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Board Basics > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 factors that are most prognostic for breast cancer?

A

tumor size and axillary lymph node status

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2
Q

T/F: If mammogram is normal, you don’t need to biopsy a breast mass

A

False. You need to do a biopsy

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3
Q

1) How do you treat DCIS?

2) What if it is estrogen-positive DCIS?

A

1) wide excision (lumpectomy) with breast radiation

2) tamoxifen decreases risk of local recurrence but not survival

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4
Q

Which is better for invasive breast cancer treatment: mastectomy vs lumpectomy with both followed by radiation?

A

both are the same

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5
Q

For breast tumors that involve the skin, chest wall, or more than one quadrant of the breast, what is the recommended treatment?

A

mastectomy

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6
Q

For inflammatory breast cancer, what is the best treatment?

A

neoadjuvant chemo then mastectomy then radiation

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7
Q

What is a contraindication to breast radiation therapy?

A

previous irradiation

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8
Q

When would a bilateral mastectomy be recommended?

A

familial breast cancer syndromes

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9
Q

When is axillary lymph node dissection performed? (2)

A

stentinel lymphe node biopsy is positive or axillary lymph nodes are clinically involved

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10
Q

For patients with breast tumors >5cm, positive surgical margins, skin or chest wall involvement, inflammatory breast cancer, and positive axillary nodes…what is the recommended treatment?

A

mastectomy followed by chest wall radiation

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11
Q

What staging is adjuvant systemic therapy used in breast cancer?

A

stages I to III (not metastatic and is curable)

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12
Q

When do you use tamoxifen as adjuvant therapy?

A

premenopausal women x 10 years. If they become postmenopausal after taking 5 years of tamoxifen, then they benefit from taking aromatase inhibitor for 5 years

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13
Q

For patients on aromatase inhibitors (anastrozole, letrozole, exemestane), how often do you do DEXAs and bisphosphonate therapy?

A

q1-2 years and treat if T scores

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14
Q

What is indicated in hormone receptor-negative tumors, HER2-positie tuors, high grad tumors, extensive lymphovascular invasion and positive lymph nodes?

A

adjuvant chemotherapy

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15
Q

T/F: Patients with high risk recurrence scores will benefit when adjuvant chemotherapy is given followed by antiestrogen therapy

A

True

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16
Q

What can be given as adjuvant therapy with HER2-positive breast cancer? What prework up do you need to do?

A

trastuzumab; check LV function

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17
Q

If patients are hormone receptor negative or fail antiestrogen therapy, what can be used?

A

single agent chemotherapy

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18
Q

How do you treat lytic bone metastases in breast cancer?

A

bisphosphonate and denosumab

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19
Q

If a premenapausal woman cannot take tamoxifen, what do you need to do?

A

ovarian ablation or suppression

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20
Q

T/F: pregnancy after breast cancer does not increase the risk of recurrence

A

true

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21
Q

T/F: You need to biopsy new metastatic lesions

A

True–primary tumor and metastatic tumor estrogen receptor and HER2 status can differ

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22
Q 
What are the side effects of
1) aromatase inhibitors?
2) tamoxifen
3) anthracyclines (doxorubicin, epirubicin)
4 trastuzumab
5) bisphosphonates
6) denosumab
A

1) arthralgia, bone pain, osteoporosis, hyperlipidemia
2) endometrial cancer, VTE disease
3) cardiomyopathy, acute leukemia
4) cardiomyopathy especialy with anthracycline
5) osteonecrosis of jaw especially with dental disease
6) hypocalcemia and osteonecrosis of jaw especially with dental disease

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23
Q

What are the criteria for annual low dose screening CT scan for lung cancer?

A

smoking for 20 pack years, quit within 15 years

ages: 50-80yo

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24
Q

Where is the best place to biopsy a lung mass?

A

peripheral lymph node of mediastinal node

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25
Q

What are 3 staging studies for a patient with SCLC?

