OM-A

Question 1

Standard weights for passengers?

Answer 1

Adults: 84
Child: 35
Infants: 0

Serial charter:
Male: 83
Female: 69
Child: 35
Infants: 0

Question 2

Where can you find the Oceanic procedures?

Answer 2

Oceanic checklist in QRH (A321 NX)
Lido OM-C

Question 3

Where do ECAM advisories show, and how are they displayed?

Answer 3

An advisory message appears on the upper part of the E/W display. Auto call of the relevant system page on the SD. The affected parameter pulses green. If the system is in a single DU config, the related system button on the ECAM Control Panel flashes to identify the relevant system page.

Question 4

How is VLS calculated?

Answer 4

Computed by the FAC according to the FMS weight data. Displayed on the MCDU TAKEOFF and/or APPR pages

Question 5

What is V2 in relation to VS1G?

Answer 5

1.13 VS1G

Question 6

What is VREF?

Answer 6

Reference speed used for normal final approach. VREF is equal to the VLS of config FULL. VREF is used to determine the final approach speed (VAPP) when a system failure affects the landing performance. Displayed on the MCDU approach page, if landing is planned in config FULL.

Question 7

What is the screen height for dry Rwy and wet Rwy?

Answer 7

Dry: 35 ft Wet/Contaminated: 15 ft

Question 8

What are the company procedures for carriage of a large musical instrument , for example, a cello?

Answer 8

Shall have its own seat. An extra seat must be purchased. Must be placed on the floor leaning towards the window seat. Seat belt to be fastened around the cello. If there are more than one instrument, place the second instrument in the adjacent seat. Shall not exceed 150cm x 35cm x 50cm. The cello shall not be placed in the first row aft of a floor level exit or partition wall, in the over wing exit rows or in front of an over wing exit. Center rows: mid and ail seats may be used provided passengers seated in the same row has free access to an ail.

Question 9

What are the standard weights for CC and pilots?

Answer 9

CC: 75 kg for each incl unchecked baggage
Pilots: 85 for each incl unchecked baggage

This weight is incl in the DOW

Checked crew baggage: 15 kg. This weight is NOT included in the DOW

Question 10

What is RVSM and what equipment is required to enter RVSM airspace?

Answer 10

Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum - a reduction of separation from 2000 ft to 1000 ft above FL 290. During FL transitions do not go above/below by more than 150 ft. Max alt diff between PFDs is 200 ft.

The following equipment shall be operating normally when entering RVSM airspace:
OM-A:
- 2 primary altitude measurement systems
- one automatic altitude control system
- one altitude alerting device
- one operating transponder
FCOM PRO SPO 50
- 2 ADR + 2 DMC
- 1 transponder
- 1 AP function
- 1 FCU Channel (alt selection)
- 2 PFD functions (alt ind)
- 1 FWC (alt alert)

Question 11

When do we not require a destination alternate?

Answer 11

An IFR flight can be planned without a destination alternate provided (all 4):
- duration of flight not more than 6 hrs (replanning in flight 4 hrs, or 6 hrs from DP in case of planning with RCF)
- 2 separate RWYs available and usable, separate appr proc based on a separate nav aid. RWYs may overlay or cross, but in the event of a blockage of one Rwy, the other shall be fully usable
- wx reports and forecasts from 1 hr before to 1 hr after ETA -> ceiling 2000 ft or circling height +500 ft, whichever greater, and visibility at least 5 km
- fuel for 15 min at hold speed at 1500 ft AGL, standard conditions at estimated a/c weight. This is included in as alternate fuel on the OFP.

Question 12

When do we need a takeoff alternate?

Answer 12

Whenever the AD of departure is not available for a possible return for meteorological, performance or aircraft system reasons with one engine inoperative.

Question 13

Definition of contaminated RWY

Answer 13

CONTAMINATED RWY:
A RWY is considered contaminated when more than 25% of its surface is covered with:
- A layer of fluid contaminant not considered as thin (more than 3mm, 1/8 inch)
- A hard contaminant

Fluid contaminants can be:
- Dry snow
- Wet snow
- Standing water
- Slush

Fluid contaminants reduce friction forces, and cause:
- Precipitation drag
- Hydroplaning

Hard contaminants can be:
- Ice (cold and dry)
- Wet ice
- Comp snow

Hard contaminant only reduce friction forces.

