Operation Of Systems Flashcards
(107 cards)
1
Q
What are the four main control surfaces and what are their functions? (FAA-H-8083-25)
A
elevators - the elevators control the movement of the airplane about its lateral axis. This motion is called pitch.
Ailerons - the ailerons control the airplane’s movement about its longitudinal axis. This motion is called roll
Rudder - the rudder controls movement of the airplane about its vertical axis. This motion is called yaw.
Trim tabs - trim tabs are small, adjustable hinged-surfaces on the aileron, rudder, or elevator control surfaces. They are labor-saving devices that enable the pilot to release manual pressure on the primary control
2
Q
How are the various flight controls operated? (AFM)
A
The flight control surfaces are manually actuated through use of either a rod or cable system. A control wheel actuates the ailerons and elevator, and rudder/ brake pedals actuate the rudder
3
Q
What are flaps and what is their function? (FAA-H-8082-25)
A
The wing flaps are movable panels on the inboard trailing edges of the wings. They are hinged so that they may be extended downward into the flow of air beneath the wings to increase both lift and drag. Their purpose is the permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance.
4
Q
Describe the landing gear system on this airplane (AFM)
A
The landing gear consists of a tricycle-type system utilizing two main wheels an a steerable nose wheel. Tubular spring steel main gear struts provide main gear shock absorption, while nose gear shock absorption is provided by a combination air/oil shock strut.
5
Q
Describe the braking system on this aircraft (AFM)
A
Hydraulically actuated isa-type brakes are utilized on each main gear wheel. A hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilot’s rudder pedals. By applying pressure to the top of either the pilot’s or copilot’s set of rudder pedals, the brakes may be applied
6
Q
What type of hydraulic fluid does your aircraft use and what color is it? (FAA-H-8083-25, FAA-H-808-31)
A
a
7
Q
How is steering accomplished on the ground (AFM)
A
Light airplanes are generally provided with nose wheel steering capabilities through a simple system of mechanical linkage connected to the rudder pedals, When a rudder pedal is depressed, a spring-loaded bungee (push-pull rod) connected to the pivotal portion of a nose wheel strut will turn the nose wheel
8
Q
What type of engine does your aircraft have
A
a
9
Q
What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?
A
Intake - begins as the piston starts its downward travel causing the intake valve to open and the fuel-air mixture to be drawn into the cylinder
Compression - begins when the intake valve closes, and the piston starts moving back to the top of the cylinder. This phase of the cycle is used to obtain a much greater power output from the fuel-air mixture once it is ignited
Power - begins when the fuel-air mixture is ignited which causes a tremendous pressure increase in the cylinder and forces the piston downward away from the cylinder head, creating the power that turns the crankshaft.
Exhaust - is used to purge the cylinder of burned gases and begins when the exhaust valve opens, and the piston starts to move toward the cylinder head once again.
10
Q
What does the carburetor do?
A
Carburetaion may be defined as the process of mixing fuel and air in the correct proportions so as to form a combustible mixture. The carburetor vaporizes liquid fuel into small particles and then mixes it in with air. It measures the airflow and meters fuel accordingly.
11
Q
How does the carburetor heat system work?
A
A carburetor heat valve, controlled by the pilot, allows unfiltered, heated air from a shroud located around an exhaust riser or muffler to be directed to the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor. Carburetor heat should be used anytime suspected or known carburetor icing conditions exist.
12
Q
What change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carburetor heat?
A
Normally, the introduction of heated air into the carburetor will result in a richer mixture. Warm air is less dense, resulting in less air for the same amount of fuel. use of carburetor heat can cause a decrease in engine power of up to 15 percent.
13
Q
What does the throttle do?
A
The throttle allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders. This in turn regulates the engine speed and power.
14
Q
What does the mixture control do?
