Online Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
what does this describe histologically?
appearance of intradepidermal vesicles and spongiosis
A
dermatitis
2
Q
what does this describe histologically?
parakeratosis and micro-abscesses
A
psoriasis
3
Q
what does this describe histologically?
fluid filled bulla, +/- split through DEJ
A
bullous
4
Q
what is the enzyme defect and build up of enzyme in PCT?
A
defect: uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
build up: uroporphyrinogen
5
Q
what is the enzyme defect and build up in EP?
A
defect: ferrocheletase
build up: protoporphyrins
6
Q
what is the enzyme defect and build up in AIP?
A
defect: PBG deaminase
build up: porphyrins
7
Q
first line treatment for acne rosacea
A
topical metronidazole
8
Q
first line treatment for acne vulgaris
A
benzyl peroxide/topical clindamycin
9
Q
which insulin do you give once a day?
A
basal bolus = long acting e.g Lantus/ Levemir
10
Q
what diabetic drugs are weight neutral?
A
DPP4 inhibitors; GLIPTINS
11
Q
name some rapid acting insulin
A
humalog, novorapid, apidra
12
Q
name some short acting insulin
A
humulin S, actarapid, insuman rapid
13
Q
name some intermediate acting insulin
A
insulatard, humulin I, insuman basal
14
Q
name some long acting insulin
A
lantus, levemir
15
Q
which diabetic drug helps weight loss
A
metformin, incretin analogues (modest weight loss), SGLT2 inhibitors
16
Q
which diabetic drugs cause weight gain
A
sulphonylureas, TZDs
17
Q
which diabetic drugs help prevent macrovascular complications
A
TZDs
18
Q
what diabetic drugs help with microvascular complications
A
Sulfonylureas
19
Q
which diabetic drug helps with both macro and micro complications
A
Metformin
20
Q
biochem results in Pagets
A
normal Ca + phosphate, high ALP
21
Q
which drug causes reactivation of latent TB
A
TNF alpha inhibitors
22
Q
what nerve is compressed in cubital tunnel syndrome?
A
ulnar
23
Q
what DMARD causes interstitial pneumonitis
A
Methotrexate
24
Q
what rheum drugs are nephrotoxic?
A
gold, penicillamine
25
what vaccinations at 2 months?
5in1, men b, PCV, rotavirus
26
what vaccinations at 3 months
5in1, men c, rotavirus
27
what vaccinations at 4 months
5 in 1, men b, PCV
28
what vaccinations at 1 year
Hib, Men C, PCV, MMR, men b
29
what vaccinations 2-11 years
flu, 5in1, MMR
30
what does the 5 in 1 vaccine contain
diptheria, Hib, polio, pertussis, tetanus
31
what vaccines are live attenuated
MMR, polio
32
what vaccines are inactivated
pertussis
33
what vaccines still have components of virus in them
influenza, pneumococcal, diptheria, tetanus
34
describe gross motor skill at 6 weeks
head held in vertical
35
describe gross motor skill at 6 months
can roll from stomach to back, push up with arms and weight bear
36
describe gross motor skill at 12 months
can cruise around furniture
37
describe gross motor at 2 years
can do stairs with both feet
38
describe gross motor at 4 years
runs, hops
39
describe fine motor at 6 weeks
follows torch
40
describe fine motor at 6 months
moves objects from hand to hand, palmar grasp
41
describe fine motor at 12 months
neat pincer grip
42
describe fine motor at 2 years
6/7 block tower, can draw circle
43
describe fine motor at 4 years
can thread beads, draw cross/man
44
describe language at 6 weeks
stills to voice
45
describe language at 6 months
babbles (mono)
46
describe language at 12 months
knows own name
47
describe language at 2 years
knows 50+ words, can follow instructions
48
describe language at 4 years
stories, sentences and can count to 20
49
describe social at 6 weeks
social smile
50
describe social at 6 months
still friendly with strangers
51
describe social at 12 months
drinks from cup, waves bye bye
52
describe social at 2 years
hat, shoes, symbolic play
53
describe social at 4 years
can dress themselves
54
define attachment
psychological model to describe dynamics of relationships
55
what attachment is this describing?
