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A&P lecture > Old Test > Flashcards

Old Test Flashcards

1
Q

What does virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through?

A

intracellular second messengers

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2
Q

What are the categories of endocrine gland stimulation?

A

hormonal, humeral, and neural

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3
Q

What are some anterior pituitary hormones?

A

Andrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH), Growth Hormone(GH), Luteinizing hormone (LH), Thyroid Stimulating Hormone(TSH)

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4
Q

what chemical substances are secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body?

A

hormones

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5
Q

What are changes typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

A

activating or deactivating enzymes, altering plasma membrane permeability, inducing secretory activity

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6
Q

The endocrine gland that is probably malfunctioning if a person is experiencing a high metabolic rate

A

Thyroid

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7
Q

Does direct gene activation involve a second-messenger system

A

False

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8
Q

Which hormone is secreted when calcium is high in the blood?

A

Calcitonin

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9
Q

the ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on what?

A

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

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10
Q

what is the function of aldosterone

A

to increase reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys

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11
Q

what is the function of aldosterone

A

to increase reabsorption of sodium in the kidneys

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12
Q

what gland is melatonin secreated from?

A

pineal gland

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13
Q

several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalmus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. what is the mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Hypophyseal portal system

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14
Q

What is the endocrine responsible for?

A

communication between cells and tissues

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15
Q

steroid hormones exert their action by what?

A

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

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16
Q

How does the second messenger mechanism of hormone action operate?

A

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

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17
Q

Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. how is this possible?

A

G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers

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18
Q

what hormone is going to enter the blood to help[ return levels back to normal after you eat a bunch of cookies?

A

insulin

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19
Q

True or false: most type 2 diabetics do not produce insulin

A

true

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20
Q

True or False: Oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) are produced in the posterior pituitary

A

false

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21
Q

one of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. What describes this mechanism?

A

humoral stimulation

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22
Q

mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to what?

A

cortisol

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23
Q

when an adult has hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH), what will happen to this person?

A

Acromegaly, bones thicken and organs enlarge

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24
Q

The posterior pituitary receives hormones from the hypothalmus. These hormones reach the posterior pituitary by way of what?

A

hypothalamo-hypophseal portal system

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25
Q

what is the most important mineralcorticoid regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids?

A

aldosterone

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26
Q

the second messenger system is described in five steps. What is the final step of the cyclic AMP signaling mechanism

A

cAMP activates protein kinase to phosphorylate proteins in the cell

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27
Q

a man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. What would explain his problem?

A

FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes

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28
Q

The adrenal medulla is responsible for secreting which hormones?

A

epinephrine and nonepinephrine

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29
Q

The adrenal medulla is responsible for secreting which hormones?

A

epinephrine and nonepinephrine

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30
Q

what layers of the adrenal cortex is responsible for the secretion of cortisol?

A

zona fasiculata

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31
Q

where is thyrotropin releasing hormone from?

A

the hypothalamus

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32
Q

what would be the result of a tumor on the posterior pituitary which secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

A

diabetes insipidus

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33
Q

what is the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

zone glomerulosa

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34
Q

what is paired glands located in the pelvic cavity on each side of the uterus and secrete estrogen?

A

the ovaries

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35
Q

what is the hormones called the fight or flight hormones because they prepare the body for stressful situations?

A

epinephrine and nonepinephrine

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36
Q

you have been working hard on this exam and your brain has been using a lot of energy. what hormone is going to enter the blood to return glucose levels back to normal?

A

glucagon

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37
Q

what hormone does the pancreas gland secrete

A

glucagon

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38
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid secrete

A

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

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39
Q

what hormone does the pineal gland secrete

A

melatonin

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40
Q

what hormone does the testes secrete

A

testosterone

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41
Q

what hormone does the thyroid secrete

A

calcitonin

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42
Q

what hormone has to deal with diabetes insipidus

A

anti-diuretic hormone

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43
Q

what hormone has to deal with diabetes mellitus

A

insulin

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44
Q

what hormone has to deal with pituitary giantism

A

growth hormone

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45
Q

what hormone has to deal with secondary hypothyroidism

A

thyrotropin releasing hormone

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46
Q

what gland is located in the anterior neck

A

thyroid

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47
Q

what gland is located in the brain

A

hypothalmus

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48
Q

what gland is located on top of the kidneys

A

adrenal gland

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49
Q

what gland is located on the posterior side of the thyroid

A

parathyroid

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50
Q

what gland is located on the posterior side of the stomach

A

pancreas

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51
Q

what is a strong stimulator of uterine contractions

A

oxytocin

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52
Q

what does a hematocrit of 35 mean

A

35% of the blood is red blood cells

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53
Q

what are the distribution functions of blood

A

delivery of oxygen to body cells, transport of hormones to their target organs, transport of metabolic wastes from cells

