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OMA Flashcards

1
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A

Inform ATC & Complete ASR, Contact MOC, Fill out birdstrike form and insert into tech log.

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2
Q

What is the regulatory authority of the commander?

A

All persons carried in the aircraft obey all lawful commands given by the commander for the purpose of securing the safety of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein.

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3
Q

What are the regulatory responsibilities of the commander?

A

Safety of aircraft, pax and cargo

Removal of hazardous people or cargo

No drunk people, no INAD/DEPORTEE or PRISONER IF they pose a threat to safety

Ensure pax safety briefed

Ensure ops procedures and checklists followed

Pre flight inspection

ACAS report in event of TCAS RA

Bird strikes notify ATC

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4
Q

What are the company responsilbilties of the commander

A

FD Door locked when engines are running

All passengers and crew seated for takeoff and landing

Uniform standards

Post flight debrief as required

Listening watch 121.5

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5
Q

Who can carry fire arms?

A

Domestic police protection officers on domestic flights in the UK, Germany, Italy and Spain

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6
Q

What and when do security searches need to be carried out?

A

It’s always a search unless the aircraft is in EU and it’s last sector came from the EU/UK.
Search:
Departing from UK inc JER IOM GIB
Departing from anywhere and previous sector came from non EU exc.
Switzerland (Inc. Tel Aviv, Egypt)
Cold aircraft
Aircraft parked outside tarmac area for pax boarding
Left outside maintenance hanger

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7
Q

What are the disruptive passenger classifications?

A

Level 1. Non compliance, irrational & disorderly.

Level 2. Physically disruptive in damage to aircraft. Physical assault of pax or crew.

Level 3. Life threatening behaviour inc any weapons and attempts to open aircraft exits.

Level 4. Attempted breach of flight deck door inc violence directed at the door.

Level 3 & 4. Do not open flight deck door.

Police called fro level 2, 3 & 4

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8
Q

Explain all about bomb threats.

What do you do if a message is found on board?

A

Green. Non credible. No action required.

Amber. Doubtful credibility. consider options. On stand - consult duty manager. Not used in flight or taxiing.

Red. Credible and specific requiring immediate protective measures.
On stand - disembark - no slides.
Taxiing - taxi to quiet area and evacuate.
In flight - Divert

Warning message discovered in flight:
1. Confirm search carried out prior to departure
2. Contact ICC
3. Continue Green if unable to contact ICC unless further notes found.
4. Do not take action until assessed by ICC.
5. Preserve message - fingerprints etc.

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9
Q

Does easyJet have dangerous good approval?

A

No. However, ICAO allows a limited number of items for pax and crew.

Exceptions: Airworthiness and operational items such as fire extinguishers, portable oxygen etc.

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10
Q

Do we have ETOPS approval?

A

No. We must remain within 1hr flying time of adequate aerodrome.

Max 60min one engine cruise:

A319 380nm
A320 / 321 400nm

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11
Q

Visual requirements for all approaches

A

CAT 1. Elements of approach lighting

LTS CAT 1. Same as Cat 2 Visuals

CAT 2. 3 consecutive lights and lateral element

OTS CAT 2 Same as Cat 2

CAT 3 WITH DH. 3 consecutive lights

CAT 3 NO DH. No lights

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12
Q

What is the relevant part of RVR for take off and landing?

A

Take off: RVR for acceleration to V1 followed by reject and deceleration to approx 60kts

Landing: RVR for landing down to speed of 60kts approx.

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13
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

1000’ AGL or FAF where DH is more than 1000’

Cannot continue past ban point if RVR less than minima

If, after passing 1000’ RVR decreases, approach may be continued.

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14
Q

What does landing assured mean?

A

A landing is assured if, in the judgement of the commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/or airborne facilities.

e.g. CAT II/III to CAT I

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15
Q

Max No of approaches?

A

No more than two approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to weather unless there has been a significant improvement or state of emergency exists.