A

Since it is viewed as metastatic disease, need CT C/A/P, whole body bone scintigraphy, MRI brain

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26
Q

Which type of lung cancer produces peptide hormones which can cause SIADH and hypercortisolism?

A

SCLC

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27
Q

What are the 2 staging studies for NSCLC?

A

identify metastatic disease (if find, then no surgery). get CT chest/upper abdomen and PET for lymphadenopathy

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28
Q

If a patient has both a lung mass and hypercalcemia, what kind of lung cancer do they have?

A

SCC

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29
Q

Treatment of SCLC:

1) limited stage
2) extensive stage
3) complete or partial response to therapy
4) symptomatic brain mets

A

1) chemo and radiation
2) chemo
3) add prophylactic brain irradiation
4) whole brain radiation therapy

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30
Q

Treatment of NSCLC:
1) stage I (solitary tumor 3-5 cm with no lymphadenopathy or metastases) or stage II (solitary tumor >5cm with regional lymphadenopathy or pleural chest wall involvement or tumor near carina

A

1) surgical resection with adjuvant chemo

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31
Q

Treatment of NSCLC:

2) stage III (mediastinum or contralateral mediastinal lymph nodes
3) stage IV (metastatic cancer with pleural or pericardial effusion)
4) solitary brain mets

A

2) chemoradiation
3) chemo only if good performance status
4) surgical excision and postoperative whole-brain radiation therapy

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32
Q

If have EGFR mutation in lung cancer, what can you use?

If you have ALK and ROS1 mutations, what can you use?

A

1) erlotinib

2) crizotinib

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33
Q

What is treatment for multiple brain mets in lung cancer?

A

glucocorticoids and radiation therapy

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34
Q

After curative treatment of NSCLC, what should follow up monitoring look like?

A

history, PE and CT chest

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35
Q

What is treatment for pulmonary airway obstruction, SVC syndrome and spinal cord mets in lung cancer?

A

thoracic irradiation (helps pain)

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36
Q

What is the form of lung cancer that is distinct from SCC but behaves and treated similarly to SCLC?

A

large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma

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37
Q

T/F: Treat SCLC with poor performance status with chemotherapy

A

T-it can significantly improve symptoms and increase survival (same is NOT true of NSCLC)

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38
Q

What is another name for: (can see in gastric cancers)

1) periumbilical nodule
2) left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
3) enlarged ovary
4) mass in the cul de sac on rectal exam
5) explosive onset of seborrheic keratosis

A

1) Sister Mary Joseph node
2) Virchow node
3) Krunkenberg tumor
4) Blumer shelf
5) sign of Leser-Trelat

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39
Q

What is initial work up for gastric cancer?

A

upper endoscopy

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40
Q

What is therapy for localized gastric tumors?

A

neoadjuvant chemo followed by surgery

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41
Q

What chemo is used for metastatic gastric cancer?

A

cisplatin-based chemo; if overexpress HER2, then add trastuzumab; if MALT lymphoma and H pylori, then add antibiotics and PPI

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42
Q

Which patient is at highest risk for colorectal cancer? pancolitis or proctitis?

A

pancolitis

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43
Q

What is an autosomal dominant disorder that requires prophylactic colectomy?

A

familial adenomatous polyposis

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44
Q

What is the second leading cause of cancer death in familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

duodenal and periampullary cancers

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45
Q

What is a type of familial adenomatous polyposis with extraintestinal manifestations including osteomas, duodenal ampullary tumors, thyroid cancers, medulloblastomas?

A

Gardner syndrome

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46
Q

Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer) diagnostic criteria

A

> 3 relatives with CRC, 1 relative a first degree relative of the other two, >2 generations affected, cancer diagnosed before 50 yo

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47
Q

What are the mutations noted in Lynch syndrome? (2)

A

4 mismatch repair genes or epithelial cell adhesion molecule (EPCAM)

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48
Q

Which cancer is most common outside the GI system in Lynch syndrome?

