OMB Flashcards

(64 cards)

1
Q

What paper manuals and forms should be in the cockpit?

A
2 QRH
2 Cchecklists
Certificates folder
Documents folder
Tech log
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2
Q

What should bank angle be limited to during manual flight?

A

30 degrees

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3
Q

When is OETD prohibited?

A
LVPs
Slippery surface
APU or APU GEN not available
Technical defects affecting hydraulics
Electrical redundancy
Bleed air
Steering or brakes
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4
Q

What are the first officer handling limits?

A
Max 20kts crosswind
No contaminated surface
400m RVR for takeoff
CAT 1 approaches
45m runway
No windshear
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5
Q

What are the additional handling limit for 3* FOs?

A

No flap 3

No planned tailwaind

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6
Q

What should you check when arriving to the aircraft?

A

Wheel chocks in place.
APU inlet and outlet clear

If wheel chocks not in place check parking brake set with sufficient accumulator pressure

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7
Q

On the preliminary cockpit preparation checklist. When should you use the * marked items?

A

On a transit stop with no crew change

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8
Q

When should a battery check be completed?

A

When the aircraft has not been supplied electrically for 6h or more.

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9
Q

What voltage should be batteries be on the preliminary cockpit setup and what does it mean?

A

25.5V

Ensures charge above 50%

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10
Q

During cockpit setup if the batteries are below 25.5V how long should they be charged for?

A

20mins

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11
Q

How soon after selecting the batteries to auto should the APU be started?

A

Within 30mins

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12
Q

When does the half frame appear on the oxygen section of the ECAM door page?

A

When PSI is lower than 1500

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13
Q

When should a full ADIRS alignment be completed?

A

Before first flight
Crew change
GPS not available and flight time > 3hrs

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14
Q

When should the air conditioning pack flow be selected to LO?

A

A319/320: 130 or less

A321: 160 or less

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15
Q

Which VHF radio is available in the emergency electrical config?

A

VHF 1

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16
Q

What should the IDLE factor be set to in the aircraft status MCDU page?

A

-3.5

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17
Q

When should navaids be deselected?

A

If no GPS primary and NOTAMS warn of unreliable navaids

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18
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference between the 2 PFDs during cockpit preparation?

A

20ft

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19
Q

What is the maximum difference between the PFD and ISIS altitude during cockpit prep?

A

60ft

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20
Q

If the captain is performing the takeoff and intending to hand over to the FO. When should this be done?

A

When clean config and above the transition altitude

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21
Q

Describe the acceptable discrepancies after refuelling.

A

Up to 6 tons - 400kg
6 - 12 tons - 500kg
Above 12 tons - 600kg

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22
Q

At what percentage MAC for a 320 should the EFB be changed to FORWARD?

A

27%

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23
Q

When is a new LFC required due to LMCs?

A

Plus 10 or minus 20 passengers

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24
Q

When should the nose gear be inspected in the event of a shear pin failure during pushback?

A

If the aircraft overruns the towbar

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25
What are the rules for leaks from the engine drain mast during engine start?
Run the engine at idle for 5 mins. If the leak goes then you can dispatch. If it remains then shutdown the engine and have it investigated.
26
When do the pack valves open again after engine start?
30s after second engine N2 reaches 50%
27
What is the minimum oil temp in a NEO for takeoff?
19 degrees
28
When should ice shedding be considered?
When I’m icing conditions and the temp is +3 or less for more than 30 mins
29
What is the CEO ice shedding procedure?
Accelerate engines to 70% N1 for 30s at intervals no greater than 30mins.
30
What is the NEO ice shedding procedure?
Accelerate engines to 50% N1 for 5 s at intervals not greater than 60 mins
31
What is the required equipment for RVSM?
``` 2 ADRs and 2 DMCs 1 transponder 1 autopilot 1 FCU channel 2 PFDs 1 FWC ```
32
What speed will expedite descent give?
M 0.8 or 340kts whichever is lower
33
What are the stable approach criteria?
Aircraft in landing config On correct lateral and vertical flight path Target final approach speed +10/-5 Bank angle max 15 degrees
34
When do you apply the discontinued approach procedure?
When at or above the FCU altitude
35
When does the PM call parameters on the approach?
Speed +10/-5 Pitch -2.5/10 Bank angle >7 degrees Descent rate >1000
36
During an ILS what parameters should the PM call out?
LOC 1/2 dot | GLIDE 1/2 dot
37
If above 1000 and a landing capability degradation occurs what needs to be completed?
``` ECAM/QRH Required equipment check Approach and capability check RVR check DH adjust Briefing ```
38
What RNP value is required for RNAV GNSS?
0.3
39
What deviations should the PM call for an RNAV approach?
XTK >0.1 V/DEV > 1/2 dot 1 dot = 100ft
40
What degraded navigation capabilities would result in a go around for an RNAV approach?
GPS PRIMARY lost on both NDs XTK > 0.3 NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE NAV ACCUR DOWNGRADE on both FMGS
41
What config should a circling approach be flown?
Config 3 gear down at the descent point of the instrument approach
42
Equipment required for RNAV visual?
1 FMS | 1 GPS or 2 DME
43
During an autoland what is the maximum difference between the ILS course pointer and the runway track?
5 degrees
44
When should the seatbelt sign be turned off during parking?
When the doors are all disarmed
45
When should the beacon be turned off?
When N1 is below 10%
46
Why are the centre tank pumps turned off prior to refuelling?
To avoid pump low pressure cautions or fuel spillage
47
What angle approaches are defined as steeper?
3.5 to 4.5 degrees
48
What approach angle should a stabilised approach be used?
3.5 or more
49
What should be done after an overweight landing?
Contact MOC
50
What are the calls for an emergency landing?
Passing 2000 ft planned - cabin crew take up landing positions Passing 500 ft planned - Brace Brace Unplanned emergency landing - attention crew brace brace
51
What are the climb gradients required for takeoff?
Second segment: 2.4% | Final segment: 1.2%
52
How much fuel does the APU burn?
2kg/min
53
How much fuel does engine anti ice use during holding?
2kg/min
54
What distance should adequate aerodromes be during flight?
A319 380nm | A320/321 400nm
55
What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate?
320nm all types
56
Standard loading for A319
150bags in rear hold | Utilise cpt 4 first
57
A320 standard loading?
Compartment 1 85 bags Remainder in compartment 4 (use of 3 aswell for high loads) Compartment 5 should not normally be used
58
A321 standard loading
100 bags cpt 3 Next 50 cpt 4 Remainder in cpt 2
59
Which hold should be loaded and unloaded first?
Forward holds loaded first and unloaded last
60
How much fuel do the engines use during holding?
40kg/min
61
Where is a thin hoarfrost acceptable?
Fuselage Radome Engine cowl Surfaces lines and features must be distinguishable
62
How thick can frost be on the underside of the wing?
Coating up to 3mm thick in the area cold soaked by fuel
63
What are the uninhibited master cautions that will appear on takeoff?
``` Engine failure Side stick fault reverser fault reverser unlocked Thrust lever fault ```
64
What equipment is needed to carry out an RNAV/GNSS approach?
``` 1 FMGC 1 GPS 1 MCDU 1 FD on PF side 1 PFD on PF side 2 IRS 2 NDs 2 FCU channels ```