was
diagnosed to have UTI. Drug of choice for this patient
will include:
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillin
C. Quinolones
D. All of the above

B. Penicillin

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Which of the following is a correct combination of
a drug and its associated congenital anomaly?
A. Warfarin: DiSala Syndrome
B. Phenytoin: Cleft lip palate
C. Valproic acid: Ebstein anomaly
D. ACEI: Microcephaly

A. Warfarin: DiSala Syndrome

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True statements about epilepsy in pregnancy
A. The incidence of congenital malformation
secondary to monotherapy or use of single
drugs in treatment of epilepsy is 0.5-1%
B. The dose of anti-epileptic drugs postpartum
is the same dose given during pregnancy
C. The first line of drug in the treatment of
epilepsy in pregnancy is valproic acid
D. All of the above

A. The incidence of congenital malformation
secondary to monotherapy or use of single
drugs in treatment of epilepsy is 0.5-1%

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Which of the following associations between first
trimester antibiotic exposure and the given birth defect
is true?
A. Aminoglycoside may cause ototoxicity
B. Chloramphenicol may cause ashen-gray skin
coloration
C. Tetracycline may cause deciduous teeth
discoloration
D. Nitrofuratoin may cause cleft lip

Nitrofuratoin may cause cleft lip

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Which of the following herbal remedies is
associated with increased risk of bleeding by
inhibiting COX?
A. Garlic
B. Ginger
C. Ginseng
D. Ginkgo biloba

D. Ginkgo biloba

(Disputed: Ginger is COX inhibitor according to
Williams)

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Which of the following fetal concerns made the
FDA reclassify magnesium sulfate from category A to
category D?
A. Cleft lip & palate
B. Cardiac defects
C. Bone demineralization
D. Facial deformities

C. Bone demineralization

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Which of the following is potential fetal
consequence of nitrofurantoin if given at or near term
A. Staining of deciduous teeth
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Fetal arrhythmia
D. Neural tube defects

B. Hemolytic anemia

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Fern formation of dried cervical mucus is due to
the effect of which hormone?
A. Progesterone
B. Human placental lactogen
C. Estrogen
D. Prolactin

C. Estrogen

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Softening of the uterine is most resulting in its
compressibility on bimanual examination is called?
A. Goodell’s sign
B. ?
C. Hegar’s sign
D. Chadwick’s sign

C. Hegar’s sign

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A 24-year-old came in for vaginal spotting. Her
LMP was Oct. 4, which of the following clinical
findings will be most suggestive of pregnancy?
A. Previous menses every 28-30 days
B. Breast pain
C. Increase vaginal discharge
D. Bluish discoloration of the vagina

A. Previous menses every 28-30 days

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A 28-year-old primigravid came in for her first
prenatal check-up. Her last LMP was Aug. 17, 2020.
She started vomiting 1 week ago. Her ultrasound
findings last Nov. 2 showed a live intrauterine
pregnancy compatible with 7 weeks intrauterine
gestation. What will be her AOG today?
A. 13 weeks
B. 9 weeks
C. 10 weeks
D. 8 weeks

B. 9 weeks

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A 24-year-old consulted for vaginal spotting. Her
LMP was Oct. 12, 2020. Pregnancy test was positive.
Pelvic ultrasound showed a well-formed intrauterine
gestational sac, no fetus seen. Which of the following
is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Abortion
B. Failure of implantation
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. 5 weeks gestation

D. 5 weeks gestation

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A woman who has had 2 full term deliveries, 1
preterm delivery, 1 abortion, and 2 living children
would have this OB score:
A. G4P3 (2112)
B. G4P2 (2112)
C. G3P3 (2112)
D. G3P2 (2112

A. G4P3 (2112)

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Which of the following vaccines is recommended 
during pregnancy?
A. DPT
B. HPV
C. Hep B
D. MMR

A. DPT

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A 38-year-old G6P5 had her prenatal check-up on
her 28th week of gestation showed a fundic height of
24 cm. What are the possibilities?
A. Normal pregnancy
B. Intrauterine growth restriction
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Genetic disorder