A

endometrial cancer

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49
Q

How often do you screen:

1) first-degree relative diagnosed with adenomatous polyp or colon cancer <60 yo
2) 2 second-degree relatives with adenomatous polyp or colon cancer at any age
3) 2 first degree relatives with colon cancer
4) HNPCC risk (Lynch syndrome)
5) familial adenomatous polyposis risk
6) pancolitis

A

1) age 40 or 10 years prior to earliest diagnosis; check every 5 years
2) age 40 or 10 years prior to earliest diagnosis; check every 5 years
3) age 40 or 10 years prior to earliest diagnosis; check every 3-5 years
4) every 1-2 years starting at 20 or 25 years or 10 years earlier than the age of the youngest diagnosed with colon cancer
5) age 10-15 years with annual sigmoidoscopy
6) 8-10 years after initial diagnosis then every 1-2 years

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50
Q

Next colonoscopy?

1) 1-2 <10mm tubular adenomas
2) 3-10 adenomas, >10mm, villous histology, high grade dysplasia
3) >10 adenomas on a single exam

A

1) 5-10 years
2) 3 years
3) <3 years, genetic cause should be investigated

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51
Q

What is complete work up of colon cancer? (3)

A

colonoscopy, CT with contrast of C/A/P, serum CEA level

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52
Q

Colon cancer therapy

1) stage I (confined to colon) or stage II (local invasion)
2) stage III (metastatic to regional lymph nodes)
3) stage IV (distant mets)
4) stage II-III rectal cancer

A

1) resection for cure
2) resection and adjuvant chemo + FOLFOX or CAPOX
3) resection of primary lesion for palliation and chemo
4) radiation and chemo both before/after

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53
Q

What is treatment for colon cancer with single metatstatic lesion to a single organ?

A

surgical removal of priamry and met

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54
Q

What is treatment for metastatic colon cancer?

A

FOLFOX and FOLFIRI with bevacizumab (against VEGF) and cetuximab or panitumumab (anti-EGFR)
Don’t use anti-EGFR if have K ras or N ras patients
Don’t use both anti-VEGF and anti-EGFR agents together

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55
Q

Follow up for colon cancer after treatment (3)

A
  • CEA measurement q3-6 months for first 2 years then every 6 months for 3 years
  • colonoscopy 1 year after resection 3 years later, then every 5 years
  • CT C/A/P annually for 3-5 years
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56
Q

What infection is anal cancer associated with?

A

HPV

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57
Q

What is needed for staging of anal cancer?

A

DRE, anoscopy, inguinal LN palpation with biopsy or FNA if enlarged, CT C/A/P

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58
Q

What is treatment of anal cancer?

A

radiation with mitomycin + 5-FU

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59
Q

What is the most important way to prevent HCC?

A

hep B vaccine

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60
Q

How often to HCC screening in cirrhosis and chronic hep B (African Americans and Asian Americans)

A

abdominal US q6m; if positive, then order CT or MRI with contrast

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61
Q

What is the characteristic findings of HCC on CT/MRI?

A

arterial phase enhancement

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62
Q

What is a hepatic tumor/cyst that is characterized by:

1) early peripheral nodular enhancement on contrast CT/MRI followed by delayed fill-in toward the center of the lesion? tx?
2) early arterial enhancement with rapid loss of enhancement and return to isointensity in surrounding liver. Have h/o of using what drug? Tx?
3) early arterial enhancement with rapid loss of enhancement in portal venous phase with return to isointesnity. Many larger focal nodular hyperplasias have central stellate scare. Tx?
4) single or multiple hypoechoic lesions on US that are hypovascular on Contrast CT scans. Tx?

A

1) cavernous hemangioma-no treatment needed
2) hepatic adenoma; using OCPs; tx: resection
3) focal nodular hyperplasia; no tx needed
4) metastatic tumors; tx: resection if isolated

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63
Q

What is treatment for HCC?