A
It regulates the fuel-to-air ratio. All airplane engines incorporate a device called a mixture control, by which the fuel/air ratio can be controlled by the pilot during flight. The purpose of a mixture control is to prevent the mixture from becoming too rich at high altitudes, due to decreasing air density. It is also used to lean the mixture during cross-country flights to conserve fuel and provide optimum power.
15
Q
Describe a fuel injection system installed in some aircraft.
A
The fuel injection system injects fuel directly into the cylinders, or just ahead of the intake valve. It incorporates six basic components:
- Engine-driven fuel pump-provides fuel under pressure from the fuel tank to the fuel/air control unit
- Fuel/air control unit-meters fuel used on the mixture control setting and sends it to the fuel manifold valve at a rate controlled by the throttle.
- Fuel manifold valve-distributes fuel to the individual fuel discharge nozzles
- Discharge nozzles-located in each cylinder head, these inject the fuel/air mixture at the precise time for each cylinder directly into each cylinder intake port
- Auxiliary fuel pump- provides fuel under pressure to fuel/air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use.
- Fuel Pressure/flow indicators - measures metered fuel pressure / flow
16
Q
What type of ignition system does your airplane have?
A
a
17
Q
What are the two main advantages of a dual ignition system?
A
Increased safety in case one system fails the engine may be operated on the other until a landing is safely made
More complete and even combustion of the mixture, and consequently, improved engine performance; i.e., the fuel/air mixture will be ignited on each side of the combustion chamber and burn toward the center.
18
Q
What type of fuel system does your aircraft have?
A
The fuel system is a “gravity feed” system. Using gravity, the fuel flows from two wing fuel tanks to a fuel shutoff valve which, in the “on” position, allows fuel to flow through a strainer and then to the carburetor. From there, the fuel is mixed with air and then flows into the cylinders through the intake manifold tubes.
19
Q
What purpose do fuel tank vents have?
A
As the fuel level in an aircraft fuel tank decreases, a vacuum would be created within the tank which would eventually result in a decreasing fuel flow and finally engine stoppage. Fuel system venting provides a way of replacing fuel with outside air, preventing formation of a vacuum.
20
Q
Does your aircraft use a fuel pump?
A
a
21
Q
What type of fuel does your aircraft require (minimum octane rating and color)
A
100LL and Blue
22
Q
Can other types of fuel be sued if the specified grade is not available
A
Airplane engines are designed to operate using a specific grade of fuel and recommended by the manufacturer. If the proper grade of fuel is not available, it is possible, but not desirable to use the next higher grade as a substitute. Always reference the aircraft/s AFM or POH. Auto gas should never be used in aircraft engines unless the aircraft has been modified with the FAA issued Supplemental Type Certificate
23
Q
What color is Jet A what color is 100LL
A
100LL Blue
Jet A Colorless
24
Q
If a non-turbine piston engine powered airplane is accidentally filed with JET A fuel, will it start
A
Yes. Reciproacting engines may run briefly on the jet fuel, but detonation and overheating will soon cause power failure. When an aircraft that requires Avgas is inadvertently fuel with Jet A, there is usually a small amount of Avgas remaining in the aircraft’s fuel system. This remaining fuel can enable an aircraft to taxi, perform an engine run-up, and possibly even take off before experiencing a catastrophic engine failure.
25
What is the function of the manual primer, and how does it operate?
The manual primer's main function is to provide assistance in starting the engine. The primer draws fuel from the fuel strainer and injects it directly into the cylinder intake ports. This usually results in a quicker, more efficient engine start.
26
Describe the electrical system on your aircraft?
a
27
How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected?
Most of the electrical circuits in an airplane are protected from an overload condition by either circuit breakers or fuses or both. Circuit breakers perform the same function as fuses except that when an overload occurs, a circuit breaker can be reset.
28
The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane?
```
Normally, the following:
a. Radio equipment
b. Turn coordinator
c. Fuel gauges
d. Pitot heat
e. Landing light
f. Taxi light
g. Strobe lights
h. Interior lights
I. Instrument lights
j. Position lights
k. Flaps (maybe)
l. Stall warning system (maybe)
m. oil temperature gauge
n. Electric fuel pump (maybe)
```
29
What does the ammeter indicate?