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54
Q

What can be expected with polycythemia

A

high blood pressure, high hematocrit, increased blood volume

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55
Q

What is the production of red blood cells

A

erythropoiesis

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56
Q

What type of cells are thrombocytes

A

platelets

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57
Q

what is a type of genetic disorder

A

sickle cell anemia

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58
Q

what cell does not have visible cytoplasmic granules

A

monocytes

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59
Q

what are phases of hemostasis

A

coagulation, platelet plug formation, vascular spasm

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60
Q

what is a genetic disorder in which a patient will have excessive bleeding

A

hemophilia

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61
Q

what do hemorrhagic anemias result from

A

blood loss

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62
Q

where is Erythopoietin(EPO), a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production from

A

kidneys

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63
Q

What is a characteristic of all leukocytes

A

they are nucleated

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64
Q

What sticks to the damaged area of a blood vessel and helps to seal the break

A

platelets

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65
Q

Characteristics such as a bi-lobed nucleus and red granules are found in which type of cell

A

eosinophil

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66
Q

what is the white blood cell that contains light pink granules and a 3-5 lobed nucleus called

A

neutrophil

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67
Q

what refers to cancerous conditions involving the white blood cells

A

leukemia

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68
Q

all lymphocytes are ______ but not all _______ are lymphocytes

A

leukocytes

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69
Q

which granulocytes are phagocytic and are the most numerous of all white blood cells

A

neutrophils

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70
Q

What contains no nucleus but a lot of hemoglobin

A

erythrocytes

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71
Q

what are several granulocytes

A

basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil

72
Q

what is the largest white blood cell

A

monocyte

73
Q

your patient has a parasitic worm infection. upon inspection of their blood sample you notice an elevated level of what type of white blood cells

A

eosinophils

74
Q

in the plasma, we have different plasma proteins. What plasma protein is responsible for the formation of blood clots

A

fibrinogen

75
Q

what is the majority of plasma composed of

A

water

76
Q

what are functional characteristics of WBCs

A

ameboid motion, diapedisis, positive chemotasis

77
Q

what is an abnormally low number of leukocytes known as

A

leukopenia

78
Q

what is a protective function of the blood

A

prevention of blood loss

79
Q

what might trigger erythropoiesis

A

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

80
Q

what do blood reticulocytes counts provides information about

A

the rate of erythrocyte formation

81
Q

what plasma protein is the major contributor to osmotic pressure

A

albumin

82
Q

what blood type would it be if there is zero agglutionation

A

type O

83
Q

what blood type would it be if there is a reaction to type A blood but no reaction to type B blood

A

type A

84
Q

what blood type would it be if there is a reaction to both type A and type B

A

type AB

85
Q

what is the largest type of cell with a U or C shaped nucleus

A

monocyte

86
Q

what is the smallest type of cell with no granules

A

lymphocyte

87
Q

what is the red blood cell with granules that also has a slight C or U shape

A

eosinophil

88
Q

what is the cell with granules and three nuclei

A

neutrophil

89
Q

what is the most common white blood cell found in the body

A

neutrophil

90
Q

what cell mounts an immune response via direct cell attack or via antibodies

A

lymphocytes

91
Q

what cell kills parasitic worms

A

eosinophil

92
Q

what cell becomes the macrophage

A

monocyte

93
Q

what cell is the main bacteria killer during acute infections

A

neutrophil

94
Q

know the sequence

A
  1. formation of thromboplastin 2. prothrombin to thrombin 3. fibrinogen to fibrin 4. clot retraction
95
Q

know the sequence

A
  1. formation of thromboplastin 2. prothrombin to thrombin 3. fibrinogen to fibrin 4. clot retraction
96
Q

what is the normal RBC “graveyard”

A

the spleen

97
Q

what is the enzymatic breakdown of the fibrin in blood clots

A

fibrinolysis

98
Q

what is hemoglobin made up of

A

a globular protein and a heme or red pigment

99
Q

when would neutrophils increase in number

A

when there is a bacterial infection present

100
Q

what is the immediate response to blood vessel injury

A

vasoconstriction

101
Q

how many molecules of oxygen can each hemoglobin molecule transport

A

four

102
Q

where are white and red blood cells produced

A

bone marrow

103
Q

what hormone increases blood glucose levels

A

glucagon

104
Q

What prevents back flow into the left vetricle

A

aortic valve

105
Q

what prevents back flow into the right atrium

A

tricuspid valve

106
Q

what prevents back flow into the left atrium

A

mitral valve

107
Q

what prevents back flow into the right ventricle

A

pulmonary valve

108
Q

what is the AV valve with two flaps also known as

A

mitral valve

109
Q

what is the AV valve with three flaps also known as

A

tricuspid valve

110
Q

what is it called when there is an abnormally fast heart rate

A

tachycardia

111
Q

what is it called when there is an abnormally slow heart rate

A

bradycardia

112
Q

what is the difference between resting and maximal cardiac output called

A

cardiac reserve

113
Q

the inner lining of the heart

A

endocardium

114
Q

what is heart muscle called

A

myocardium

115
Q

serous layer covering the heart muscle

A

epicardium

116
Q

the outermost layer of the serous pericardium

A

parietal layer

117
Q

where does the myocardium receive its blood supply

A

the coronary arteries

118
Q

does cardiac or skeletal muscle have more mitochondria and depend less on a continual supply of oxygen