Question 14

When do two RWYs count as separate?

Answer 14

Runways on the same aerodrome that are separate landing surfaces. These runways may overlay or cross in such a way that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway. Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid.

Question 15

What are the RNP values for different phases of flight, such as enroute, terminal etc?

Answer 15

Enroute 2NM
Terminal area 1NM
Appr area w/ GPS 0.3 Nm
Appr area without GPS 0.5 NM

Question 16

When are inhibited ECAMs inhibited?

Answer 16

the ECAM inhibits the warnings that are not essential from 80 kt to 1500 ft (or 2 min after lift-off, whichever occurs first). Therefore, any warning received during this period must be considered as significant.

Question 17

What are contaminated takeoff limitations?

Answer 17

Flex takeoff not permitted
Max x-wind for narrow RWY ops - 10 kt
Max x-wind braking action MED-GOOD - 29 kt
…….. MED - 25 kt
……. MED to POOR - 20 kt
…….. POOR - 15 kt
Autoland incl rollout not tested => use with care.

Question 18

What is the planning minima for destination alternate if your actual destination only has a non-precision approach available?

Question 19

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

Answer 19

TEMPO = Temporary fluctuations
TEMPO and the associated time group should be used to describe expected frequent or infrequent temporary fluctuations in the meteorological conditions which reach or pass specified threshold values and last for a period of less than 1 HR in each instance and, in the aggregate, cover less than one-half of the forecast period during which the fluctuations are expected to occur.

Question 20

What is the definition of final reserve fuel?

Answer 20

Final reserve fuel is the fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 feet above the alternate aerodrome (or the destination when no alternate required) under standard conditions and at estimated weight.

Question 21

What are the maximum landing weights of the aircraft your company operates?

Answer 21

A319:
A 320 NEO: 67.400kg
A320 CEO: 64.500 kg/ 66.000 kg
A321: 77.800 kg
A321 NX:

Question 22

What is the extra fuel burn with engine anti-ice and wing anti-ice on?

Question 23

What is the APU fuel burn, either per minute or per hour?

Answer 23

130 kg/hr (MEL Main AC GEN u/s)

Question 24

What is the minimum fire category for our aircraft types?

Answer 24

A319/320: 6 for dep and dest/ 4 for ALT or temp downgrade of dep or dest
A321: 7 for dep and dest/ 5 for ALT or temp downgrade of dep or dest

One cat below is allowed for low density AD

Temp downgrade shall be published via NOTAM, and only allowed during first 72 hrs

No requirement for min RFFS for ground movement or fuelling with pax on board
SAS is covered from an insurance point of view as long as the AD is open

Question 25

When can you go below your minimum diversion fuel?

Question 26

In what fuel state must we make the MINIMUM FUEL call to ATC? And the MAYDAY FUEL?

Answer 26

When committed to land. Any extraordinary delays, can result in less than FRF When expecting to land with less than FRF

Question 27

When is an oxygen demo required for passengers?

Answer 27

When pax onboard are not familiar with eq. Eg not type rated or company personnel with knowledge of how to use - mant pers, CC/pilots on a/c with similar sys

Question 28

When does positioning count as a sector for flight time limitations?

Answer 28

Never. Positioning after reporting but prior to operating or between sectors where the crew member operates as active crew and is assigned a passenger seat or a rest facility, shall be counted as FDP but shall not count as a sector; All time spent on positioning shall count as duty period.

Question 29

When does your duty period start on a standby or an airport standby?

Question 30

When can a flying duty period be extended using a split duty?

