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Operations Flashcards

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1
Q

What does CDC stand for?

A

Combat Direction Center

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2
Q

What is the primary mission of CDC?
(5)

A

Gather, process, display, evaluate, disseminate

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3
Q

What is the secondary mission of CDC?

A

Control and assist

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4
Q

How many modules are there in CDC?

A

7

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5
Q

Name the 7 modules in CDC

A

Air Warfare
Analysis
Detection and Tracking
Display and Decision
Electronic Warfare
Surface
Tactical Operations Plot

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6
Q

What is the purpose of Air Warfare?
Hint: Detect what type of threats utilizing what?

A

To Detect air threats via ships’ or aircrafts’ sensors and data links.

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7
Q

Who determines offensive or defensive weapons for delivery?

A

Air Defense Commander (Callsign “Whiskey”)

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8
Q

What is AIC and what do they control?
During what phases of an air intercept?
Using what checks for comms with who?

A

Air Intercept Controller
Control tactical fighters during all phases of an air intercept
using HAVEQUICK checks for communication with the F/A-18.

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9
Q

Who works in the Zulu module?

A

DESRON 21

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10
Q

What is DESRON 21 responsible for?

A

All ships movement within Carrier Strike Group 3.

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11
Q

What is included within JCSSG?

A

John C. Stennis, Mobile Bay, Stockdale, Chung Hoon, and Decatur.

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12
Q

What is TAO overall in charge of?
Authorized with what release authority?

A

Defense of the ship.
Authorized with defensive weapons release authority.

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13
Q

CDCWO: Acronym?
Overall in charge of who?
Responsible for what picture?

A

(Combat Direction Center Watch Officer);
Overall in charge of the surface module watch standers;
Responsible for the surface and subsurface tactical picture assisting the TAO.

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14
Q

ADWC: Acronym?
In charge of what picture?
Responsible to?

A

(Air Defense Weapons Coordinator);
In charge of the air picture.
Directly responsible to the Air Defense Coordinator (“Whiskey”).

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15
Q

DWC: Acronym?
In charge what weapon systems?

A

Defense Weapons Coordinator;
In charge of CIWS, RAM, and NSSMS weapons systems. Manned by FCs.

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16
Q

Who can stand “Strike”?
Conducts what checks and verifies what modes with aircraft?

A

Any qualified air controller;
Comm checks and verifies Modes 2 and 4 with aircraft.

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17
Q

TIC: Acronym?
Maintains what picture?
Shares what with units in the link for what picture?

A

(Tactical Information Coordinator)
Maintains link picture and shares information with units in the link for Common Tactical Picture.

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18
Q

What is Link 11?

A

(Alligator) – Ship to ship and ship to shore

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19
Q

What is Link 16?

A

(Timber) – Jam resistant utilizing frequency hopping

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20
Q

What does the ID operator do? (3)
Within what space?
Utilizing what?

A

Detects, tracks, and identifies all aircraft within JCS airspace utilizing IFF.

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21
Q

How many modes are utilized for IFF and what are they?

A

Mode 1 – Mission
Mode 2 – Identification/side number
Mode 3 – Civilian or Military
Mode 4 – Friendly/crypto
Mode C – Altitude

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22
Q

ATM: Acronym?
What type of supervisor?
Maintains and controls what systems?
What can it modify?

A

Auto Track Manager;
Sensor supervisor;
Maintains and controls SPS-48G, SPS-49, and SPQ-9B;
Is able to modify RADAR settings or optimize performance.

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23
Q

What does RADAR stand for?

A

Radio Detection and Ranging

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24
Q

What rate works in the EW module?

