OMA Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
When shall aircraft be flown below MFAs?
A
Never. Apart from takeoff and landing.
2
Q
What does MFAs stand for?
A
Minimum Flight Altitudes
3
Q
What does MSA stand for
A
Minimum Sector Alititude
4
Q
How big is the MSA area and what clearance does it provide?
A
25nm and obstacle clearance of 1000ft
5
Q
What clearance does MORA provide?
A
1000ft clearance up to 5000ft
2000ft clearance above 5000ft
Within 20nm of segment centreline
6
Q
When are temperature corrections performed?
A
Below -10 degrees. Unless otherwise specified
7
Q
What is the standard pressure correction?
A
30ft per mb
8
Q
What are the Rescue and Fire Fighting Services required (RFFS)
A
A320/319: 6
A321: 7
9
Q
When can RFFS be downgraded to 5?
A
For Departure or Destination which have low volumes of traffic.
10
Q
When can you go 2 categories below RFFS?
A
Tempo downgrade not exceeding 72 hours. Must be notified by NOTAM/ATC/ATIS
11
Q
When can be downgraded to RFFS 4?
A
Takeoff Alternate, Destination Alternate and Enroute Alternate for NON UK AERODROMES.
12
Q
When is an aerodrome suitable?
A
When it is adequate for the operation. When the met conditions satisfy the planning minima and meet the approach runway and aircraft capabilities.
13
Q
Maximum distance from Adequate Aerodrome for two engine aeroplanes without ETOPS?
A
60 mins at 1 engine inop cruise speed.
A319: 380nm
A320/321: 400nn
14
Q
Takeoff alternate distance
A
320nm for all types
15
Q
How long are weather reports considered?
A
1hr before and 1hr after ETA
16
Q
Can conversion of met visibility to RVR be done at the planning stage?
A
No
17
Q
When is a takeoff alternate required?
A
When performance or met condition preclude a return
18
Q
When are 2 alternates required?
A
When the forecast is below the planning minima.
When no met info available
19
Q
What is a Category A aerodrome?
A
Not complex and routine
20
Q
What is a Category B aerodrome?
A
Requires specific briefing
21
Q
What is a Category B Restricted Aerodrome?
A
Complexity and threat levels that have specific restrictions but do not require aerodrome visit
22
Q
What is a Category C aerodrome?
A
Special Crew qualification required
23
Q
What are Easyjet aeroplanes categorised as?
A
Cat C (Vat 121 to 140kts)
24
Q
What are the requirements for a visual approach?
A
2500ft cloud ceiling
5000m viz
25
What approaches use a DA (Decision Altitude)
Cat 1/LTS Cat 1
LNAV/VNAV
RNAV/RNP
NPAs
26
Is LPV Approved for Easyjet?
| Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance
No
27
What is DH (decision height) used for?
Cat 2/ Cat 3
28
What is MDA (Minimum Descent Altitude) used for?
Circling approach
29
What is the Cat 3A company DH?
50ft
30
What is the age you are classified as an adult?
12 years and above
31
What age classifies children?
2yrs up to 12yrs
32
What age are infants?
Less than 2 years of age
33
How much do pilots weigh?
85kg
34
How much do Cabin crew weigh?
75kg
35
How much do male passengers weigh?
93kg
36
How much do Female passengers weigh?
75kg
37
How much do children weigh?
35kg
38
How much do domestic bags weigh?
11kg
39
How much do European bags weigh?
13kg
40
How much do guide dogs weigh?
35kg
41
How much do cellos weigh?
10kg
42
When should cabin defects be presented to the commander?
At the end of each flight
43
Which paper certificates should be carried on board?
Certificate of Airworthiness
Airworthiness Review Certificate
Certificate of Registration
44
What indicates to the cabin crew that fuelling is occurring on the ground?
Seatbelt signs off and refuelling in progress sign showing
45
Is refuelling permitted with reduced cabin crew?
No
46
What is the regulatory requirement when refuelling with pax on board?
Two way communication with the refueller
47
Is De-fuelling permitted with pax on board?