Answer 30

The conditions for extending the basic maximum daily FDP due to a break on the ground shall be in accordance with the following: • The break on the ground shall count in full as FDP. • Split duty shall not follow a reduced rest. • The break on the ground within the FDP shall have a minimum duration of 3 consecutive hours. • The break excludes the time allowed for post and preflight duties and travelling. The minimum total time for post and preflight duties and travelling is 30 minutes. • The maximum FDP specified in 7.1.4.2 may be increased by up to 50% of the break. • Suitable accommodation shall be provided either for a break of 6 hours or more or for a break that encroaches the window of circadian low (WOCL). • Split duty cannot be combined with in-flight rest.

Question 31

What are your max flight hours over 28 days and 12 months?

Answer 31

28 days - 100 flight hrs 12 months - 900 flight hrs 12 consecutive calendar months - flight 1000 hrs

Question 32

What are the max duty hours in 7 days, 14 days and 28 days?

Answer 32

7 days - 60 duty hrs 14 days - 110 duty hrs 28 days - 190 duty hrs

Question 33

Does your standby time count towards your duty, and if it does, how is it factored?

Question 34

Once you have used up your maximum flying duty period, how many hours can we go into discretion by?

Answer 34

Commanders discretion: May not be increased by more than 2 hours unless the flight crew has been augmented, in which case the maximum flight duty period may be increased by not more than 3 hours.

Question 35

Can you reduce a rest period? And if so, when?

Question 36

State as many responsibilities of a CDR as you can.

Answer 36

- Safe and efficient ops - Safety of all crewmember, passengers and cargo onboard as soon as he arrives onboard the a/c until he leaves the a/c at the end of a flight. - Ops and safety of a/c - That all ops proc, instr, limitations and checklists are complied with - Determining the airworthiness status of the a/c - Ensuring known or suspected defects is recorded in the ATL and reported to OCC/Maint Control - Assuring any defect is processed acc to MEL/CDL - Discipline and order on board - Service standard is satisfactory - File a report if FTL is exceeded for any crew member - Ensuring standard and emer proc and regulations are adhered to - PFI/EI - Close cooperation between flight crew and station personnel - All customs and immigration req being fulfilled - Ensure all report forms and logbook entries are completed and signed.

Question 37

If they differ from that of a captain, what are the FOs handling limitations?

Answer 37

FPN shall not pilot the a/c during t/o and lnd when: • X-wind comp exceeds 15 kts • RWYCC/FC/BA is less than 3/0.30/medium • WX is reported below 300ft (BKN or OVC) and/or 1000m met vis FO may not land or take off in VIS < 550 m

Question 38

If you have a bird strike, are there any forms you have to fill in? And if so, which ones?

Question 39

Can you list all of your company’s manuals?

Answer 39

• OM-A, OM-B/FCOM and/or FCOM, MEL, QRH, Normal Checklist, OM-C, OM-A/B Cabin, AHM and PAI.

Question 40

When can a FLEX takeoff not be performed?

Answer 40

Contaminated RWY Performance reasons Wind shear forecasted In combo with derated takeoff

Question 41

Autoland wind limitations?

Answer 41

HW: 30 kt XW: 20 kt (15 kt if OEI) TW: 10 kt

Question 42

Min RVR for takeoff?

Answer 42

125 m

Question 43

Is there any limitations on how many infants can be carried onboard?

Answer 43

Maximum Number of Infants on Board The number of infants is limited to: • The number of oxygen masks. • The number of infant extension belts - 16 • The number of infant life vests - 16 • Life raft (slide/raft capacity).

Question 44

Can you carry human remains on board the a/c?

Answer 44

Yes. In the cargo compartment

Question 45

What does recommended max mean on the progress page?

Answer 45

The recommended maximum altitude is the lowest of the maximum altitude that: The aircraft can reach with a 0.3 g buffet margin The aircraft can fly in level flight at MAX CRZ rating The aircraft can maintain a V/S of 300 ft/min at MAX CLB thrust The aircraft can fly at a speed above the Green Dot and below the VMO/MMO The aircraft is certified at. The REC MAX altitude is displayed on the PROG page. Anti-ice is not taken into account for this computation. If icing conditions are expected, use the performance application of the EFB. A maximum altitude using a 0.2 g buffet margin is also computed. It is not displayed, but the system uses it to limit CRZ ALT entry.