The ammeter indicates the flow of current, in amperes, from the alternator to the battery or from the battery to the electrical system. With the engine running and master switch on, the ammeter will indicate the charging rate to the battery. If the alternator has gone offline and is no longer functioning, or the electrical load exceeds the output of the alternator, the ammeter indicates the discharge rate of the battery.
30
What function does the voltage regulator have?
The voltage regulator is a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustments in the output of the alternator to maintain a constant regulated system voltage. It must do this at low RPM, such as during taxi, as well as at high RPM in flight. In a 28-volt system, it will maintain 28 volts +/- 0.5 volts
31
Why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage?
The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged.
32
How does the aircraft cabin heat work?
Fresh air, heated by an exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts.
33
How does the pilot control temperature in the cabin
Temp is controlled by mixing outside air with heated air in the manifold near the cabin firewall. This air is then ducted to vents located on the cabin floor
34
What are the five basic functions of aircraft engine oil
Lubricates - the engine's moving parts
Cools - the engine by reducing friction
Removes - heat from the cylinders
Seals - provides a seal between the cylinder walls and pistons
Cleans - by carrying off metal and carbon particles and other oil contaminants
35
What causes carburetor icing, and what are the first indications of its presence?
the vaporization of fuel, combined with the expansion of air as it passes through the carburetor, causes a sudden cooling of the mixture. The temperature of the air passing through the carburetor may drop as much as 60 F within a fraction of a second. Water vapor is squeezed out by this cooling, and if the temperature in the carburetor reachers 32 F or below, the moisture will be deposited as frost or ice inside the carburetor. For airplanes with a fixed pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is loss of RPM. For airplanes with controllable pitch propellers, the first indication is usually a drop in manifold pressure.
36
What method id sued to determine that carburetor ice has been eliminated?
When heat is first applied, there will be a drop in RPM in airplanes equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller; there will be a drop in manifold pressure in airplanes equipped with a controllable pitch propeller. If ice is present there will be a rise in RPM or manifold pressure after the initial drop and then, when the carburetor heat is turned "off" the RPM or manifold pressure will rise to a setting greater than that before application of heat. The engine should run more smoothly after the ice has been removed.
37
What conditions are favorable for carburetor icing?
Carburetor ice is most likely to occur when temperatures are below 70 F and the relative humidity is above 80 percent. However, due to the sudden cooling that takes place in the carburetor, icing can occur even with temperatures as high as 100 F and humidity as low as 50 percent. This temperature drop can be as much as 60 to 70 F
38
Define the terms anti-icing equipment and deicing equipment and state several examples of each
Anti-icing equipment - prevents ice from forming on certain protected surfaces. Examples are heated pitot tubes and static ports, carburetor heat, heated fuel vents, propeller blades with electro-thermal boots, and heated windshields. It is normally actuated prior to flight into suspected icing conditions. Reference POH/AFM
Deicing equipment - removes ice that has already formed on protected surfaces. It is generally limited to pneumatic boots on the wing and tail leading edges.
39
Describe how an aircraft deicing system works
upon pilot caution, boots attached to the wing leading edge inflate with air from a pneumatic pump(s) to break off accumulated ice. After a few seconds of inflation, they are deflated back to their normal position with vacuum assistance. The pilot monitors the buildup of ice and cycles the boots as directed in the AFM/POH
40
If an airplane has anti-icing and/or deicing equipment installed, can it be flown into icing conditions?
Even though it may appear elaborate and complete, the presence of anti-icing and deicing equipment does not necessarily mean that an airplane is approved for flight in icing conditions. The AFM/POH, placards, and even the manufacturer should be consulted for specific determination of approvals and limitations
41
What is detonation
Detonation is an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber. It causes excessive temperature and pressure which, if not corrected, can quickly lead to failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves. In less severe cases, detonation causes engine overheating, roughness, or loss of power. Detonation is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures, and is most likely to occur when operating at high power settings.