B. Intrauterine growth restriction

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What information aside from gestational age is
considered especially important during prenatal visits?
A. Maternal heart rate
B. Accurate maternal BP
C. Activity
D. Occupation

B. Accurate maternal BP

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Measurement of this predictive of gestational age within 4-7 days accuracy by transvaginal ultrasound A. Gestational sac B. Biparietal diameter of the fetal head C. Crown rump length D. Femur length

C. Crown rump length

A 28-year-old G2P1 (1001) came in for prenatal check up due to missed menstruation. Pregnancy test was done with a positive result however, the patient was unsure of her LMP since she has an irregular cycle. On internal examination, the cervix is closed and soft, the uterus is noted to be globular with an average diameter of 8 cm all around. Based on the examination, what is the possible age of gestation? A. 8 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 16 weeks

C. 12 weeks

``` Changes of the uterine size, shape, and consistency are: A. Presumptive signs of pregnancy B. Presumptive symptoms of pregnancy C. Probable evidences of pregnancy D. Positive signs of pregnancy ```

C. Probable evidences of pregnancy

A 25-year-old primigravid came in for prenatal check-up. She cannot recall her LMP. On IE, the cervix is closed, uterine fundus is felt between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis, no palpable adnexal mass. What is the possible AOG? A. 10 weeks B. 12 weeks C. 16 weeks D. 18 weeks

C. 16 weeks

``` Estrogen stimulates which of the following? A. Montgomery tubercle B. Vascular system of the breast C. Alveolar component D. Mammary duct system ```

D. Mammary duct system

A 29-year-old G1P0 was diagnosed having RHD prior to pregnancy. She wants to know if her child will inherit the disease. She wants a real time sonography. At what AOG will fetal heart motion and movement will be demonstrated by real time sonography? A. 6 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 12 weeks D. 16 weeks

B. 8 weeks

Which of the following endocrine disorders is more associated with low birth weight infants upon delivery? A. Diabetes mellitus B. Hyperthyroidism C. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

``` 15% of fetal death is caused by which of the following? A. Asphyxia B. Congenital malformation C. Infections D. Maternal complications ```

B. Congenital malformation

Pre-conceptional folic acid supplementation can reduce the risk of having a child with neural tube defect by what percentage? A. 72% B. 26% C. 90% D. 11%

A. 72%

Which of the following endocrine disorders is more associated with low birth weight infants upon delivery? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hyperparathyroidism C. DM D. Hypothyroidism

A. Hyperthyroidism

``` 15% of fetal death is caused by which of the following? A. Congenital Malformations B. Maternal complications C. Asphyxia D. Infections ```

A. Congenital Malformations

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of preconceptional care as defined by CDC? A. set of interventions that aim to identify and modify biomedical behavioral, and social risks to a womans health or pregnancy outcome through prevention and management B. Assure chilbearing age women that with appropriate interventions they can enter pregnancy in optimal health. C. Implement strategies that mitigate potential pregnancy risks before conception D. Reduce risks of adverse pregnancy outcomes through preconceptional interventions.

A. set of interventions that aim to identify and modify biomedical behavioral, and social risks to a womans health or pregnancy outcome through prevention and management

``` When is the best opportunity to provide preconceptional counseling? A. during a periodic health maintenance examination B. During the 6 week postpartum period. C. During a hospitalization for an acute illness D. At times an adverse pregnancy outcome is diagnosed. ```

A. during a periodic health maintenance | examination

A 27 year old patient presents to her neurologist to discuss discontinuing her Levetiracetam prior to attending pregnancy. Which of the following characteristics make her candidate for discontinuation? A. she has tonic clonic seizures B. She has been seizure free for 18 months C. She has not required an EEG in 18 months D. She is compliant with her medications

A. she has tonic clonic seizures

A 27 year old patient presents to her neurologist to discuss discontinuing her Levetiracetam prior to attending pregnancy. Which supplement should the patient initiate prior to attempting pregnancy? A. Folate 4mg B. Folate 1mg C. Niacin D. Iron

A. Folate 4mg