In exceptional circumstances a third approach may be flown when a go-around has been carried out for non weather related reasons providing that the commander is satisfied that landing is assured.

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16
Q

What is the approach policy?

A

Use the highest level of approach guidance available. It is permissible to carry out an approach using a lower level of guidance.

E.g practice no precision when ILS available.

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17
Q

What is the automation policy?

A

Use the highest level of automation appropriate to the phase of flight and airspace.

To do any manual flying with automatics out: Both pilots must have completed two duties as operating pilots in the preceding 14 days.

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18
Q

Wake turbulence approach separation minima

A

Final approach:

A380: 7nm
Heavy: 5nm
Upper Medium: 4nm

Landing behind 380 also 3 minutes

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19
Q

Wake turbulence departure separation minima

A

Same position. 380 - 3 min. Heavy 2 min

Intermediate position. 380 4 min. Heavy 3min

Medium. None required.

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20
Q

What separation should a thunderstorm have?

A

5000’ Vertical

Lateral:

30,000’ - 20nm

25,000’ - 15nm

20,000’ - 10nm

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21
Q

Explain the minimum fuel call

A

When a further change in clearance may result in landing below final reserve

When committed to land & cannot divert any more

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22
Q

When can you substitute a conventional nav aid with RNAV?

A

RNAV substitution ok when FMGC announces:

SID/EO SID - GPS PRIMARY / Nav Accuracy High

STAR / Transition above FAP or FAF - Nav Accuracy High

Missed approach - Nav Accuracy High

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23
Q

What is the daily check validity?

When can it be done?

A

48hr in addition to remaining part of the day if done late at night.

Done after last flight of day and after 1800UTC

e.g Daily done at 2245 on 17th. Validity commences 0001 18th, and expires 2359 19th.

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24
Q

Difference between a Level 1 and Level 2 defect in the tech log?

A

Level 1 - Airworthiness. e.g might affect landing capability. For example RA Inop

Level 2 - Non airworthiness. For example dirty carpets.

