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Operations Flashcards

0
Q

Who is the CDCO?

A

CDR Kennedy

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1
Q

Who is the OPSO?

A

CDR Young

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2
Q

Who is the STRIKE?

A

CDR GOFF

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3
Q

Who is the AIR?

A

CDR MARUSICH

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4
Q

Who is the IO?

A

CDR DANTZLER

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5
Q

What is CDCs main mission?

A

Gather, process, display,evaluate, disseminate information & to control and assist

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6
Q

What does TAO stand for?

A

Tactical Actions Officer

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7
Q

What does the TAO do?

A

Responsible for the defense of the ship , only other person who has authority to release weapons

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8
Q

What does ADWC stand for?

A

Air Defense Weapons Coordinator

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9
Q

What does the ADWC do?

A

OVERALL in charge of AIR picture,

Receives reports from the IDOP passes reports to the TAO, & coordinates with point defense

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10
Q

What does CDCWO stand for?

A

Combat Direction Center Watch Officer

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11
Q

What does the CDCWO do?

A

Responsible for the coordination of all CDC functions during condition 3 & on charge of overall surface picture during condition 1

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12
Q

What does AIC stand for?

A

Air Intercept Controller

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13
Q

What does the AIC do?

A

Maintains close advisory control of aircraft

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14
Q

What does TIC stand for?

A

Tactical Information Coordinator

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15
Q

What does the TIC do?

A

Manages data links to extend tactical picture

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16
Q

What does IDOP stand for?

A

Identification Operator

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17
Q

What does the IDOP do?

A

Id’s AIR CONTACTS and reports them to the ADWC - uses IFF to ID air contacts

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18
Q

What are the 5 modes of IFF?

A

Platform, positive ID, mission,

U.S Military, altitude

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19
Q

What does ATM stand for?

A

Auto Track Manager

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20
Q

What does the ATM do?

A

Same as IDOP but has ability to manipulate radars (makes me less or more sensitive due to weather, etc)

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21
Q

What does the STRIKE CONTROLLER do?

A

Manned during flight ops, checks aircraft modes of IFF, safety of flight

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22
Q

What does SURFACE TRACKER do?

A

Works on Sea Combat and in TOP, tracks surface contacts

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23
Q

What does TOP stand for?