Question 46

How does the FMGC compute VAPP?

Question 47

Who cannot sit in restricted seats?

Question 48

Where are the list of dangerous goods found?

Question 49

Which seats are restricted?

Answer 49

• in overwing exit rows, • in seat rows with direct access* to an emergency exit. • in seats equipped with airbags • jump seats * Direct access means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.

Question 50

Define the first and second segment of the takeoff performance.

Question 51

Define the criteria for a stable approach

Answer 51

For the approach to be stabilized, all the following conditions must be satisfied before, or at the stabilization height: • The a/c is on the corr vert and lateral flight path • The a/c is in the desired land conf • All checklists compl • Thrust stabilized, and a/c at target speed for appr • The flight crew does not detect any excessive flight parameter deviation Note: In IMC, a later speed and thrust stabilization can be acceptable provided that: • The aircraft is in deceleration toward the target approach speed. • The flight crew stabilizes speed and thrust as soon as possible and not later than 500 ft AAL. If one of the above-mentioned conditions is not satisfied, the flight crew must initiate a go-around, unless they estimate that only small corrections are required to recover stabilized approach conditions.

Question 52

What are the restrictions for wake turbulence separation? On takeoff and on approach.

Answer 52

Landing: 2 min separation behind a heavier category Medium cat behind a super - 3 min Takeoff: 3 min between med and super 2 min between heavy and super Intersection takeoff: 4 min between med and super 3 min between med and heavy

Question 53

What are the inputs to the GPWS system?

Question 54

When doeing your preflight planning, which elements make up the required fuel?

Question 55

What fuel are required on board once you are enroute?

Question 56

What is the approach ban (continuation of approach)?

Answer 56

The CDR may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported RVR/VIS. If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued: • below 1000 ft above the aerodrome; or • into the final approach segment in the case where the DA/MDA is more than 1 000 ft above the AD If, after passing 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum, the approach may be continued to DA/MDA. The approach may be continued below DA/MDA and the landing may be completed provided that the visual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at the DA/MDA and is maintained.

Question 57

If you receive a red bomb warning, what do you do? On ground and airborne?

Question 58

What is included in PFI?

Answer 58

PFI consists of six main tasks: 1. Exterior inspection(EI)/Walk around 2. Preflight Emergency Equipment Check 3. Check of aircraft tech log (ATL) 4. Aircraft fuelling - documentation 5. Departure check 6. External surface check

Question 59

What do you sign for when you are signing the loadsheet?

Answer 59

• All Preflight Inspection tasks have been performed. • The aircraft is airworthy. • The instruments and equipment prescribed in the appropriate aircraft manual for the particular type of operation to be undertaken are installed and are sufficient for the flight. • A check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations of the aircraft and of the aerodromes listed in the flight plan can be complied with for the flight to be undertaken. • The flight has been planned to meet with company standards relating to expected weather conditions and fuel and oil supply. • The Operational Flight Plan including the Company Flight Plan has been checked and indicating that the flight can be conducted safely and that the company requirements as to the proper planning of the flight have been complied with, and that minimum Ramp Fuel is on board.

Question 60

What is the planning minima for an alternate AD?

Question 61

What is the planning minima for takeoff alternate?

Answer 61

Same as for destination

Question 62

SAS policy for choosing an alternate AD?

Answer 62

The policy for selection of alternate is as follows: 1. If criteria for planning without alternate are fulfilled: Planning without destination alternate 2. If weather at destination is above alternate planning minima: Plan with the closest alternate available 3. If weather is destination planning minima or above but below alternate minima: Plan with the closest alternate from a traffic point of view 4. If weather is below CAT I but low visibility approach is available: Plan with the closest alternate from a traffic point of view and consider destination holding.

Question 63

De-fuelling procedure?

Question 64

Max landing weight for autoland?

Answer 64

MLW

Question 65

Are you allowed to operate fuel tanks, lights and HF radio while refuelling ?

Answer 65

Fuel tanks - NO HF radio - NO Lights - NO APU - YES if APU operating normally

Question 66

FPN restrictions?