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25
What certificates must be carried on board? And which on EFB?
On board Originals: - Certificate of airworthiness - Airworthiness review certificate - Certificate of registration EFB - Air Operator Certificate - Noise Certificate - Radio Licence - Third party insurance certificate
26
What are the passenger classifications? Are unaccompanied minors allowed?
Adults are 12yrs and above Child. 2 years and above Infant. Less than 2 years No unaccompanied minors under 16 unless approved by ICC
27
What are the approach minimas? Decision heights and RVS's required?
28
What is the take off minima?
LVP's 125m for relevant RVR's if runway edge and centre line lighting and multiple RVR's This can be replaced with a 90m visual segment from the cockpit. Lights are 15m apart so need 6 lights. NO LVP's. With lighting 400m RVR & 400 VIS Without lighting 500m RVR & 500 VIS
29
When are two destination alternates required?
When wx one hr before and after arrival time is below planning minima. OR No met info at destination
30
What do you do if alcohol suspected on a crew member?
Advise crew that they will be stood down. Advise duty pilot of suspicion via ICC Contact crewing for a replacement
31
Total flight time limitations
100hrs in 28 days 900hrs in a calendar year 1000hrs in 12 consecutive months
32
Using discretion, how long can an FDP be extended for?
2 hours
33
When is no alternate required?
Max 6hr flight 2 separate runways, two approaches and 1hr before & after arrival, ceiling 2000' or circling + 500' and VISD 5km OR The destination is isolated
34
Explain the RFFS Services Required and acceptable downgrades?
A319 / 320 CAT 6 A321 CAT 7 Downgrades: Cat 5 permitted with low volumes of commercial traffic. ATC / NOTAM / ATIS: Two below the aeroplane category All Alternates: UK 5, Non UK 4 Regardless of all this, a commander can land if it is considered safer to do so than divert.
35
Define an isolate aerodrome
An aerodrome is isolated when alternate and final reserves g greater than 2hrs. easyJet does not hold approval
36
Define a suitable aerodrome
The aerodrome is adequate for the operation and is weather permissible. This means MET at or above operating minima and runway surface conditions indicate a safe landing can be made. Aerodrome also equipped with necessary ancillary services such as ATC, lighting, comms, nav aids, emergency services etc.
37
Crew alcohol limit
None 10hrs before Prior to this in moderation
38
Pilots recency for qualification
Can't operate unless in th preceding 90 days, 3 take offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft or a full flight sim
39
How many 3* cabin crew can you fly with?
3 Cabin Crew. Max 1 3* 4 Cabin Crew. Max 2 3*
40
Max age for pilots and any restrictions?
Max age 65 Not more than one flight crew over 60
41
What makes up the fuel carried on board?
Taxi Trip Contingency Alternate Additional Final Reserve Extra
42
Where can a fuel enroute alternate be?
Fuel ERA should be in a circle radius 20% of flight plan distance The centre of which is 25% or 20% plus 50miles from destination in still air
43
What are the destination alternate and en-route alternate planning minimas?
Approach. Planning minima CAT II & 3. CAT 1 RVR CAT 1 NPA RVR/VIS NPA NPA RVR + 1000m Ceiling MDH + 200' Circling Circling
44
What is additional fuel?
When no destination alternate. 15min holding at 1500' - half final reserve. Following loss of pressurisation or engine failure at most critical point. Fuel to descend, divert and hold for 15min at 1500' before approach and landing.
45
What is final reserve and extra fuel? What is the penalty for carrying extra fuel?
Final reserve - 30min 1500' Extra fuel - Commanders discretion. Thunderstorms, ATC etc Penalty = 3% of extra fuel per hour of flight
46
What is alternate fuel?
Missed approach to landing at alternate. When two alternates required. Fuel carried will be for the further one.
47
What is contingency fuel? When can it be used?
If statistical contingency fuel available. Contingency fuel will be greater of: CONT 99 or CONT 95 or 5min holding 1500' If no SCF available. Greater of 5% trip or 5min holding. SCF can be reduced to 3% of trip with fuel en-route alternate or 5min holding whichever is greater. Can be used anytime after push back or engine start.
48
What is taxi and trip fuel?
Taxi fuel - Fuel prior to take off inc APU usage. Trip - Take off to landing
49
Visual Approach Minima
2500' cloud ceiling or circling minima if higher. 5000m VIS
50
What is the route MORA and what clearance does it give us?
Minimum Off Route Altitude. MFAs depicted on OFPs are based upon route MORA and provide 1000ft of clearance for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft of clearance above 5000ft within 20nm of the route. The minimum MFA value depicted on OFP's is 2000ft.
51
What is the minimum grid altitude and what clearance does it give us?
MGA represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the grid area to the next 100ft and adding an increment of: 1000ft for terrain up to 6000ft 2000ft for terrain above 6000ft
52
When does the MEL no longer apply?
MEL no longer applies when the a/c starts to move under it's own power for the purpose of flight e.g taxiing.