A

cardiac

119
Q

what provides collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle

A

anastomoses among coronary arterial branches

120
Q

what is it called when the pumping efficiency of the heart is depressed so that there is inadequate delivery of blood to body tissues

A

congestive heart failure

121
Q

true or false: the left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right

A

true

122
Q

what does an ECG provide information of

A

the rate and rhythm of the heart beat

123
Q

what causes normal heart sounds

A

closure of the heart valves

124
Q

what occurs when semilunar valves are open

A

ventricles are in systole, AV valves are closed, and blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta

125
Q

why is the left ventricular wall of the heart thicker then the right

A

to pump blood with greater pressure

126
Q

what does the P wave in a normal electrocardiogram indicate

A

atrial depolarization

127
Q

what is pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that can be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries called

A

angina pectoris

128
Q

how does norepinephrine act on the heart?

A

causes the threshold to be reached more quickly

129
Q

what vessels receive blood during ventricular systole

A

aorta and pulmonary trunk

130
Q

when the ventricle is in systole what is the tricuspid valve like

A

it is closed

131
Q

site where resistance to blood flow is greatest

A

arterioles

132
Q

site where exchanges of food and gases are made

A

capillaries

133
Q

site where the blood volume is greatest

A

large veins

134
Q

site where the blood pressure is the greastest

A

large arteries

135
Q

site that is the major determinant of peripheral resistance

A

arterioles

136
Q

results from heart inability to sustain adequate circulation due to myocardial damage

A

cardiogenic shock

137
Q

due to inadequate blood flow to meet tissue needs

A

circulatory shock

138
Q

normal blood volume but poor circulation due to extreme vasodilation

A

vascular shock

139
Q

due to large scale blood loss

A

hypovolemic shock

140
Q

capillary found in endocrine organs that allows hormones to gain rapid entry into the blood

A

fenestrated capillary

141
Q

capillary with intercellular clefts found in the skin and muscles

A

continuous capillary

142
Q

capillary that may contain kupffer cells in the lining

A

sinusoidal capillary

143
Q

capillary found where active capillary absorption of filtrate occurs

A

fenestrated capillary

144
Q

what is the capillary that is most open or “holey”

A

sinusoidal capillary

145
Q

capillary that is the tightest or most condensed

A

continuous capillary

146
Q

capillary that is the middle sized or kinda “holey”

A

fenestrated capiillary

147
Q

The adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any point in time is called

A

autoregulation

148
Q

what is the minimum pressure that needs to be applied to a pure solvent to prevent it from passing into a given solution

A

osmotic pressure

149
Q

capillary that is the middle sized or kinda “holey”

A

fenestrated capillary

150
Q

what is the cerebral arterial circle or AKA circle of Willis called?

A

An arterial anastomosis

151
Q

what is the outermost layer of a blood vessel

A

tunica adventitia

152
Q

what is hypotension

A

systolic blood pressure below 100 mm Hg

153
Q

what is a cuff of smooth muscle that regulates the flow of blood into the capillaries

A

a precapillary sphinctor

154
Q

what does the carotid sinus reflex protect

A

the blood supply to the brain

155
Q

what does the aortic reflex maintain

A

adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit as a whole

156
Q

what is widening of the lumen

A

vasodilation

157
Q

what will an increase in blood viscosity cause

A

an increase in peripheral resistance

158
Q

what chemicals help regulate blood pressure

A

ADH, atrial natriuretic peptide, angiotensin II

159
Q

what carries blood away from the heart

A

arteries

160
Q

what is the most common type of blood capillary

A

continuous capillary

161
Q

what is the primary function of capillaries

A

permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells

162
Q

what promotes an increase in blood pressure

A

aldosterone

163
Q

what is pulse pressure

A

systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

164
Q

why are arterioles known as resistance vessels

A

the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter

165
Q

what process provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure

A

renal regulation

166
Q

what reflects the balance or imbalance between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls

A

hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

167
Q

what is a type of circulatory shock

A

vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone

168
Q

hydrostatic pressure and capillary blood pressure are the same in what

A

the dynamics of blood flow through capillaries

169
Q

delivery of oxygen and nutrients to and removal of wastes from tissue cells, absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract, and gas exchange in the lungs are all involved in what?

A

tissue perfusion

170
Q

what arteries feed directly into the capillary beds

A

arterioles

171
Q

what type of capillary is in the small intestine and receives nutrients from digested food, are essential for filtration of blood plasma in the kidney, and are in endocrine organs to allow hormones rapid entry into the blood

A

fenestrated

172
Q

what factors aid venous return

A

venous valves, activity of skeletal muscles, pressure changes in the thorax

173
Q

what helps regulate blood pressure

A

renal regulation via the renin-angiotensin system of vasoconstriction, chemical controls such as atrial natriuretic peptide, nervous control that operates via reflex arcs involving baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and higher brain centers

174
Q

where is the velocity of blood flow slowest

A

the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

175
Q

is blood flow through the entire vascular system equivalent to cardiac output

A

yes

176
Q

what is cerebral blood flow regulated by

A

intrinsic auto-regulatory mechanisms

A&P lecture (2 decks)

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