Answer 66

FPN shall not pilot the aircraft during take-off and landing when:​ •​ X-wind component exceeds 15 kt.​ •​ RWYCC/FC/BA is less than 3/0.30/medium​ •​ WX is reported below 300 ft (valid for BKN and OVC) and/or 1000 m Met Vis​ These restrictions do not apply when FPN is crewed with an Instructor or Line Training Captain or may be​altered based on an individual assessment made by the CFI.

Question 67

What triggers autobrake at RTO?

Answer 67

If wheel speed more than 72 kt

Question 68

From which speed is autobrake armed, and where is the speed measured

Answer 68

72 kt Wheel speed

Question 69

How is CAT II OTS and RNAV approaches regarded for planning purposes?

Answer 69

RNAV - non-precision CAT II OTS -

Question 70

Explain ECAM - underlined - boxed - secondary - level 1-3 - what are the amber items presented above secondary failures on the FWD?

Question 71

What is the name of the phase starting at 80 kt according to FWC?

Answer 71

No 4

Question 72

What is the portable oxygen capacity in time, in high flow and low flow?

Question 73

When do you req 2 dest alt?

Answer 73

Should the weather at the destination aerodrome not meet the requirements for planning without or with only one destination alternate, or when no meteorological information is available, the flight shall be planned with two destination alternate aerodromes. If other reasons make an approach or landing at the destination uncertain, i.e. due to poor braking action and no improvement in sight, a pending industrial action, etc, the flight shall be planned with two alternates.

Question 74

What does optimum mean on the cruise page?

Question 75

What is the minimum eng oil qty req to depart?

Answer 75

Neo: Highest of: 10,6 qt, or 8,9 qt + est consumpt (0,45qt/h) CEO: 11 qt + est consumpt (0,3qt/h)

Question 76

What are the wind limits for the pax and cargo doors?

Answer 76

Pax doors 65 kt Cargo doors 40 (50 if in leeward side or nose into wind) cargo doors must be closed before wind speeds exceed 65 kt

Question 77

What is the speed limit for the wipers?

Answer 77

230 kt

Question 78

What is the max speed for opening the cockpit window?

Answer 78

200 kt

Question 79

Max taxi speed with 1 tire deflated?

Answer 79

7 kt

Question 80

Max taxi speed?

Answer 80

30 kt

Question 81

Max egt at eng start?

Answer 81

NEO: On grnd- 750*C In flight- 875*C CEO og 321: On grnd/in flight - 635*C

Question 82

Max taxi speed with 2 tires deflated?

Answer 82

3 kt

Question 83

Min eng oil temp at start? Eng start? And takeoff?

Answer 83

A320 CEO Max cont temp: 155*C Max transient temp (15min) : 165*C Min start temp: -40*C Min temp before idle exceeded: -10*C Min temp before t/o: 50*C Min oil qty: 11 + 0.3 qts/hr Min oil press: 60 psi A320 NEO OIL TEMPERATURE Maximum continuous temperature 140 °C Maximum transient temperature (15 min) 155 °C Minimum starting temperature -29 °C Minimum temperature before takeoff 19 °C OIL QUANTITY The minimum oil quantity is the highest value of: 10.6 qt, or 8.9 qt + estimated consumption. Maximum estimated consumption = 0.45 qt/h. MINIMUM OIL PRESSURE Minimum oil pressure 17.4 PSI MAXIMUM OIL PRESSURE Maximum oil pressure (when oil temperature is above 50 °C) 130.5 PSI Maximum oil pressure (when oil temperature is below 50 °C) 145 PSI

Question 84

Max alt for use of flaps/slats?

Answer 84

20.000 ft

Question 85

What are the eng start limitations ?

Answer 85

A320 CEO: Eng start: 15 sec pause between cycles After 3 cons cycles, 30 min cooling A320 NEO: For ground starts (automatic or manual), a 60 s pause is required between successive cycles A 15 min cooling period is required, subsequent to three failed cycles

Question 86

What are the speed limitations for the different flap and slat configurations?