``` Worldwide, what are the most common single gene disorders? A. Hemoglobinopathies B. Cystic fibrosis C. Tay Sachs Disease D. Fragile X Syndrome ```

A. Hemoglobinopathies

``` Which is the best way to identify a genetic abnormality in still born fetus? A. Chromosomal microarray analysis B. Karyotype C. Maternal cell DNA testing D. All of the above ```

A. Chromosomal microarray analysis

Which of the following obstetrical complications is increased in adolescent pregnancies compared with women aged 20-35? A. Anemia B. Aneuploidy C. PPH D. C delivery

A. Anemia

``` Which fetal tissues are most susceptible to damage by high phenylalanine levels? A. Cardiac and neural B. Renal and cardiac C. Neural and hepatic D. Renal and hepatic ```

A. Cardiac and neural

``` Birth defects are responsible for what percent of infant mortality? A. 20% B. 10% C. 22% D. 12% ```

A. 20%

Which of the following are important aspects of reproductive history that aid in preconceptional counselling? A. History of preterm delivery B. Prenatal screening results from prior pregnancy C. Length of prior labor D. Prior child's birth weight

A. History of preterm delivery

``` Which is not a part of the goal of prenatal diagnosis? A. prevent pregnancy termination B. Optimal delivery C. Provide fetal surveillance D. After fetal treatment ```

A. prevent pregnancy termination

``` These women are excluded from prompt invasive diagnostic procedures? A. women less than 20 years of age B. History of triploidy C. Parenteral aneuploidy D. Women or their partner who have chromosomal translocation ```

A. women less than 20 years of age

``` Damage from amniotic band causing limb reduction abnormalities results from what etiology of the birth defect? A. Disruption B. Association C. Deformation D. Syndrome ```

A. Disruption

``` Fetal down's syndrome is characterized with which of the following markers? A. 1st trimester low β HCG B. Both β HCG and pregnancy associated plasma protein A are low C. High PAPP-A D. Increased nuchal translucency on ultrasound ```

D. Increased nuchal translucency on | ultrasound

``` Which is not a part of second trimester aneuploidy screening? A. β HCG B. Maternal serum AFP C. PAPP-A D. Estriol ```

C. PAPP-A

Which of the statement is true? A. Cell-free DNA screening does not always provide results B. Diagnostic testing evaluate which patient is at risk C. Screening provides information which diagnostic testing does not D. Irreversible balance should be based on screening test

A. Cell-free DNA screening does not always | provide results

Cell-free DNA screening can be done with women who are A. 40 years old B. 1st and 2nd trimester based test is negative C. Previous pregnancy is low risk D. Had no evidence of balance translocation in both partners

A. 40 years old

``` Which of the following is common cause of fetal anemia A. Red cell production disorder B. Red cell enzymopathy C. Red cell alloimmunization D. Red cell structural abnormality ```

C. Red cell alloimmunization

``` Pregnancy loss secondary to fetomaternal hemorrhage with red alloimmunization A. Ectopic pregnancy B. Chorionic villus sampling C. Evacuation of molar pregnancy D. Placental abruption ```

A. Ectopic pregnancy

Which of the following characterizes fetal transfusion? A. Performed 36-37 weeks prior to delivery B. Umbilical artery is used via ultrasound guided procedures C. Peritoneal transfusion can be performed D. Gestational age does not influence management

C. Peritoneal transfusion can be performed

Maintenance of phase 0 of parturition is apparently dependent on which substances? A. Estrogen and progesterone in concert with each other B. Prostaglandin C. Beta HCG and relaxin D. Corticotropin releasing hormone