A

surgical resection or liver transplant; can use percutaneous ethanol injection or radiofrequency ablation for those who are not candidates for resection or transplant; can use chemo for advanced HCC who are not candidates for an other treatment

64
Q

What can be used to improve overall survival in patients with advanced/metastatic HCC?

A

sorafenib

65
Q

What is the most important risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?

A

PSC

66
Q

How do you diagnose cholangiocarcinoma? What is the treatment?

A

ERCP with MRCP or contrast enhanced CT; treatment is surgery; chemo is reserved for nonresectable; can also do liver transplant if nonresectable, perihilar cholangiocarcinoma without extra hepatic spread

67
Q

T/F: if there is a percutaneous biopsy of perihilar cholangiocarcinoma, then that is an exclusion for transplant

A

True, worry about seeding

68
Q

What is another name for vascular thromboses that can be seen in pancreatic cancer?

A

Trousseau syndrome

69
Q

What is 2 advantages for doing endoscopic US for pancreatic cancers?

A

sensitive in detecting small cancers; tissue diagnosis by FNA

70
Q

What can resemble pancreatic cancer (need to measure IgG4 which is elevated in this doppleganger)

A

autoimmune pancreatitis

71
Q

What are 3 choices for treatment for a locally advanced, unresectable pancreatic disease (tumor went to SMA or celiac trunk)

A

1) radiation alone
2) 5-FU + radiation (most common)
3) single agent chemo (gemcitabine)

72
Q

What is the treatment for stage I cervical cancer?

A

loop electrosurgical excision procedure or cervical conization to preserve childbearing; if finish with childbearing, then can go hysterectomy without lymph node dissection

73
Q

What is the treatment for stage II-IV disease of cervical cancer?

A

radiation + cisplatin chemo

74
Q

What is the treatment for recurrent disease or distant mets for cervical cancer?

A

radiation and chemo + bevacizumab

75
Q

What should be offered to women at 35 yo or after childbearing who have BRCA1/2 genetic mutations or more than 2 first degree relatives with ovarian cancer?

A

oophorectomy

76
Q

T/F: If have adnexal mass without ascites, removal of mass without biopsy has survival benefit

A

T

77
Q

What is treatment for stage I and IB with grade 1 histology ovarian cancer?

A

remove ovaries

78
Q

What is the treatment for stage IC to IV ovarian cancer?

A

adjuvant platinum-based chemo

79
Q

What can be done in patients with ovarian cancer s/p surgery with small amounts of residual disease confined to the peritoneal cavity following surgery?

A

intraperitoneal chemo

80
Q

What two things are needed in ovarian cancer follow up?

A

pelvic exam and CA 125 measurement if it was elevated previously

81
Q

What is the treatment for endometrial cancer?

A

surgical resection of uterus, cervix and adnexa
can add radiation +/- chemo for higher risk disease
if high risk surgical patient, then radiation therapy alone

82
Q

T/F: tamoxifen puts women at risk for endometrial cancer

A

T

83
Q

T/F: Finasteride reduces incidence of prostate cancer but not cancer mortality rates and is not recommended for prevention

A

T

84
Q

T/F: acute urinary retention increases PSA level regardless of obstruction cause

A

T

85
Q

Prostate treatment:

1) very low risk cancer and life expectancy >10 years
2) high risk disease
3) metastatic disease

A

1) active surveillance
2) local therapy+ adjuvant ADT with GnRH agonist for 2-3 years
3) hormonal therapy = bilateral orchiectomy

86
Q

What are 3 types of local therapy for prostate cancer?

A

external beam radiotherapy, brachytherapy, radical prostatectomy

87
Q

What can be used in castration-sensitive disease in prostate cancer?

A

docetaxel

88
Q

What can be used in castrate resistant prostate cancer?

A

bicalutamide, ketoconazole, megestrol, glucocorticoids, estrogens, abiraterone, enzalutamide

89
Q

What is the first line treatment in hormone-refractory metastatic prostate cancer?