42
What are some of the most common operational causes of detonation?
a. using a lower fuel grade than that specified by the aircraft manufacturer
b. operating with extremely high manifold pressures in conjunction with low RPM
c. operating the engine at high power settings with an excessively lean mixture
d. Extended ground operations or steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced
43
What action should be taken if detonation is suspected
a. ensure that the proper grade of fuel is used
b. keep the cowl flaps in the full-open position while on the ground to provide the maximum airflow through the cowling
c. Use an enriched fuel mixture, as well as a shallow climb angle, to increase cylinder cooling during takeoff and initial climb
d. avoid extended, high power, steep climbs
e. develop the habit of monitoring the engine instruments to verify proper operation according to procedures established by the manufacturer
44
What is preignition
Preignition occurs when the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine's normal ignition event resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temperatures. Premature burning is usually caused by the residual hot spot in the combustion chamber, often created by a small carbon deposit on a spark plug, a cracked park plug insulator, or other damage in the cylinder that causes a part of heat sufficiently to ignite the fuel/air charge. As with detonation, preignition may also cause severe engine damage, because the expanding gases exert excessive pressure on the piston while still on its compression stroke.
45
What action should be taken if preignition is suspected?
a. reduce power
b. reduce the climb rate for better cooling
c. enrich the fuel/air mixture
d. open cowl flaps if available
46
During the before-takeoff sunup, you switch the magnetos from the "BOTH" position to the "RIGHT" position and notice there is no RPM drop. What condition does this indicate?
The left P-lead is not grounding, or the engine has been running only on the right magneto because the left magneto has totally failed
47
Interpret the following ammeter indications
a. ammeter indicated a right deflection (positive)
b. Ammeter indicates a left deflection (negative)
a. ammeter indicated a right deflection (positive)
- after starting - power from the battery used for starting is being replenished by the alternator; or, if a full-scale charge is indicated for more than 1 minute, the starter is still engaged and shutdown is indicated
- during flight - a faulty voltage regulator is causing the alternator to overcharge the battery. Reset the system and if the condition continues, terminate the flight as soon as possible.
b. Ammeter indicates a left deflection (negative)
- after starting - it is normal during start. At other times this indicates the alternator is not functioning or an overload condition exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge
- during flight - the alternator is not functioning or an overload exists in the system. The battery is not receiving a charge. Possible causes; the master switch was accidentally shut off, or the alternator circuit breaker tripped.
48
What action should be taken in the ammeter indicates a continuous discharge while in flight?
The alternator has quit producing a charge, so the alternator circuit breaker should be checked and reset if necessary. If this does to correct the problem, the following should be accomplished.
a. the alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker (the field circuit will continue to draw power from the battery)
b. all the electrical equipment not essential to flight should be turned off (the battery is not the only source of electrical power)
c. the flight should be terminated and a landing made as soon as possible
49
What action should be taken if the ammeter indicates a continuous charge while in flight (more than two needle widths)
if a continuous excessive rate of charge were allowed for any extended period of time, the battery would overheat and evaporate the electrolyte at an excessive rate. A possible explosion of the battery could result. Also, electronic components in the electrical system wold be adversely affected by higher than normal voltage. Protection is provided by an over voltage sensor which will shut the alternator down if an excessive voltage is detected. If this should occur the following should be done:
a. the alternator should be turned off; pull the circuit breaker (the field circuit will continue to draw power from the battery)
b. all electrical equipment not essential to flight should e turned off (battery is now the only source of electrical power)
c. the flight should be terminated and a landing made as soon as possible
50
During a cross-country flight you notice that the oil pressure is low, but the oil temp is normal. What is the problem and what action should be taken?
A low oil pressure in flight could be the result of several problems. Most common insufficient oil. If oil temp continues to remain normal, a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction could be the problem.