D. Corticotropin releasing hormone A. Estrogen and progesterone in concert with each other ?

``` The criteria for the diagnosis of labor include which of the following? A. Uterine contraction of at least one in ten minutes B. Documented progressive changes in cervical dilatation and effacement C. Cervical efficient to 20-30 % D. Engagement ```

B. Documented progressive changes in | cervical dilatation and effacement

A 30 year old g2p1 was admitted for labour pain which started 6 hours prior to admission internal examination revel the cervix to be 8 cm dilated, fully effaced with head at 1 cm below the ischial spine at what phase of labour is she in? A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 3 D. Phase 4

C. Phase 3

30 year old g2p1 was admitted for labour pain which started 6 hours prior to admission internal examination revel the cervix to be fully dilated, fully effaced, after another 1 hour of good labor with head at +2 at what phase of labour is she in? A. 1st stage latent phase B. 1st stage active phase C. 2nd stage of labour D. 3rd stage of labou

C. 2nd stage of labour

A 28 year old primy gravid on her 38 th week of gestation consulted for hypogastric cramps Occurring every 10 - 25 mins the cervix was 1 cm dilated, intact bag of water fetal head at station -2 what phase of labour is patient in ? A. Latent phase B. Acceleration phase C. Phase of maximum slope D. Deceleration phase

A. Latent phase

``` Which of the following phases of labour is most affected by analgesia/anasthesia ? A. Latent phase B. Phase of maximum slope C. Acceleration phase D. Deceleration phase ```

A. Latent phase

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and marfan syndrome causes which of the following problems during pregnancy? A. Dystocia B. Preterm labour C. Fetal death in utero D. Placenta previa

B. Preterm labour

``` Friedman's Curve is essentially a function of which of the following over time? A. Cervical effacement B. Uterine contraction C. Cervical dilatation D. Decent ```

C. Cervical dilatation

A 24 y/o G1P0 was admitted at 38 weeks for hypogastric cramps since 4 hours prior to admission on PE the cervix is soft 3 cm dilated 70% effaced ,intact bag of water head unengaged which of the above finding is cause for concern ? A. 3 cm dilated B. Intact bag of water C. Cervix 70% effaced D. Head unengaged

D. Head unengaged

``` Collagen breakdown increase in hyaluronic acid explains which change in cervix? A. Lightning B. Ripning C. Dilatation D. Position of cervix ```

B. Ripning

What causes placental separation during the 3rd stage of labor? A. Hematoma Formation between the placenta and the remaining decidua B. Decrease in the area of placental implantation site C. Traction of the cord with the delivery of the baby D. All of the above

B. Decrease in the area of placental | implantation site

Maintenance of the phase 0 of parturition is apparently dependent on which substances? A. Estrogen and progesterone in concert with each other B. Corticotropin-releasing hormone C. HCG and Relaxin D. Prostaglandins

B. Corticotropin-releasing hormone

During phases 1 and 2 of parturition uterine quiescence true inhibition of smooth muscle response to oxytocin. Which of the following is the primary regulator of oxytocin receptor expression? A. Calcium B. Progesterone C. Prostaglandin Dehydrogenase D. Corticotropin-releasing hormone

B. Progesterone

``` Which phase of parturition corresponds to the clinical stages of labor A. Phase 1 B. Phase 2 C. Phase 3 D. Phase 4 ```

C. Phase 3

``` Which of the following agents is t rise to initiate phase 3 of parturition: A. Progesterone B. Prostaglandin C. Corticotropin-releasing hormone D. Relaxin ```

B. Prostaglandin

What is the first sign of early pregnancy on ultrasound that can be seen as early as 5 weeks A. Yolk Sac B. Gestational Sac C. CRL D. Fetal Pole

B. Gestational Sac

In the absence of TVS for early pregnancy determination the gestational sac is reliably seen using a trans ab sonography A. 5 weeks B. 9 weeks C. 8 weeks D. 6 weeks

D. 6 weeks

``` What is a sonographic measurement of the gestational sac called A. Mean Sac Diameter B. CRL C. Fetal pole D. Yolk sac ```

A. Mean Sac Diameter

``` What is the first anatomical structure identified within the gestational sac A. Fetal pole B. GS C. Yolk Sac D. CRL ```

