Operating Limitations Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Torque limits: Normal range

A

0-104%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Torque limits: Max

A

107.8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

RPM: Min

A

64%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RPM: Normal

A

65-101.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

RPM: Normal In-flight range

A

82-100.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

RPM: Max

A

105.5% for 30sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EGT: Min

A

300C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EGT: Normal In-flight range

A

350-650C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

EGT: Max

A

675C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Oil temp: Normal In-flight range

A

56-110C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Oil temp: Max In-flight temp

A

115C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Oil px: Normal px operating range

A

50-120psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Oil px: Max px

A

126psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fuel: Min feed px

A

16psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Fuel: Normal px range

A

18-55psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fuel: Max feed px

A

60psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fuel: Normal temp range

A

-21 - 50C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Electrical: A/c system voltage

A

28VDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Electrical: Max system voltage

A

32 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Electrical: Min bus volt fuel heater auto shutoff

A

26 V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aircraft performance: AOA range

A

-6 to +10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aircraft performance: Vne

A

230 IAS / 249 TAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aircraft performance: Max gear in tx speed

A

135 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aircraft performance: Max gear ext speed

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Aircraft performance: Max speed on 90F+ Climb out, 45 min
135 KIAS
26
Aircraft performance: Va at max weight
158 KIAS | -4.5 kts/ 500lbs less than max gross weight
27
Weights: Max ramp weight
10500 lbs
28
Weights: Max landing weight
8500 lbs
29
Weights: Max fuel weight
3764 lbs
30
AN/DAS-1: Operating temp
-40C to +55C
31
AN/DAS-1: Laser lockout zone
- 110 - +110 Az / +5 Dep | - 180 - +180 Az/ -10 Dep
32
the deec will not allow RPM to dwell between xx.x and xx.x%
89.5 to 92.5
33
Normal EGT start range
695-700 C
34
What is the EGT max for start only?
770-776 C for 1 sec
35
Continuous engine ground ops with oil temperature between xxx and xxx are authorized with torque below xx%
116 & 127 below 86%
36
flight ops with oil temp between xxx and xxx are authorized for up to x min with torque below xx%
110 and 127 for 5min below 86%
37
oil temp low red and yellow indications activate at xx and xx. If oil temp is below xx , refer to Low Oil Temp procedure.
40 C and 45 C
38
Min oil temp for start
-20C
39
high oil px yellow caution limit
120 psi
40
if fuel feed px is below xx psi, the RCM auto turns on pump not in use and displays a pump failure warning.
15 psi
41
fuel feed pressure min
16 psi
42
fuel feed px normal range
18-55 psi
43
max fuel feed px
60 psi
44
fuel tank min temp
-31C
45
fuel tank normal temp range
-21-50C
46
max fuel tank temp
56C
47
are there operating temp limits for the manifold fuel temperature?
no
48
in automatic dump mode, how many fuel tanks will be selected (if theres fuel in them) and in what order?
2 tanks. wing tanks first, then fuselage
49
In manual dump mode, how many tanks are selected?
only 1
50
fuel dump rate via primary valve 1 tank selected
3000pph for all tanks
51
dump rate via backup valve 2 tanks selected
950 pph
52
dump rate via backup valve 1 tank selected
1950 pph
53
dump rate via primary dump valve 2 wing tanks selected
2000 pph
54
dump rate via primary valve 2 tanks selected (forward tank)
2100 pph
55
dump rate via primary valve 2 tanks selected (aft tank)
1900 pph
56
A landing gear fault is generated if gear extension/retraction is completed in less than xx sec or more than xx sec
11 or 29
57
what AOA equates to best rate of climb speed?
2 AOA
58
max altitude
fl 520
59
max alt for air start
fl300
60
3 prohibited maneuvers
intentional stalls, spins, inverted flight
61
AOA op range
-6 through +10
62
"stall conditions - exceeding limits" is triggered in the GCS when the commanded bank angle would exceed Cl of x.xx
1.25
63
max fuel weight
3764lbs
64
empty weight
4900 lbs
65
useful load (GTOW - empty weight)
5600 lbs
66
inboard wing stations
1500 lbs
67
middle wing stations (2/6)
750 lbs
68
outboard wing stations
150 lbs
69
wingspan
66'
70
wing area
256 sq ft
71
wing aspect ratio
16:1
72
wing root chord
65.2"
73
wing tip chord
28.8"
74
overall fuselage length
36.2'
75
fuselage height
11.8'
76
propeller diameter
110"
77
define empty weight
airframe structure, unusable fuel, full operational support fluids
78
define useful load
payload + fuel + operational avionics + ballast
79
define gross weight
empty weight + useful load
80
The MQ9 is equipped with a Honeywell "xxx" turboprop engine
TPE331-10YGD
81
how much of the mechanical shaft power produced by the engine is used to rotate (drive) the compressor?
approximately 2/3
82
when operating in normal mode, the DEEC controls what 2 functions of the engine?
throttle and speed
83
How many servos does the DEEC have and what are they?
2, throttle and stop/feather
84
the DEEC controlled RPM in-flight ops range
82.5% to 100.5%
85
what are the DEECs secondary functions? (6x)
1. engine torque and temp limiting 2. engine speed switches (10% fuel + ignitors on, 60% starter/ignitor switch off, 80% SRL activations switch) 3. auto fuel enrichment 4. SRL EGT conditioning 5. closed loop power control 6. engine/deec fault monitoring
86
engine dry weight?
375lbs
87
installed weight with propeller
525lbs
88
reduction gearbox ratio
26:1
89
shaft horsepower
900
90
jet thrust
157lbs max continuous
91
total takeoff thrust
2000lbs (standard day, sea level)
92
reverse thrust
700lbs (standard day, sea level)
93
propeller shaft RPM
1591 max continuous
94
oil type
exxon/bp turbine oil 2380 (type II)
95
propeller pitch range
-15 to +90
96
what mechanical actions cause the BETA light to illuminate?
the governor oil pump sends full discharge px approx. 450psi to pitch controller and beta switch which closes and illuminates the BETA indication on the HUD
97
the BETA light may not illuminate if engine RPM is less than
85% due to lower oil px
98
when the throttle is moved past the flight idle position, RPM will transition from xx% to xx%. At xx% RPM, the BETA light should extinguish regardless of speed lever position.
65 to 82. 82%
99
If the BETA light illuminates in flight 1 of 5 conditions may be present
1. rigging problem 2. low fuel flow 3. failed beta switch 4. insufficient airspeed 5. improperly calibrated throttle
100
what does the feathering valve do?
sends oil px to the PCU in response to NTS (negative torque sensing), the deec or condition lever activation
101
what does the unfeather pump do?
electronic oil pump supplies oil px to force the prop blades from feathered position onto start locks = flat position
102
the engine lubrication system is a wet/dry sump that provides a constant supply of clean filtered oil to ...(4x) The system also...(2x)
dry 1. bearings 2. reduction gears 3. accessory drives 4. prop control system 1. cools engine components 2. carries away impurities to oil filter