51
What procedure should be followed concerning a partial loss of power in flight?
first priority establish and maintain a suitable airspeed (best glide)
select an emergency landing area and remain within gliding distance.
As time allows, attempt to determine the cause and correct it
a. check the carburetor heat
b. check the amount of fuel in each tank and switch fuel tanks if necessary
c. check the fuel selector valve's current position
d. check the mixture control
e. check that primer control is all the way in and locked
f. check the operation of the magnetos in all three positions; both, left, right
52
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops in flight?
a. set the mixture control to "idle cutoff"
b. set the fuel selector valve to "off"
c. turn the master switch to "off"
d. set the cabin heat and air vents to "off"; leave the overhead vents "on"
e. establish an airspeed of 100 KIAS and increase the descent, if necessary, to find an airspeed that will provide for an incombustible mixture.
f. execute a forced landing procedures checklist
53
What procedures should be followed if an engine fire develops on the ground during starting?
continue to attempt an engine start as a start will cause flames and excess fuel to be sucked back through the carburetor
a. If the engine starts
- increase the power to a higher RPM for a few moments;
- shut down the engine and inspect it
b. if the engine does not start
- set the throttle to the "full" position
- set the mixture control to "idle cutoff"
- continue to try an engine start in an attempt to put out the fire by vacuum
c. If the fire continues
- turn the ignition switch to "off"
- turn the master switch to "off"
- set the fuel selector to "off"
in all cases evacuate the aircraft and obtain a fire extinguisher and/or assistance
54
what instruments operate off of the pitot/static system
altimeter, vertical speed indicator and airspeed indicator
55
How does a altimeter work
a sensitive altimeter is an aneroid barometer that measures the absolute pressure of the ambient air and displays it in terms of feat above a selected pressure level. The sensitive element in a sensitive altimeter is a stack of evacuated, corrugated bronze aneroid capsules. The air pressure acting on these aneroids tries to compress them against their natural springiness, which tries to expand them. The result is that their thickness changes as the air pressure changes. Stacking several aneroids increases the dimension change as the pressure varies over the usable range of the instrument.
56
What are the limitations of pressure altimeter?
nonstandard pressure and temperature; temperature variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses.
on a warm day - the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
on a cold day - the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitudes
changes in surface pressure also affect pressure level at altitude
higher standards pressure - the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude
lower than standard pressure - the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude
57
Define and stat how you wold determine the following altitudes: absolute, indicated, pressure, true, and density
absolute altitude - the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain
indicated altitude - the altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting
pressure altitude - the altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc.
True altitude - the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. airport, terrain, and other obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes
density altitude - pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft's takeoff, climb, and landing performance
58
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
the airspeed indicator is a sensitive, differential pressure gauge which measures the difference between impact pressure from the pitot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source. The difference is registered by the airspeed pointer on the face of the instrument
59
what is the limitation of the airspeed indicator
subject to proper flow of air in the pitot/static system
60
what are the errors of the airspeed indicator?
position error - caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing actual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude and configuration, and may be a plus or minus value.
density error - changes in altitude and temperature are not compensated for by the instrument.
compressibility error - caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It is usually not a factor at slower speeds.
61
What are the different types of aircraft speeds
indicated airspeed (IAS) - the speed of the airplane as observed on the airspeed indicator. It is the airspeed without correction for indicator, position (or installation) or compressibility errors
calibrated airspeed (CAS) - the airspeed indicator reading corrected for position (or installation) and instrument errors. CAS is equal to TAS at sea level in standard atmosphere. The color-coding for various design speeds marked on airspeed indicators may be IAS or CAS
Equivalent airspeed (EAS) - the airspeed indicator reading corrected for position (or installation) or instrument error, and for adiabatic compressible flow for the particular altitude. EAS is equal to CAS at sea level in standard atmosphere.
True airspeed (TAS) - CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature; the speed of the airplane in relation to the air mass in which it is flying.