C. Yolk Sac

What is the most accurate of gestational age in early pregnancy because there is little variability at that time. A. CRL B. Fetal pole C. Yolk sac D. MSD

A. CRL

``` Picture UTZ What is the useful feature of an early pregnancy ultrasound to confirm an early intrauterine pregnancy when the embryo is not yet visualized A. Double bleb sign B. Gestational sac C. Double decidual sign D. Intradecidual sign ```

C. Double decidual sign

Which of the following do you need to measure at 11-13 weeks and now considered as part of the antenatal screening EXCEPT? A. Nasal Bone B. Cardiac Rate C. Nuchal Translucency D. Double velocimetry flow

B. Cardiac Rate

``` On the TVS the placenta can be seen as early as how many weeks A. 8 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 9 weeks D. 11 weeks ```

A. 8 weeks

The correct plane for the measurement of the head circumference and biparietal diameter must include the following EXCEPT A. Cavum Septum Pellucidum B. Thalamus C. Choroid Plexus D. Cisterna Magna

D. Cisterna Magna

``` What does abdominal circumference reflect A. Fetal growth B. Fetal size C. Fetal girth D. Fetal abdomen ```

B. Fetal size

``` The following conditions are associated with polyhydramnios except for A. Maternal DM B. GI and CNS anomalies C. Fetal skeletal dysplasia D. IUGR ```

D. IUGR

``` The following are considered part of the fetal survey except for A. Fetal spine B. Fetal kidney C. Fetal pancreas D. Fetal gender ```

C. Fetal pancreas

A 41 year old G3P2 2002 known hypertensive with no prior ultrasound with complaint of on and off hypogastric pain. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg, fundic height of 35 cm, fetal heart tone 143 bpm, IE cervix close. What is your choice of ultrasound? A. Transabdominal sonography B. Congenital anomaly scan C. Biophysical profile D. All of the above

C. Biophysical profile

A 41 year old G3P2 2002 known hypertensive with no prior ultrasound with complaint of on and off hypogastric pain. Ultrasound showed that ff: biparietal diameter: 34 weeks, head circumference: 34 weeks, abdominal circumference 33 weeks, femur length of 34 weeks, amniotic fluid 6 cm 4 quadrants, placental grade 3 anterior, distal femoral epiphysial .48 cm. What will you advice the patient except? A. Admit B. Doppler velocimetry C. Steroid injection D. IV hydration

C. Steroid injection

Ultrasound findings: anechoic center surrounded by 2 concentric echogenic rings surrounding the gestational sac, what is your most likely consideration? A. Intrauterine pregnancy B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Miscarriage D. Anembryonic pregnancy

A. Intrauterine pregnancy

A 34 year old G2P1 1001 pregnancy at 34 weeks came in for the non-stress test. Baseline fetal heart tone: 130-140, moderate variability, with accelerations, no decelerations. A. Reactive tracing B. Non-reactive tracing

A. Reactive tracing

A 24 year old G1P0 pregnant for 36 weeks with gestational diabetes, diet controlled, came in for NST. Baseline fetal heart tone: 130-140, minimal variability, no acceleration A. Reactive tracing B. Non-reactive tracing

B. Non-reactive tracing

Interpret contraction stress test: with accelerations, no decelerations despite a regular uterine contractions A. Positive CST B. Negative CST

B. Negative CST

Interpret the CST: normal fetal heart rate, no acceleration, no deceleration, minimal variability, mild contractions

Unsatisfactory

True about positive CST A. This is a normal test result B. Uniform repetitive late fetal heart rate decelerations following 50% or more of contraction even if the contraction frequency is fewer than 3 in 10 minutes C. Variable (inaudible) could be the result of utero placental insufficiency D. Contractions are not necessary in performing the test

B. Uniform repetitive late fetal heart rate decelerations following 50% or more of contraction even if the contraction frequency is fewer than 3 in 10 minutes

True about reactive NST A. Based on the hypothesis, the heart rate of the fetus that is non-acidemic as a result of fetal hypoxia or neurological depression will temporarily accelerate in response to fetal movement B. Describe fetal heart rate decelerations in response to fetal movement as a sign of fetal health C. Involves the use of doppler detected fetal heart rate deceleration coincident with fetal movement perceived by the mother D. Difficult to perform

A. Based on the hypothesis, the heart rate of the fetus that is non-acidemic as a result of fetal hypoxia or neurological depression will temporarily accelerate in response to fetal movement