Answer 86

A320 Fl 1 - 230 kt Fl 1+F - 215 kt Fl 2 - 200 kt Fl 3 - 185 kt Fl FULL - 177 kt

Question 87

Max brake temp allowed for takeoff?

Answer 87

150 with brake fans on 300 if no brake fans on

Question 88

3 speed limitations for LG

Answer 88

VLE - extended : 280kt/ 0.67 M VLO - extension : 250kt/ 0.60 M VLO - retraction : 220kt/ 0.54 M

Question 89

Max and min cabin differential pressure allowed?

Answer 89

Max pos diff press: 9.0psi Max neg diff press: -1.0psi Safety relief valve setting: 8.6psi

Question 90

When can the AP be engaged after takeoff

Answer 90

100 ft or 5 s after liftoff, WEL.

Question 91

Min AP use height for diff types of approaches?

Answer 91

ILS cat I - 160 ft ILS CAT II manual landing - 80 ft Non-prec - 250 ft Circl - All other - 500 ft

Question 92

What is required for the predictive or reactive wind shear system to work?

Question 93

How long after a general or local anaesthetic should you wait until you fly again?

Answer 93

12hrs

Question 94

How long should you wait after donating blood before flying again?

Answer 94

48hrs

Question 95

When can you fly after diving?

Answer 95

48hrs

Question 96

What are the limits on drinking alcohol before flying ?

Answer 96

The consumption of alcoholic beverages between 24 hrs and 8 hrs prior to duty shall be cautiously observed, and the percentage of alcohol in the blood must be 0.02 or less at the latest 8 hrs prior to duty. Alcohol consumption less than 8 hrs prior to duty is not permitted.

Question 97

The stop end RVR is unserviceable, can we still take off?

Answer 97

Yes. Stop end RVR only counts if needed for stopping in case of a RTO

Question 98

When is the PTU inhibited?

Answer 98

When diff press between green and yellow sys is less than 500 PSI

Question 99

What is the minima for a LVTO, and what elements are required to do this?

Answer 99

125 m 60 m spacing edge lights 15 m spacing CLL RWY END LIGHTS RWY CENTERLINE MARKINGS

Question 100

FO takeoff minimum vis?

Answer 100

550 m

Question 101

What is the def of CAVOK?

Answer 101

When the following conditions occur simultaneously at the time of observation: a)visibility, 10km or more, and the lowest visibility is not reported; b)no cloud of operational significance; (no cloud with the height of cloud base below 1500m (5000ft) or below the highest MSA, whichever is greater, or a cumulonimbus cloud or a towering cumulus cloud at any height) c)no weather of significance to aviation; information on visibility, runway visual range, present weather and cloud amount, cloud type and height of cloud base shall be replaced in all meteorological reports by the term “CAVOK”.

Question 102

What does landing assured actually mean?

Answer 102

The point where you could loose all eng power, and still make the RWY

Question 103

What is alternate fuel?

Answer 103

Alternate fuel is the fuel required to fly from the destination aerodrome (1 or 2 using the RCF procedure) to the respective alternate aerodrome, based on planned operating conditions. The alternate fuel will include fuel from start of missed approach following the expected departure route (to be corrected when missed approach procedure is longer than SID), climb, LRC and descent to main navigational aid, approach and landing taking into account the expected arrival procedure. Calculation to be based on a realistic FL and on planned landing weight. If two destination alternates are required, alternate fuel should be sufficient to proceed to the alternate, which requires the greater amount of alternate fuel.

Question 104

What is the minimum RWY width required?

Answer 104

30 m

Question 105

Exemption from min CC

Answer 105

Reduced no of CC may only be used when the following occurs during outbound flight or at an outstation: • Sudden degradation of CC medical fitness duel to sickness, unfit or fatigue • Circumstances, such as traffic jams or difficulties with local authorities that preclude CC from reporting for the flight duty period. Reduced no of CC shall never be used from home base or if the situation is known when departing from home base. The min no of CC may be reduced provided that: • An exemption from STOOF Duty Manager/NP FO is obtained through OCC • The no of pax has been reduced • The CDR participates in the PSB with the cabin crew members