62
Name several important airspeed limitation not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator
design maneuvering speed (Va) - the maximum speed at which the structural design's limit load can be imposed
landing gear operating speed (Vlo) - the maximum speed for extending or retracting landing gear if using aircraft equipped with retractable landing gear
best angle of climb (Vx) - important when a short filed takeoff to clear an obstacle is requried
best rate of climb (Vy) - the airspeed that will give the pilot the most altitude in a given period of time
63
What airspeed limitations apply to the color coded marking system of the airspeed indicator
white arc - flap operating range
lower A/S limit white arc - Vso (stall speed landing configuration)
upper A/S limit white arc - Vfe (maximum flap extension speed)
green arc - normal operating range
lower A/S limit green arc - Vs1 (stall speed clean or specified configuration)
upper A/S limit green arc - Vno (normal operations speed or maximum structural cruise speed)
yellow arc - caution range (operations in smooth air only)
red line - Vne (never exceed speed; above this speed, structural failure may occur)
64
How does the vertical speed indicator work
pressure differential instrument. Inside the instrument case is an aneroid very much like the one in an airspeed indicator. Both the inside of this aneroid and the inside of the instrument case are vented to the static system, but the use is vented through a calibrated orifice that causes the pressure inside the case to change more slowly than the pressure inside the aneroid. As the aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid, moving the pointer upward, showing a climb and indicating the number of feet per minute of aircraft is ascending.
65
What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator
The VSI is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Because of the restriction in airflow to the static line, a 6 to 9 second lag is required to equalize or stabilize the pressures. Sudden or abrupt changes in aircraft attitude will cause erroneous instrument readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. Both rough control technique and turbulent air result in unreliable needle indications.
66
What instruments contain gyroscopes
```
turn coordinator
heading indicator (directional gyro)
attitude indicator (artificial horizon)
```
67
what are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope
rigidity in space - a gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning
precession - the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point where it was applied; rather, it occurs at a point that is 90 degrees later in the direction of rotation. The rate at which the gyro precesses is inversely proportional to the speed of the rotor and proportional to the deflective force
68
What are the various power sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane
In some airplanes, all the gyros are vacuum, pressure, or electrically operated; in others, vacuum or pressure systems provide the power for the heading and attitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator. Most airplanes have at least two sources of power to ensure at least one source of bank information if one power source fails.
69
How does the vacuum system operate
an engine-driven vacuum pump provides suction which pulls air from the instrument case. Normal pressure entering the case is directed against rotor vanes to turn the rotor (gyro) at high speed, much like a water wheel or turbine operates. Air is drawn into the instrument through a filter from the cockpit and eventually vented outside. Vacuum values vary between manufacturers, but provide rotor speeds from 8,000 to 18,000 RPM
70
how does the attitude indicator work
the gyro in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon. This bar is fixed to the gyro and remains in a horizontal plane as the airplane is pitched or based about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon
71
what are the limitations of an attitude indicator
the pitch and bank limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument. Limits in the banking plane are usually from 100 degrees to 110 degrees, and the pitch limits are usually from 60 to 70 degrees. If either limit is exceeded, the instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until reset. A number of modern attitude indicators will not tumble
72
what are the errors of the attitude indicator
attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection system functions, there may be a slight nose-up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose-down indication during rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 degree turn. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a minute or so after returning to straight-and-level flight
73
how does the heading indicator operate
the operation of the heading indicator uses the principle of rigidity in space. The rotor turns in a vertical plane, and the compass card is fixed to the rotor. Since the rotor remains rigid in space, the points on the card hold the same position in space relative to the vertical plane. As the instrument case and the airplane revolve around the vertical axis, the card provides clear and accurate heading information.
74
what are the limitations of the heading indicator
the bank and pitch limits of the heading indicator vary with the particular design and make of instrument. On some heading indicators found in light airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 degrees of pitch and 55 degrees of bank. When either of these attitude limits is exceeded, the instrument "tumbles" or "spills" and no longer gives the correct indication until reset. After spilling, it may be reset with the caging knob. Many of the modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.