``` Factors affecting respiratory movements include A. Hyperglycemia B. Post-term labor C. Sound stimuli D. Amniotic fluid volume ```

C. Sound stimuli

True for antepartum surveillance A. Initiated at 40 weeks B. Indications include maternal condition like cyanotic heart disease, diabetes, chronic renal disease C. Women at risk for still-birth need not undergo fetal surveillance D. (Inaudible) pregnancies difficult to explain and is an added expense to the patient

B. Indications include maternal condition like cyanotic heart disease, diabetes, chronic renal disease

Components of the biophysical profile tests get a score of 2 if: A. Pocket amniotic fluid volume measures atleast 3 cm in 2 planes B. More than two decelerations of more than 15 beats for 15 seconds within 20-40 C. More than 1 episode of extremity extension and subsequent return to flexion D. More than 5 discrete body or limb movements E. More than 1 episode of rhythmic breathing lasting more than 20 seconds within 20 minutes

C. More than 1 episode of extremity | extension and subsequent return to flexion

A 23 year old G1P0 pregnancy uterine 36 weeks and 4 days age of gestation, GDM on diet. Patient came in to your clinic with a BPS of 6/10, how will you manage this patient? A. Amniotic fluid volume is abnormal repeat BPS B. Amniotic fluid volume is normal and cervix is favorable, deliver C. If amniotic fluid volume is abnormal, wait for the patient to go into labor D. No need to do anything because this is just a sign of possible fetal asphyxia

B. Amniotic fluid volume is normal and | cervix is favorable, deliver

A 36 year old G2P0 0010 at 37 weeks of gestation, GDM on insulin. Patient came in to your clinic with a BPS score of 10/10. How will you manage this patient? A. Deliver this patient because BPS score indicate an asphyxiated fetus B. Repeat test within 24 hours C. Repeat test weekly D. No fetal indication for intervention repeat test twice weekly.

D. No fetal indication for intervention repeat | test twice weekly.

True about doppler velocimetry A. Blood flow velocity measured by doppler ultrasound reflects (inaudible) B. Growth restricted fetuses several fetal vascular circuits including umbilical artery, the MCA, ductus venosus, have been evaluated as diagnostic tool for fetal well-being C. Maternal uterine doppler is used to predict placental hyperperfusin D. Can be done as early as 12 weeks

B. Growth restricted fetuses several fetal vascular circuits including umbilical artery, the MCA, ductus venosus, have been evaluated as diagnostic tool for fetal well-being

Which of the following artery wave form is normal

answer A- there should be an | immediate return

True about middle cerebral artery doppler A. Doppler velocimetry of MCA to detect fetal compromise is recommended B. Fetus is hypoxic attempts veins sparring by increased cerebro-vascular impedance C. MCA doppler is proven valuable in detecting fetal anemia D. MCA is normally a low resistant vessel

C. MCA doppler is proven valuable in | detecting fetal anemia

True of ductus venosus A. Doppler ultrasound to asses fetal venous circulation not routinely necessary B. Doppler of the fetal aorta is the best important predictor of peri-natal outcome for growth restricted fetuses at 26-33 weeks C. Negative or reverse flow in the ductus venosus is an early finding for hypoxic fetuses D. Gestational age at delivery is a major determinant of peri-natal outcome independent of ductus venosus flow

D. Gestational age at delivery is a major determinant of peri-natal outcome independent of ductus venosus flow

Obstetrics - 1M Flashcards

(100 cards)