child readily explores, uses carer as a secure base, confident
secure attachment
56
anxious attachment description?
child avoids or ignores parent, strangers not treated much differently from parent
57
anxious ambivalent description
wary of strangers, usually distressed, ambivalent when parent returns
58
what is animism?
belief that everything has some kind of consciousness
59
BPPV vertigo lasts for?
seconds to minutes
60
Diagnosis of BPPV
Dix Hallpike
61
treatment of BPPV
Epley manoeuvre
62
compression of the facial nerve in the facial canal causes what?
Bells palsy
63
what is ramsay hunt syndrome?
reactivation of Varicella Zoster in geniculate ganglion of facial nerve
64
the first feature of ramsay hunt is usually?
auricular pain
65
what type of rash is seen in ramsay hunt and where?
vesicular rash around ear
66
how do you manage ramsay hunt?
aciclovir and corticosteroids
67
another name for high eye
hypertropia
68
another name for low eye
hypotropia
69
what is esotropia?
convergent squint, eye looking inwards
70
what is exotropia?
divergent squint, eye looking outwards
71
primary movement of medial rectus
ADduction
72
primary movement of lateral rectus
ABduction
73
describe oculomotor palsy
exotropia and hypotropia, fixed dilated pupil
74
painful oculomotor palsy makes you think what?
aneurysm
75
describe trochlear nerve palsy
hypertropia, vertical diplopia, head held tilted, cannot look down and in
76
describe abducens palsy
esotropia, horizontal diplopia,
77
first line treatment for BPH
alpha blockers - tamsulosin
78
second line treatment for BPH
5 alpha reductase - finestride
79
diagnosis of BPH
PSA antigen, before PR exam and TRUS with biopsy
80
what is the first line investigation for hydrocele
doppler
81
GFR in stage 3 CKD
30-60
82
what do you give for high blood pressure in someone with renal disease?
ACEi
83
Churg-strauss antibody?
pANCA (anti-MPO)
84
wegners antibody?
cANCA (anti-PR3)
85
goodpastures antibody?
anti-GBM
86
common symptoms of nephritic syndrome and causes
haematuria, hypertension
rapidly progressive GN, IgA nephropathy, Alport syndrome
87
common symptoms of nephrotic syndrome and causes
proteinuria, oedema
minimal change disease, membranous GN, focal segmental, amyloidosis, diabetic nephropathy
88
causes of both nephritic and nephrotic
diffuse proliferative, membranoproliferative, post-streptococcal
89
upper arm compartment
APMR
90
4arm (A)
pmuf
91
4arm (P)
SER
92
thigh (a)
Ft E femoral
93
thigh (p)
F Et sciatic (tibial division)
94
thigh (m)
AO
95
leg (a)
AD, TF, d.fib
96
leg (p)
AP, TE, tib
97
leg (l)
FE, WP. super fib
98
segmental fracture is
fracture in 2 places
99
communited fracture is
fracture with 3 or more parts
100
oblique fracture is
diagonal looking, shearing force
101
spiral fracture is
torsional force, unstable
102
transverse fracture is
bending force, straight break
103
greenstick fracture is
bone bends and breaks
104
buckle fracture is
incomplete fracture of shaft
105
Bartons fracture is
intra-articular fracture of distal radius
106
Chauffeurs fracture is
intra-articular fracture of radial styloid
107
Colles fracture
fracture of distal radius, dorsal and radial displacement, dinner fork deformity
108
smiths fracture
reverse colles
109
Monteggia fracture
proximal ulnar break, radial head dislocation
110
Galezzi fracture
radial fracture, dislocation of distal radio ulnar joint
111
what is the most common Salter Harris fracture? describe it
Salter Harris type 2;
| physeal fracture with small metaphyseal fragment attached
112
crystals seen in gout are?