A

Tactical Operations Plot

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24
What is the TOP?
Acts as a liaison between the bridge and CDC, primary responsible for surface tracking, where DDRT is located.
25
What do the LOOKOUTS do?
Correlates lookout information on surface and air contacts to determine targets course speed and CPA
26
What does EWS stand for?
Electronic Warfare Supervisor
27
What does the EWS do & where is it located?
In the EW module, supervises the collection and display of all electronic warfare information, overall in charge of the EW module, sets EMCON
28
What does ASTAC stand for?
Anti Submarine Tactical Air Controller
29
What does the ASTAC do?
Controls helos to hunt for submarines
30
What does SCAC stand for?
Sea Combat Air Controller
31
What does the SCAC do?
Controls helos to VID unknown surface contacts in the CVIN operating
32
What are the 3 independent work centers in OPS?
CATCC (carrier air traffic control center) AIR OPERATIONS ATO (air transfer office)
33
What are the 6 positions in CCA?
Departure, Marshall, final A, final B, approach A, approach B
34
What does METOC stand for?
Meteorological and Oceanography
35
What's the purpose of METOC?
Provide weather forecasting services and oceanography data
36
What does ASTAB stand for?
Automated Status Board
37
What does ASTAB do?
Provides information including events, diverted airfields and aircraft, and call signs
38
What is the WQC-2? What does it do?
Underwater telephone (Gertrude) used for communication between carrier and subsurface units
39
What is the SLQ-25? And what does it do? How many are there?
Nixie, Torpedo counter Measure, 2 onboard
40
What are the 4 operating modes used to confuse and/or misdirect torpedoes?
Swept, noise, alternate, pulse
41
What is the primary and secondary mission of the SLQ-32?
Primary is ASMD ( anti ship missle defense) secondary is to provide indications and warnings.
42
What does GCCS-M stand for?
Global command and control systems maritime
43
What does GCCS-M do?
Provides non real time tracks, used to form tactical decisions
44
What does the GYROREPEATER do?
Determines course in relation to true north
45
What radars do the CATCC have? What are they known as?
SPN 41- bullseye, SPN 43- Marshall SPN 46- easy rider TACAN- tactical air navigation
46
What are the air search radars? What are they known as? What's their range?
SPS 48- primary air search, 3D, 220 nm | SPS 49- secondary air search, 2D, 256nm
47
What are the surface radars? What are they known as? What's their range?
SPS 67- primary surface search, 100nm | SPS 73- navigation radar, secondary, 50nm
48
What is the fire control radar?
SPQ-9B
49
What are the sonobuoys?
``` SSQ-53B SSQ-62B SSQ-77 SSQ-36 SSQ-57 ```
50
What factors affect radar?
Atmospheric conditions, sea return, weather
51
What are the 8 warefare areas?
Strike, mine, surface, air, undersea, amphibious, information dominance, command and control
52
What is a CG?
Guided Missile Crusier
53
DDG?
Guided missile destroyer
54
CVN?
Nuclear powered air craft carrier
55
MCM?
Mine countermeasure
56
SSN?
Nuclear powered submarine
57
F/A-18 Hornet?
Air/Air to surface attack | Operating range of 160-180nm
58
MH-60 Seahawk?
Anti submarine warfare | Op range of 100nm
59
E-2 Hawkeye?
Airborne early warning
60
EA6B Prowler?
Electronic support and attack
61
What is a BEADWINDOW?
Comsec violation
62
What is a GINGERBREAD?
Intruder on the net
63
What is a EEFI?
Essential Elements of Friendly Info
64
What are the 4 types of messages?
Flash (less than 10 min) Immediate (30min) Priority (3hrs)
65
What are the 3 methods of operating circuits?
Duplex- transmit and receive at the same time Simplex-single channel Semiduplex- combination of both
66
What is Link 4A?
Dolly
67
What is Link 11?
Alligator
68
What is Link 16?
Timber
69
What is MIO?
Maritime Interdiction Operation
70
What is SAR?
Search & Rescue
71
NEO?
Non-Combatant Evacuation Operation
72
ES?
Electronic Support
73
EP?
Electronic Protect
74
EA?
Electronic Attack
75
MILDEC?
Military Deception
76
PSYOPS?
Psychological operations
77
OPSEC?
Operations security
78
ROE?
Rules of ENGAGEMENT
79
What are the 3 levels of classification?
Confidential, secret, top secret
80
Where must classified information be stored?
GSA, approved safe, 2 combo lock device
81
When will EMERGENCY DESTRUCTION occur?
When there is a possibility of info falling into the enemies hands
82
What is CVIC? What does it provide?
Carrier Intelligence Center, provides intelligence info concerning enemy activity and indications and warnings
83
What are the 3 phases of ships training cycle?
Basic, intermediate, advance
84
What is CART?
Command Assessment of readiness and Training
85
What is TSTA?
Tailored Ships Training Availability
86
What is FEP?
Final Evaluation Problem
87
Define Task Group?
Component of a force
88
Define Battle Group
Naval task group designed to destroy hostile submarine, surface and air forces within their AOR
89
What is OPLAN?
Operational Plan
90
What is OPORDER?
Operational Order issued by commander
91
What is OPTASK?
Operational Tasking
92
What are the flight deck status light colors?
Red- fouled or closed Green- clear/open deck Amber- 2 minutes to launch Blue- HERO
93
Green shirts?
Maintenance
94
Yellow shirts?
Aircraft directors
95
Purple?
Fuel
96
Red?
Crash & Salvage
97
White?
Troubleshooters
98
White with green cross?
Safety
99
White with Red Cross?
Medical
100
Brown?
Plane captains
101
Blue?
Plane handles, elevator ops
102
What is FLOLS?
Frensel Lens Optical landing System
103
What is JBD?
Jet Blast Deflector
104
What are the 5 ladies of OPS?
Nixie, Gertrude, Dolly, Tilly, Nancy
105
What is the displacement of CVN70?
95,000 tons
106
What is the length of the flight deck?
1092'
107
What is the overall length of the CVN70?
1115'4"
108
What is the CVN70s draft?
37'6"

ESWS (4 decks)

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