A

docetaxel + prednisone

90
Q

What is a strong risk factor for testicular cancer?

A

cryptorchidism

91
Q

What is the best way to obtain tissue to test for testicular cancer? inguinal orchiectomy or needle biopsy?

A

inguinal orchiectomy

92
Q

Which hormone is NOT elevated in a pure seminoma? b-hCG, LDH or AFP?

A

AFP

93
Q

T/F: hCG can be present in both seminomatous and nonseminomatous tumors

A

True

94
Q

What is the treatment for seminoma testicular cancer in the following situations:

1) low risk/early stage
2) treatment recommended
3) intermediate disease (stage II A-B)
4) advanced disease (stage IIC or III)
5) nonpulmonary visceral mets

A

1) observation
2) carboplatin chemo
3) cisplatin-based chemo (preferred) or radiation
4) cisplatin based chemo
5) cisplatin based chemo

95
Q

What is the treatment for nonseminoma testicular cancers in the following situations:

1) stage I
2) bulky retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy
3) advanced disease (IIC or III)
4) postop elevated serum tumor markers without radiographic evidence of disease
5) if tumor markers have normalized

A

1) active surveillance, cisplatin-based chemo or retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
2) cisplatin chemo
3) cisplatin chemo
4) chemo
5) surgical resection of residual mass (may be terotoma)

96
Q

What cancer can a sudden varicocele be?

A

renal cell carcinoma

97
Q

Which cancer can be associated with paraneoplastic syndromes (erythrocytosis, AA amyloidosis, polymyalgia rheumatic and hepatic dysfunction)

A

renal cell carcinoma

98
Q

T/F: For suspected renal cell carcinoma, resect the large lesions without biopsy

A

T

99
Q

What is the early-stage localized renal cancer treatment?

A

partial/radical nephrectomy

100
Q

What is the treatment for metastatic renal cell carcinoma and good functional status?

A

debulking nephrectomy

101
Q

What are PD1 antibody immunotherapy for renal cell carcinoma?

A

pembrolizumab or nivolumab

102
Q

What are 3 targeted therapies that can be used for renal cell carcinoma?

A

VEGF inhibitors, mTOR inhibitors, immunotherapy with PD1 antibodies

103
Q

What categories is the following therapies for renal cell carcinoma?

1) bevacizumab
2) sunitinib, sorafenib, pazopanib, axitinib
3) temsirolimus, everolimus

A

1) VEGF inhib

2) VEGF tyrosine kinase inhib

104
Q

What can be given to decrease skeletal complications and delay bone lesions in renal cel carcinoma?

A

Zoledronate

105
Q

What are the 4 types of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary, follicular, medullary, anaplastic

106
Q

Medullary thyroid cancer (elevated calcitonin level) + pheochromocytoma + hyperparathyroidism (kidney stones, hypercalcemia)=what syndrome?

A

MEN2A

107
Q

Medulllary thyroid cancer (elevated calcitonin level)+ pheochromocytoma+ hyperparathyroidism (kidney stones, hypercalcemia) + marfanoid habitus and ganglioneuromas = what syndrome?

A

MEN2B

108
Q

What is the biopsy study for thyroid cancer? Which gene mutation should be looked for?

A

FNA

BRAF gene mutation

109
Q

What is the BRAF gene mutation specific for? (2)

A

1) papillary carcinoma

2) more agressive thyroid cancer

110
Q

Which gene is associated with inherited forms of medullary thyroid cancer?

A

RET proto-oncogene

111
Q

What is the treatment for papillary and follicular thyroid cancer? Medullary thyroid cancer?

A

total thyroidectomy + radioiodine therapy

Medullary cancer=total thyroidectomy and neck dissection (cannot updake radioiodine)

112
Q

T/F: chemo does not prolong or improve quality of life for metastatic thyroid cancer

A

T

113
Q

What kind of biopsy is needed for diagnosis of lymphoma?