75
What error is the heading indicator subject to
because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creep or drift from a heading to which it is set. Among other factors, the amount of drift depends largely upon the condition of the instrument. The heading indicator may indicate as much as 15 degree error per every hour of operation
76
how does the turn coordinator operate
the turn part of the instrument uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of turn. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied thus moving the needle or miniature aircraft in proportion to the rate of turn. The slip/skid indicator is liquid filled tube with a ball that reacts to centrifugal force and gravity
77
what information does the turn coordinator provide
the turn coordinator shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes. The miniature airplane will indicate direction of the turn as well as rate of turn. When aligned with the turn index, it represents a standard rate of turn of 3 degrees per second. The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder. The ball indicates whether the airplane is in coordinated flight or is in a slip or skid
78
what will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a "skidding" or a "slipping" turn?
slip - the ball in the tube will be on the inside of the turn; not enough rate of turn for the amount of bank.
skid - the ball in the tube will be to the outside of the turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank
79
How does the magnetic compass work
magnetized needles fastened to a float assembly, around which is mounted a compass card, align themselves parallel to the earth's lines of magnetic force. The float assembly is housed in a bowl filled with acid-free white kerosene.
80
what limitations does the magnetic compass have
the jewel and pivot type mounting allows the float freedom to rotate and tilt up to approximately 18 degree angle of bank. At steeper bank angles, the compass indications are erratic and unpredictable
81
what are the various compass errors
oscillation error - erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control technique
deviation error - angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference isogonic lines of variation
dip errors:
acceleration error - on east or west headings, while accelerating, the magnetic compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south
ANDS
Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South
northerly turning error - the compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turn
```
UNOS
Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South
```
82
Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: AHRS, ADC, PFD, MFD, FD, FMS, INS
AHRS - attitude and heading reference system. Composed of three-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw information for aircraft. AHRS are designed to replace traditional mechanical gyroscopic flight instruments and provide superior reliability and accuracy
ADC - air data computer. An aircraft computer that receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate precise altitude, indicated airspeed, true airspeed, vertical speed, and air temperature
PFD - primary flight display. A display that provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the traditional six instruments with an easy-to-scan display that shows the horizon, airspeed, altitude, vertical speed, trend, trim, rate of turn, and more
MFD - multi-function display. A cockpit display capable of presenting information to the pilot in configurable ways; often used in concert with the PFD
FD - flight director. An electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigation selections, signals, and aircraft parameters. It presents steering instructions on the flight display as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to position the nose of the aircraft over or follow
FMS - flight management system. A computer system containing a database for programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the flight director/ autopilot from various sources, and can calculate flight data such as fuel consumption, time remaining, possible range, and other values.
INS - inertial navigation system. A computer-based navigation system that tracks the movement of an aircraft via signals produced by onboard accelerometers. The initial location of the aircraft is entered into the computer and all subsequent movement is then sensed and used to keep the aircraft's position updated.
83
What is the function of a magnetometer
a magnetometer is a device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading; it provides this information digitally to the AHRS, which then sends it to the PFD
84
When powering up an aircraft with an FMS/RNAV unit installed, how will you verify the effective dates of the navigation database?
The effective dates for the navigation database are typically shown on a start-up screen that is displayed as the system cycles through its startup self-test
85
Does an aircraft have to remain stationary during AHRS system initialization
Some AHRSs must be initialized on the ground prior to departure. The initialization procedure allows the system to establish a reference attitude used as a benchmark for all future attitude changes. Other systems are capable of initialization while taxiing as well as in flight
86
Which standby flight instruments are normally provided in an advanced avionics aircraft
every aircraft equipped with electronic flight instruments must also contain a minimal set of backup/standby instruments. Usually conventional "round dial instruments," they typically include an attitude indicator, an airspeed indicator, and an altimeter
87
If one display fails (PFD or MFD), what information will be presented on the remaining display?