No
48
Up to how many weeks can a pregnant woman travel?
35 weeks
| 32 for twins
49
What is the age of an unaccompanied minor?
16 years or below
50
Where should prisoners be seated?
At the back of the aircraft and preferably in a window seat with the escorts
51
When should prisoners be boarded?
Boarded first and disembarked last
52
What should be completed if a passenger is refused carriage?
An ASR
53
Can Easyjet carry dangerous goods?
No
54
Can we carry aircraft spares to or from Switzerland?
No
55
What colour is Type 1 anti icing fluid?
Orange or clear
56
What colour is Type 2 anti icing fluid?
Straw
57
What colour is Type 4 anti icing fluid?
Green
58
What is the minimum result from converting met viz to RVR that can be used?
800m
59
What is a local night?
Period of 8 hours between 22:00 and 08:00 local time
60
How long can you not fly for following anaesthetics?
48hrs General
| 24hrs local, including dental
61
If you have a vaccination how long before you can operate?
24hrs
62
What 2 types of radar do ATC Primarily use?
PSR (Primary Surveilance Radar)
| SSR (Secondary Surveilance Radar)
63
What is the latest that in-flight landing distance calc should be performed?
Not more than 30mins
64
Describe NADP1 and NADP 2 profiles?
1/. V2+10-20kts to 1000ft then CL thrust and accelerate
2/. V2+10-20kts to 1000ft then CL to 3000ft then accelerate
65
What does NAT-HLA Stand for?
North Atlantic High Level Airspace
66
What flight levels does RVSM apply
FL290-FL410 included
67
Nav requirements for NAT HLA
PBN RNP4 and RNP10
68
What are the 4 PBN specifications that Easyjet use?
RNAV1 - 1nm
RNAV5 - 5nm
RNP1 - 1nm
RNP APCH - 0.3nm
69
Where is B-RNAV (RNAV 5) mandatory?
In ECAC Airspace along entire route
70
Where does P-RNAV (RNAV1) apply?
Departures, Arrivals and approaches up to Final approach waypoint
71
What is the maximum difference between primary altimeter check and airport elevation prior to entering RVSM airspace?
75ft
72
What is the max difference between altimeters before entering and during RVSM airspace?
200ft
73
What equipment should be operating normally before entering RVSM?
2 primary altimeters
1 autopilot
1 altitude alerting system
An SSR Transponder
74
When should destination QNH be set?
FL200
75
What is the minimum fuel you should have on landing at destination?
Alternate plus Final Reserve
76
What options are there during flight if you find you might land at dest with less than CNR
```
Decrease speed
Obtain a more direct route
Fly closer to the optimum FL
Select a closer alternate
Land and refuel
```
77
When is a landing assured
If it can still be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration of weather or single failures of ground and or airborne facilities.
78
What defines MINIMUM FUEL
When any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than final reserve
79
What defines MAYDAY FUEL?
When fuel is predicted to be less than final reserve upon landing
80
What is the minimum distance you should give to thunderstorms?
20nm laterally
| 5000ft if overflying
81
Wake turbulence categories. What are Easyjet aircraft categorised as?
Lower Medium
82
How much time do you need to leave between heavy aircraft on departure?
2 mins
| Unless following from intermediate point then it’s 3 mins
83
How long to leave between an A380 departure?
3 mins from same point
| 4 mins from intermediate point.
84
What distance on final approach between aircraft?
A380 - 7nm
Heavy - 5nm
Upper Medium - 4nm
85
What is the max suggested length of controlled rest?
45 mins
86
How long after controlled rest should be given to regain alertness?
20mins
87
What should ACTUAL sleep be limited to during controlled rest?
30mins
88
Describe the times when full harnesses should be used.
Turbulence
Takeoff
Landing
Seatbelt signs on
89
When should the flight deck door be closed?
From when cabin doors are closed on departures to after engines are shutdown.
90
What is the Two Communications Rule?
Any time a crew member does not respond to two verbal communications.
OR
Any time a crew member does not respond to a verbal communication with a significant deviation from flight profile.