A

excisional biopsy (avoid FNA)

114
Q

What are 2 other tests that you need after diagnosis of lymphoma is made?

A

total body CT scan with PET and bone marrow biopsy

115
Q

What are 4 examples of indolent lymphomas?

A

follicular lymphoma, MALT, CLL, hairy cell leukemia

may not require therapy

116
Q

What are 3 examples of aggressive lymphomas

A

diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, mantle cell lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma

Need immediate therapy

117
Q

Which lymphoma has a cytogenetic analysis showing translocation of t14:18 with overexpression of bcl-2 oncogene?

A

follicular lymphoma

118
Q

What is the treatment for the following stages of follicular lymphoma?

1) asymptomatic
2) localized symptoms
3) symptomatic, systemic disease
4) curative but significant morbidity and mortality

A

1) no treatment
2) radiation with rituximab
3) rituximab + multiagent chemo
4) stem cell transplant

119
Q

Which lymphoma is associated with H pylori?

A

MALT lymphoma

120
Q

Which lymphoma is associated with sludge cells, flow cytometry with CD5 and CD23?

A

CLL

121
Q

What is the treatment for CLL?

A

1) asymptomatic=none

2) symptomatic=riximab + multiagent chemo (chlorambucil and irbrutinib)

122
Q

What are 2 other autoimmune diseases are seen with CLL?

A

ITP and hemolytic anemia

123
Q

T/F: There is an increased risk for transformation from CLL to large cell lymphoma

A

T

124
Q

What can be given to prevent infection in CLL?

A

IVIG if IgG is low

125
Q

Which lymphoma is characterized by pancytopenia and progressive splenomegaly without lymphadenopathy? There is an unsucessful bone marrow

A

Hairy cell leukemia

126
Q

What is the treatment for hairy cell leukemia?

A

Cladribine

127
Q

What are 2 of the most aggressive forms of large cell lymphoma? What is the treatment?

A

burkitt lymphoma and lymphoblastic lymphoma

treatment: ALL

128
Q

What is treatment for mantle cell lymphoma?

A

Stem cell transplant

129
Q

Which lymphoma presents with a palpable, firm lymphadenopathy or mediastinal mass?

A

Hodkin lymphoma

130
Q

T/F: A bone marrow biopsy is needed to work up hodgkin lymphoma

A

F; just need PET scanning

131
Q

What is the treatment for hodgkin lymphoma?

A

ABVD followeed by radiation; if recurrent disease, then HSCT

132
Q

What disease should be monitored after treatment of hodgkin lymphoma?

A

viral infections and secondary cancers (breast, lung, skin) and MDS

Start annual mammography +/- MRI breast screening

133
Q

T/F: Patients with Hodkin lymphoma w/ h/o mediastinal radiation who presents with chest pain should be evaluated for CAD

A

T; regardless of age!

134
Q

What is the treatment for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP +/- radiation if have bulky disease

135
Q

Which lymphoma causes mycosis funoides and if circulates in blood, Sezary syndrome?

A

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma (raised plaques, diffuse skin erythema and skin ulcers progressing to organ infiltration and immunodeficiency)

136
Q

Which lymphoma has a cerebriform-appearing nuclei?

A

Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

137
Q

What is the treatment for cutaneous T cell lymphoma?

1) early stage limited to skin
2) advance stage
3) young people

A

1) topical glucocorticoids
2) electron-beam radiation, photopheresis, monoclonal antibodies
3) HSCT

138
Q

What is the work up and treatment for the following CUP:

1) axillary lymphadenopathy in women
2) isolated cervical lymphadenopathy
3) isolated inguinal lymphadenopathy

A

1) breast MRI–>tx according to stage or if neg, treat as stage II
2) upper endoscopy, bronch, laryngoscopy–>if negative, then chemo+radiation like in head and neck cancer
3) anorectal, genital, perineal exam–>if neg, then treat with lymph node resection or locoregional radiation

139
Q

What is the work up and treatment for the following CUP:

1) peritoneal carcinomatosis and ascites
2) midline non-adenocarcinoma of mediastinum or retorperitoneum

A

1) treat as ovarian carcinoma with cytoreductive surgery and chemo
2) measure AFP and beta-hCG, perform testicular exam and US–>treat with platinum-containing germ cell tumor regimens

140
Q

What are side effects of the following to cards:

1) doxorubicin
2) tamoxifen
3) trastuzumab
4) mediastinal radiation

A

1) dose related HF (irreversible)
2) VTE
3) non dose related HF (reversible)
4) myocardial, valvular, pericardial fibrosis, premature CAD

141
Q

What are the side effects of the following to pulm:

1) bleomycin
2) radiation

A

1) pulmonary toxicity, usually pneumonitis

2) radiation-induced pneumonitis

142
Q

What are the side effects of the following to reproductive system:

1) Chemo
2) tamoxifen

A

1) premature ovarian failure, male infertility

2) endometrial cancer

143
Q

What are the side effects of the following:

1) radiation to head and neck

A

1) hypothyroidism

144
Q

What are the side effects of the following to the MSK?

1) aromatase inhibitor
2) leuprolide, goserelin, castration

A

1) osteoporosis

2) osteoporosis

145
Q

What are the side effects of the following–risk of secondary cancers

1) mantle radiation
2) chemo (breast cancer)

A

1) breast, lung, esophageal cancer

2) MDS and acute leukemia

146
Q

What are the side effects of the following to the kidney and bladder?

1) cisplatin and ifosfamide
2) cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide

A

1) renal tubular damage and CKD

2) hemorrhage cystitis

147
Q

What are the associated infections with the following cancers:

1) cervical and anal cancers
2) kaposi sarcoma
3) hodgkin lymphoma

A

1) HPV, HIV–risk proportional to number of partners
2) HHS8, HIV; don’t confuse with bacillary angiomatosis (bartonellosis)
3) EBV

148
Q

What are the associated infections with the following cancers:

1) Burkitt lymphoma
2) MALT lymphoma
3) HCC
4) nonhodgkin lymphoma

A

1) EBV t(8; 14) positive, HIV, oral and nasopharyngeal cancer and posttransplantation lymphoma
2) H pylori
3) cirrhosis and hep C or B
4) HIV

149
Q

What are the associated infections with the following cancers:

1) nasopharynx cancers
2) oropharynx cancers

A

1) EBV

2) HPV

150
Q

What disease is seen with PTH-related protein in pattient with hypercalcemia of unknown cause?

What is treatment for this hypercalcemia?

A

tumor if this is elevated

tx: volume repletion with normal saline followed by forced diuresis with normal saline; can use bisphosphonates for long-term control; add glucocorticoids in steroid-sensitive malignancies (myeloma/lymphoma)

151
Q

What is treatment for VTE with underlying cancer?

A

LMWH (if can’t use, then IVC filter)

152
Q

what is treatment for metastatic brain tumor?

1) minimally sx dz
2) advanced dz
3) isolated brain met
4) multiple brain mets

A

1) oral glucocorticoids
2) osmotic diuresis and IV glucocorticoids
3) surgical excision + radiation
4) radiation (if solid tumor) or chemo (leukemia, lymphoma)

153
Q

What is the treatment for spinal cord compression 2/2 mets?

A

glucocorticoids + decompressive surgery + radiation; can also use chemo if have lymphoma or breast cancer

154
Q

What complication occurs with SOB, cough, facial edema, plethora, swollen arms, JVD, stridor, prominent collateral veins on the anterior chest wall? Dx and tx?

A

superior vena cava syndrome

dx: tissue biopsy and mediastinoscopy or percutaneous transthoracic CT guided needle biopsy
tx: glucocorticoids and diuretics

155
Q

Management for the following neutropenic fevers:

1) high risk
2) low risk

A

1) cefepime or zosyn or carbapenam

2) cipro + augmentin

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