A

CTT

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25
What is the main mission of the EW module?
Anti-ship missile defense
26
What system does the EW module have control over?
AN/SLQ-32
27
How many AN/SLQ-32 antennas are onboard?
2
28
What is ES? Detects what?
Electronic Support detects RADAR signals
29
What is EP? What is it?
Electronic Protect is any passive or active means to protect personnel or equipment using electro-magnetic spectrum
30
What is EA? Jams what?
Electronic Attack is jamming RADAR and communications
31
What does EMCON stand for?
Emissions Control.
32
What is EMCON?
Electronically hides the ship by turning off certain equipment that produces signals. (RADAR, radios communication, sound, light).
33
How many EMCON conditions are there?
Nine (A, A1, A2, B, B1, B2, C, D, D22)
34
What EMCON cannot be modified and is the most restrictive?
Alpha
35
What EMCON is the least restrictive?
Delta
36
GCCS-M: Acronym? Provides what picture? Forwarded to?
Global Command and Control System Maritime; Non real time picture of surface/subsurface contacts globally. Information gets forwarded to the Pentagon.
37
Purpose of Surface Tracker? Maintains what picture?
Tracks surface contacts 32nm and out and maintains accurate surface picture.
38
SCAC: Acronym? Uses what aircraft to help identify what picture?
Sea Combat Air Controller; uses MH-60R/S and P-3C aircraft to help identify the surface/subsurface picture.
39
ASTAC: Acronym? Responsible for providing what 3 things to the aircraft? What are the 2 aircraft? For what are those things provided? (4)
Anti-Surface/Subsurface Tactical Air Controller; Responsible for providing safety of flight, tactical directions, and communication data. MH-60R/S and P-3/8 aircraft. Detection, identification, tracking, and prosecution of surface and subsurface contacts.
40
CV-TSC: Acronym? Manned by what rate? Helps identify what picture for what other picture?
Carrier Tactical Support Center; Manned by STGs To help ID surface and subsurface picture for the Common Tactical Picture.
41
AN/WQC-2A (Gertrude) Purpose?
unsecure two-way underwater communication between ship and submarine.
42
AN/SLQ-25C (Nixie) Purpose? How many winches with how many cables/towed bodies? Cable length and deployable length?
Torpedo countermeasure (magnetic and acoustic). Two winches (port and starboard fantail) with four cables and four towed bodies. Cable length of 2100 feet deployable to 2000 feet.
43
SONAR: Instead of Organic SONAR what does the stennis use? For what type of detection and tracking?
Sound Navigation and Ranging Uses escort ships and aircraft for subsurface detection and tracking.
44
What rate works the CV-TSC?
STG
45
What is the primary job for TOP?
Track surface contacts within 32nm.
46
What is the secondary job for TOP?
Assist the OOD with contact reports and navigational safety.
47
SPA-25G Operator?
RADAR repeater in the pilot house.
48
What does the Bridge Phone Talker do? Relays information to who?
Maintains constant communications with look outs and TOP. Relays information to the JOOD and OOD.
49
What is VMS?
Voyage Management System Navigation system used to maintain ownship’s PIM.
50
DRT acronym? Used primarily during what? To track what 2 positions?
Dead Reckoning Tracer Used primarily during man overboard to track ownship’s position and position of the man overboard.
51
What are the two turns utilized for a man overboard?
Andersen Turn – A complete circle that ends on the original course. Williamson Turn – Ship turns in direction of the side of the man overboard, once 60 degrees off original course shift rudder to the other side, continue turn until steady on reciprocal of original course. Stop to windward of man overboard when they are off the bow or beam.
52
What are the two main RADARs used in TOP for surface tracking?
SPS-67 and SPS-73
53
What does CATCC stand for?
Carrier Air Traffic Control Center
54
What rate works in CATCC?
AC
55
What is TACAN and what does it do?
Tactical air navigation provides guidance to and from the transmitting unit.
56
What are the 3 main RADARs used in CATCC?
SPN-46 for precision approach landing system (PALS) and aircraft carrier landing system (ACLS) SPN-43 for air marshall SPN-41 for instrument landing system (ILS)
57
What does CVIC stand for?
Carrier Intelligence Center
58
What rate works in CVIC?
IS
59
Name aircraft on board JCS. (5)
F/A-18 – Tactical fighter and tankers E/A-18 Growlers – Electronic attack E2-C Hawkeye – Airborne early warning C-2 Greyhound – Carrier onboard delivery (COD) MH-60R/S – R: SUW/USW. S: SAR/plane guard
60
Name the different types of ships in the fleet.
CVN – Multi-purpose aircraft carrier, nuclear powered CG – Guided missile cruiser DDG – Guided missile destroyer LCC – Amphibious command ship LHA – Amphibious assault ship (general purpose) LHD – Amphibious assault ship (multipurpose) LPD – Amphibious transport dock LSD – Dock landing ship LCS – Littoral combat ship SSN – Fast attack submarine, nuclear powered SSBN – Ballistic missile submarine, nuclear powered SSGN – Guided missile submarine, nuclear powered MCS – Mine countermeasure support control ship MCM – Mine countermeasure ship MHC – Coastal mine hunter PC – Patrol craft AGER – Technical research ship ARS – Salvage ship AS – Submarine tender EPF – Expeditionary fast transport T-AE – Transport ammunition ship T-AG – Auxiliary general T-AGS/T-AGM – Range ship T-AH – Hospital ship T-AKE – Dry cargo/ammunition ship T-AO – Transport oiler T-AOE – Fast combat support ship T-ARC – Cable ship T-ESB – Expeditionary mobile base T-ESD – Expeditionary transfer dock LCAC – Landing craft air cushion
61
What does CSTT stand for and what are they responsible for?
Combat Systems Training Team responsible for training CDC watchstanders.
62
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Access; Classification; Clearance;
1. Access – The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge or possession of classified information. 2. Classification – The determination of what degree of protection that official information requires, in the interests of nation security. 3. Clearance – The administrative determination by a designated authority that an individual is eligible for access to classified information, and to what categories eligible.
63
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Need to Know; Restricted area; Compromise;
1. Need to know – A determination made that the recipient has a requirement for access to, knowledge or possession of classified information. 2. Restricted area – Spaces that require protection of classified information. 3. Compromise – A security violation that results in the confirmed or suspected exposure of classified information to an unauthorized person.
64
Describe the following in accordance with Operations: Confidential; Secret; Top secret
1. Confidential – Information or material that, if compromised, could cause damage to the United States. 2. Secret - Assigned to information or material that, if compromised, could cause serious damage to the United States. 3. Top secret - Assigned to information or material that, if compromised, could cause exceptionally grave damage to the United States.
65
What is SITREP (situation report)?
Used by any CO or OIC to notify higher authority of any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special reporting criteria.

ESWS (7 decks)

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