53
When is VIS to RVR conversion not to be used?
When RVR reported. For calculating take off minima For any RVR less than 800m after conversion.
54
When do headsets need to be worn?
- On ground for ATC clearance or when engines running. - From engine start to top of climb and from top of descent to parked - When one pilot on flight deck - When communicating with cabin crew via inter phone or using VHF 2 in flight. -Whenever deemed necessary by the commander
55
What does CAVOK mean?
Cloud and visibility OK. 10km VIS, NO CB or TCU and no cloud below 5000' or MSA, whichever is greater
56
What is RVSM airspace
RVSM is 29000 to 41000 Reduced vertical separation minima
57
Definition of separate runways?
They are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that is one of the runways is blocked it will not prevent the planned type of operation on the other runway. Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on a separate navigation aid
58
Minimum crew for boarding?
Not applicable to 319 operating with 3 cabin crew. One flight crew on flight deck Cabin Manager on board No refuelling One CC at back, One in middle. for 320/319 One extra by mid emergency exit for 321. Max 50pax per cabin crew.
59
What category is the 320 aircraft and what does it mean?
Category C - approach speed between 121 and 140kts.
60
What is the definition of a safe landing?
In the context of fuel schemes, a landing at an adequate aerodrome with no less than the final reserve fuel remaining and in complicate with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.
61
What is an airworthiness review certificate?
All Part 21 aircraft types that qualify for a Part 21 Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a non-expiring C of A, which is validated annually with an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC).
62
How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?
30min or more but less than 60 minutes
63
Where would you find a list of dangerous goods?
OMA Section 9
64
What is the radio monitoring policy?
VHF 1. On at all times. VHF 2. 121.5 in cruise all times, climb or descent as appropriate.
65
Are there any temperature corrections for MSA?
Yes, in very cold temperatures. Use the high altitude temperature correction table in OMA.
66
When do we need a temperature correction for approach?
surface temp -10 or below
67
Can the destination and the alternate both be based on PBN ?
No one of the two has to be equipped with an instrument approach other than GNSS OMA 8.1.2.2.2.5
68
What are the aerodromes categories ?
**Category A:** Non-complex and can be treated as routine. **Category B:** Complexity requiring specific briefing, e.g. audio visual briefing, aerodrome brief in the Aerodrome Briefing Supplement. **Category B Restricted:** Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an aerodrome visit or specific training. **Category C:** Special crew qualification required which can be achieved by an aerodrome visit or specific training.
69
What is required on ground and in the A/C to perform an automatic rollout?
Cat II ground equipment NWS and antiskid Not approved on contaminated RWY
70
What are the requirements to replace an incapacitated SCCM while away from base?
Use a qualified SCCM crew, if none available, use the most senior with the minimum requirement of 12 months and 20 sectors on the A/C. Should be replaced when transiting via transit base, but if none available can continue to originating base.
71
What re the consequences of the loss of one engine for a low vis approach?
The aircraft becomes CAT IIIA so only CAT 3 single on the FMA. 
Autoland in config FULL only for A320, Config 3/FULL for a319 and Neo.
72
What altimeter accuracy do you need in RVSM airspace?
The primary altimeters must agree within 200ft before entering, and whilst operating in RVSM airspace.
73
What are the requirements to do refueling with pax ?
Aircraft * The required interior lighting to enable emergency exits to be identified must be serviceable. * All doors must remain disarmed. Door 1 left must be open and the steps or airbridge must be in position. * A clear evacuation route from the aircraft must be available, via an airbridge or steps. * The rear passenger door should be open with steps in position, however it may remain closed with no steps attached, provided the slide is serviceable. The ground area beneath the exits that are intended for emergency evacuation and the slide deployment areas must be kept clear. * The position of the fuel bowser/installation relative to the aeroplane is to be such that it will not impede the rapid exit of passengers if an emergency evacuation becomes necessary; Cabin Crew * The procedure is not permitted when operating with reduced cabin crew. * All crew must be on board. At least one cabin crew member must be in attendance at each set of main exits to assist passengers in the event that an evacuation or an emergency should occur. * The cabin crew must brief the passengers not to smoke at any time on the ground and to keep seatbelts unfastened, until refuelling has been completed. * Use of toilets by passengers must be limited, so there is no queuing in the aisles. Operational * If required by the local national or airport authority, air traffic control and the aerodrome fire services are to be advised that fuelling will be taking place with passengers on board (Check CCI/AOI) * For a crew swap, refuelling may commence if acknowledgement has been received from the flight crew and refuelling is monitored by the off-going crew.