91
Is a flight crew incapacitation an emergency?
Yes
92
What is Easyjet’s approach policy
To use the highest level of guidance available
93
Maximum number of approaches
No more than 2 approaches unless significant improvement exists.
94
When can a 3rd approach be made?
When a go around was flown for non weather reasons. Providing landing is assured.
95
Where is the approach ban point?
1000ft AAL
96
What happens if you pass the Approach Ban and the RVR falls below the minimum?
Can be continued to the DH provided that visual references are adequate for the type of approach.
97
Which RVR is always controlling?
Touchdown
98
What speed is classed as relevant?
60kts
99
What is the minimum RVR for a non precision approach?
750m
100
What approaches cannot be used with cold weather corrections?
VNAV
101
Is Easyjet authorised for RNP AR approaches?
No
102
What differences between the FMC and the approach chart are acceptable for an RNAV approach?
3 degrees
103
Can a destination alternate have an approach solely based on GNSS?
No, they must have another instrument approach type
104
Cat 1 minima
200ft
| 550RVR
105
Visual reference for Cat 1 approach?
Elements of approach lighting
106
Stable approach criteria for circling.
Below 400 RA: Max bank angle 15 degrees and +or- 30 degrees of final approach track
107
Can you night circle without some form of vertical guidance?
No
108
What must be in force for us to conduct LVOs?
LVPs
109
When can you plan to dispatch with no alternate?
Flight not greater than 6 hours
2 seperate runways available
Ceiling at least 2000ft or 500 above circling height
Visibility at least 5km
Additional fuel not less than 15 mins at 1500 ft
110
When is an aerodrome isolated?
When the alternate is 2 hrs or more cruise away.
111
What clearance does minimum grid altitude provide?
1000ft up to 6000ft
| 2000ft above 6000ft
112
When can runways be considered as seperate?
When they can be considered that if one is blocked it would not affect the use of the other runway.
They should have approaches based on seperate navaids
113
What is the planning minima for alternate if only NPA available?
NPA RVR +1000m
| Ceiling at or above MDH +200
114
When tankering fuel. What is the maximum planned landing weight?
MLW -1%
115
What is the approximate trip fuel adjustment for increased or decreased mileage?
Increase 5kg/nm
| Decrease 4kg/nm
116
When can you NOT use a “FOR INFO” following a bird strike?
```
When the bird has:
Caused a dent or damage
Hit the Radome
Hit the engine
1m upstream of the pitot or static
1m upstream of the pack intake
Any unusual odours
```
117
When can you take off in RVR 125?
HI edge lights spaced 60m
HI centre lights spaced 15m
90m visual segment from cockpit
118
What do you do if the third segment of the runway RVR is not available for takeoff?
Reduce the runway length by 1/3 and recalculate the performace
119
What classes as CAVOK?
Viz 10 or more
Ceiling 5000ft or greater
No sig wx
120
What does max 65/7 mean on the IAC charts?
Wingspan max 65m
| Distance between gear and GP antenna of max 7m
121
What classes as a decrease in medical fitness?
```
Surgery
Hospital > 12hrs
New regular medication
Significant personal injury or illness
Pregnant
```
122
What classes as an approved aerodrome?
Runway length and characteristics meet the aeroplane requirements for takeoff and landing
Pavement strength is compatible with aircraft weight
Suitable instrument approaches, ATC, lighting, comms and weather reporting
123
What are the restrictions of using converted met visibility to RVR?
Not for takeoff
Not if result is <800m
Not for planning
124
What are the minimum contingencies for each type?
A319: 190kg
A320: 204kg
A320 NEO: 170kg
A321: 200kg
125
What are the minimum oxygen requirements for flight crew and cabin crew?
Flight crew need a minimum of 2 hrs or 30mins if on 100% oxygen
Cabin crew need not less than 30mins
126
Up to which week can pregnant mothers be accepted for travel?
35th week
127
Is medical certification required for expectant mothers to travel?
No
128
What is the minimum age a child can travel when alone?
16 years. Any younger they need to be accompanied by an adult