In the event of a display failure, some systems offer a reversion capability to display the primary flight instruments and engine instruments on the remaining operative display
88
When a display failure occurs, what other system components will be affected
in some systems, failure of a display will also result in partial loss of navigation, communication, and GPS capability. Reference your specific AFM/POH
89
What display information will be affected when an ADC failure occurs
Inoperative airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed indicators, shown with red Xs on the PFD, indicate the failure of the air data computer
90
What display information will be lost when an AHRS failure occurs
An inoperative attitude indicator, shown with a red X on the PFD, indicates failure of the AHRS
91
How will loss of a magnetometer affect the AHRS operation
heading information will be lost
92
For aircraft with electronic flight instrumentation, what is the function of the standby battery
The standby battery is half in reserve and kept charged in case of a failure of the charging system and a subsequent exhaustion of the main battery. The standby battery is brought online when the main battery voltage is depleted to a specific value, approximately 19 volts. Generally, the standby battery switch must be in the ARM position for this to occur but pilots should refer to the aircraft flight manual (AFM) for specifics on an aircraft's electrical system
93
what are the two types of ADS-B equipment
automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast out - automatically broadcasts aircraft's GPS position, altitude, velocity, and other information out to ATC ground-based surveillance stations as well as directly to other aircraft. It is required in all airspace where transponders are required.
automatic dependent surveillance - broadcast in - is the receipt, processing, and display of ADS-B transmissions. ADS-B In capability is necessary to receive ADS-B traffic and broadcast services
94
Briefly describe traffic information services-broadcast
TIS-B is the broadcast of ATC derived traffic information to ADS-B equipped aircraft from ground radio stations. The source of this traffic information is derived from ground-based air traffic surveillance sensors. TIS-B service is available through th eNAS where there is both adequate surveillance coverage from ground sensors and adequate broadcast coverage from ADS-B ground radio stations
95
explain the limitations pilots should be aware of when using TIS-B for situational awareness
a. TIS-B is not intended to be used as a collision avoidance system and does not relieve the pilot's responsibility to "see and avoid" other aircraft, in accordance with 91.113b
b. a pilot may receive an intermittent TIS-B target of themselves, typically when maneuvering due to the radar not tracking the aircraft as quickly as ADS-B
c. The ADS-B to radar association process within the ground system may at times have difficulty correlating an ADS-B report with corresponding radar returns from the same aircraft. When this happens the pilot may see duplicate traffic symbols.
d. Updates of TIS-B traffic reports will occur less often than ADS-B traffic updates. TIS-B position updates will occur approximately once every 3 to 13 seconds depending on the type of radar system in use within the coverage are. In comparison, the update rate for ADS-B is nominally once per second
e. the TIS-B system only uplinks data pertaining to transponder-equipped aircraft. Aircraft without a transponder will not be displayed as TIS-B traffic
96
Does the nose wheel turn when the rudder is depressed in flight
a
97
if the braking system is not functioning, will the parking brake work
a
98
if the brakes on the left side (pilot) are not functioning, will the brakes on the right side also be inoperative
a
99
explain the procedure for starting your airplane with external power
a
100
you cannot start your airplane due to a low battery, so you request an external start via a ground power cart. What problems might still occur after the engine has started
a
101
in the event of an electrical system failure, what time duration can you reasonably expect electrical power from the battery
a
102
what effect would poisoning the master switch to the "off" position have on aircraft systems while in flight
a
103
what instruments are affected when the pitot tube freezes? static port freezes?
a
104
what is the purpose of the alternate static source
a
105
if you set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs
a
106
during the "before takeoff" magneto check, you notice that the right magneto is extremely rough. Explain what the problem could be and what actions you will take next
a
107
Automation in the cockpit has made aviation safer. Does total risk increase or decrease when "passively" monitoring an automatic system for faults or abnormalities? How can you mitigate the risk
a