74
What is the minimum age to travel ?
2 weeks
75
How many infant per adult can be carried ?
2
76
Until what week of pregnancy can a pregnant woman travel ?
* Pregnant mothers can be accepted for travel up to the end of the 35th week for single pregnancies. * Pregnant mothers expecting more than one baby (e.g. twins) can only be accepted for travel up to the end of the 32nd week. Medical certification is not required for expectant mothers to travel.
77
Can a flight be operated as VFR ?
Normally always IFR and with ATC and generally not allow, VFR only when authorized by the duty pilot
78
When should a commander not take off or continue to dest with respect to the wx condition ?
- should not continu or take off unless the expected wx at dest or alternate are above/at planning minima - nor continue toward dest unless at ETA wx at dest or 1 alternate is above applicable minima
79
Upon landing what wind information should be used to determine the wind limit ?
All references to tailwind limitations and maximum demonstrated crosswinds in Operations Manuals and FCOMs are referenced to the **ATC reported wind.**
80
Does easyjet hold the approval to flight all NAT HLA route ?
NAT HLA Operations are approved on special routes only: * Blue Spruce Routes between Europe and Iceland * Tango Routes between Northern Europe and Spain/Canaries/Lisbon FIR Refer to Lido eRM GEN Part RSI NAT RAR section 2.2.2.13.2.2 Routes within the NAT HLA
81
What are the lateral requirements for NAT HLA ?
PBN RNP 4 and RNP 10 One long range navigation system (GNSS, IRS)
82
What are the longitudinal requirement for NAT HLA?
One accurate master clock
83
What does the number associated with RNP mean ?
nav position error shall be less or equal to RNP value for 95% of the time
84
What should be done prior to enter NAT HLA ?
A Time check shall be done. Flight Crew shall ensure that Aircraft main clock is set to GPS time if available. A NAV accuracy check shall be done if not GPS Primary. An RVSM Altimeter check. A SELCAL check shall be done (if HF is to be used for primary communication). As applicable an Oceanic Clearance shall be obtained and acknowledged prior to NAT HLA entry, on VHF if possible.
85
During flight preparation what is the maximum altimeter difference for RVSM operation ?
Max 75ft
86
What are the equipment required for RVSM ?
* 2 primary altimeters * one automatic altitude control system (AP) * One altitude alerting system * one SSR transponder with alt reporting
87
Before entering RVSM airspace what is the max altimeter difference ?
200ft before entering
88
When can you not follow GPWS ?
* Daylight * VMC condition * positive visual verification that no hasard exist * and possibility of nuisance has been brief If triggered, any GPWS must be reported with an ASR
89
What has precedence over a TCAS RA ?
* Stall * Windshear * GPWS
90
How should you avoid thunderstorms ?
* Avoid by at least 20NM upwind * In terminal area avoid by at least 3 NM * Do not overfly unless minimum 5000ft above the top * do not fly below envil
91
What are the rules for controlled rest ?
* One at a time * less than 45min * recovery 20min * should terminate at least 30min before top of descent * Fatigue report
92
What are the two way to recognise crew incapacitation ?
No answer to two verbal com 1 verbal com and deviation from standard profile
93
Bomb threat, what should you do if you receive a **Red** bomb threat in **flight**?
* Captain informed via ACARS or VHF * follow QRH checklist * on taxiing, taxi away from terminal, evacuate in a controlled way * in flight declare an emergencvy and divert nearest appropriate airport * if landing not immediately possible make a search and if suspicious item found move to the Least Risk bomb location
94
Bomb threat, what should you do in case of **amber** alert while on the **ground**?
Contact the network duty manager who will liaise with the duty security manager and decide the action
95
What should you do if an explosive device is found while in flight ?
* Do not touch or move object * move pax away and ask them to keep head down (below the top of the seat) * remove from location portable oxy bottle, alcohol, first aid kit * fire extinguisher readily available * if landing immediately not possible, leave in place and surround with soft material. Humidify the soft material but keep the device dry.
96
What should you do in case of hijack ?
Sqwack 7500 Inform ATC ASAP Switch seat belt sign on and brief CC by interphone Find somewhere safe to land avoid violent manoeuvre
97
When is the latest LVP's should be initiated?
ceiling less that 200ft or RVR less than 600m
98
When do you see only red centre line lights? When do you see red and white centre line lights?
Red lights 300m before end Red and white lights 900m before end or from midpoint if runway less than 1800m

COAS 2022 (28 decks)

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