monosodium urate
113
appearance of gout on polarised microscopy
needle shaped, negative bifringence
114
acute attack of gout treatment
NSAIDs, corticosteroids, opioids, cholchicine
115
chronic treatment of gout
acute treatment + allopurinol
116
pseudogout crystals are?
calcium pyrophosphate
117
side effect of Methotrexate
liver cirrhosis, pneumonitis
118
side effect of sulfasalazine
rash, oligiospermia, anaemia
119
side effect of hydroxychloroquine
retinopathy, corneal deposits
120
side effect of prednisolone
cushingoid, osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts
121
side effect of gold/penicillamine
proteinuria
122
patient with diabetes symptoms; what is the diabetic criteria?
fasting glucose = 7
random glucose = 11
123
patient has no symptoms of diabetes what is the criteria?
fasting glucose = 7, random glucose = 11
has to be shown on 2 different occasions
124
screening test for Acromegaly
serum IGF-1
125
diagnostic test for acromegaly
oral glucose tolerance test
126
tests for addisons
short synacthen test, anti-21-hydroxylase, 9am serum cortisol
127
test for Conns
bloods; excess aldosterone, high NaCl + H20, low K
128
testing for adrenal hyperplasia
plasma aldosterone + renin ratio
129
if plasma aldosterone + renin ratio is above 2, what test is performed?
saline suppression test
130
Cushings tests
low dose dexamethasone
24 hour urinary free cortisol
131
what test is done to determine between pituitary, adrenal or ectopic cushings?
high dexamethasone
132
what antibodies are seen in Hashimotos?
anti TPO, anti-Tg
133
how to test for Phaemochromocytoma?
urinary catecholamines, 131 iodine MIBG
134
anterior pituitary hormones
GH, ACTH, TSH, PRL, FSH, LH
135
posterior pituitary hormones
oxytocin, ADH
136
treatment for addisons
hydrocortisone to replace cortisol
fludro to replace aldosterone
137
treatment of Conns
surgery
138
treatment of adrenal hyperplasia
spironolactone
139
treatment of cushings
Metyrapone (11b-hydroxylase blocker)
140
treatment of Phaeo
surgical excision, alpha and beta blockade
141
side effect of carbimazole
agranulocytosis
142
describe MEN 1
parathyroid, pituitary, pancreas
gene = MEN1
common presentation = hypercalcaemia
143
describe MEN2a
medullary thyroid, parathyroid, phaeo
gene = RET
144
describe MEN2b
medullary thyroid, Phaeo
145
zona glomerulosa produces, under control of?
minerals = aldosterone
RAAS
146
zona fasiculata produces
glucos = cortisol, ACTH
147
zona reticularis produces
sex hormones, ACTH
148
adrenal medulla produces
catecholamines, sympathetic nervous system
149
what do the thyroid parafollicular cells produce?
calcitonin
150
what do the thyroid follicular cells produce?
thyroglobulin
151
hypothalamic hormones; releasing
GHRH, PRH, TRH, CRH, GnRH
152
hypothalamic hormones; inhibiting
somatostatin, dopamine
153
muscles of the thenar compartment?
abductor pollicus, opponens pollicus
154
treatment of athletes foot?
terbinafine
155
treatment of septic arthritis? coverage of these Abx
flucloxacillin, ceftrioxone for kingella cover
156
treatment of otitis externa
aural toilet (acetic acid)
157
treatment of pyelonephritis
co-amoxiclav or co-trimoxazole
158
describe the events leading up to a non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy
```
hyperglycaemia
pericyte death
thickening of BM
vascular permiability
retinal oedema
hard exudates
```
159
swan neck deformity?
hyper PIP, flex DIP
160
boutoneirres deformity?
hyperDIP, flex PIP