Question 106

WHAT IS THE DEFINITION OF SERVICE CEILING

Answer 106

The service ceiling is the highest altitude at which a 2-engine aircraft in still air can perform a CAA required climb gradient of 1.1% with engine failure and the operating engine(s) at MCT, flaps and landing gear retracted and at the climb speeds given in OM-B/FCOM The one-engine-out service ceiling must clear all terrain along the entire track by at least 1000 ft. When the requirement cannot be met at the estimated gross weight overhead the critical terrain, • The take-off weight must be reduced until the estimated gross weight overhead the critical terrain, considering fuel burn to that point, is reduced so the requirement is met, or • Compliance with the drift down requirements must be shown.

Question 107

WHAT INFO SHOULD BE INCLUDED IN THE ANTI-ICING CODE? (POST DE-ICING CHECK)

Answer 107

The following information should be included in the Anti-icing Code: • The anti-icing fluid type; “Type I”, “Type II” or “Type IV”. • The volume-concentration (not applicable to “Type I” fluid) • The brand of anti-icing fluid (not applicable to “Type I” fluid). • The local time (hours/minutes) at the beginning of the final anti-icing step. • Post de-/anti-icing check completed. The treatment received shall be documented in the ATL/Flight Log under “DE-ICING” and shall include type-/concentration of fluid and start time of final treatment. (concentration of fluid not applicable to “Type I” fluid). The Anti-icing code is not given for treatments that do not give holdover time. In those cases the message will be: “post de-icing check completed. No holdover time apply”

Question 108

PRE TAKEOFF CHECK - WHICH METHODS ARE ACCEPTABLE?

Answer 108

The following three methods are acceptable: • Mental review • Check of representative surfaces • Check of wings

Question 109

WHEN CAN WE ACCEPT TO MAINTAIN OWN SEPARATION?

Answer 109

SEPARATION OF IFR TRAFFIC IN VMC Clearance within controlled airspace to maintain own separation shall be requested and accepted only if: • Weather conditions for intended flight path are considerably better than VFR minima. • The clearance is temporary only, i.e. for a short phase of climb, descent or approach. • Adequate information (type, altitude, speed, track) about reference aircraft is provided.

Question 110

WHEN SHALL THE STERILE FLIGHT DECK PROCEDURE BE APPLIED?

Answer 110

The sterile flight deck procedures shall be applied: • During critical phases of flight • During taxi • Below 10.000 ft • During any other phases of flight as determined by CDR or PIC

Question 111

Who may be accepted to travel on flight deck seats?

Answer 111

The following categories may be accepted to travel on flight deck seats, subject to CDR’s approval: • Company staff requiring flight deck attendance to fulfil their duties, • Authority inspectors and other officials on active duty, • Passive crew members, • Passengers on Service- or ID tickets, known to the active flight crew. Ad hoc exceptions from these categories shall be kept to a minimum. Revenue passengers shall not be allowed to travel on flight deck as a result of overbooking.

Question 112

Counting of pax - when and how?

Answer 112

Before departure, the number of passengers seated in fwd and aft sections of the aircraft shall be counted in the following situations: • On A330/350, when total number of passengers is 25–210. • On req from Cdr • On flights with “free seating”. • On transit flights with passengers boarding and/or disembarking during intermediate ground stops. • In case of unusual distribution of passengers in the cabin.

Question 113

Define LVO

Answer 113

Low-visibility operations (LVOs)’ means approach or take-off operations on a runway with a runway visual range (RVR) less than 550 m or with a decision height (DH) less than 200 ft.

Question 114

What is LWE?

Answer 114

Liquid Water Equivalent (LWE) is the liquid content of solid precipitation (snow, ice formed by freezing precipitation, freezing liquid precipitation, or ice formed by the refreezing of melted snow). The LWE is dependent on the type of precipitation, amount, and temperature. With the LWE calculation, HOT times are more precise and therefore the displayed times may be extended compared to static table values.

Question 115

Pack flow selector is set to low if…?

Answer 115

Number of occupants below A319: 138 A320: 141 A321: 168 - no low selection, but ECON on