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Troy PPL > Operations of Systems > Flashcards

Operations of Systems Flashcards

(95 cards)

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1
Q

what are the 4 main control surfaces (NOT PRIMARY FLIGHT CONTROLS)

A

elevators, ailerons, rudder, and trim tabs

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2
Q

what do elevators do

A

control movement of plane over the lateral axis, also called PITCH

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3
Q

what do the ailerons do

A

control the planes movement of the longitudinal axis, also called ROLL

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4
Q

what does the rudder do

A

controls movement of airplane of the vertical axis, also called YAW

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5
Q

what do trim tabs do

A

labor-saving devices that enable pilot to release manual pressure on controls

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6
Q

how are the various flight controls operated

A

through the use of a rod or cable system

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7
Q

what are flaps

A

movable panels on inboard trailing edges of wings

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8
Q

what are the functions of flaps

A

to permit a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach and also, in some cases, shorten takeoff distance

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9
Q

what landing gear system does the C-172S have

A

a tricycle landing gear with 2 main wheels and a steerable, hydraulic nose-wheel

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10
Q

describe the braking system on the C-172S

A

hydraulically actuated disc-type breaks on each main wheel

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11
Q

how are the brakes connected to the cabin in a 172s

A

the hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilots rudder petal

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12
Q

how is steering accomplished on the ground

A

with nose-wheel steering with s system linkage through the rudders

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13
Q

what type of engine does the C-172S have

A

Lycoming IO-360

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14
Q

specific details of the C-172S engine

A

horizontally opposed, direct drive, normally aspirated, fuel injected, air cooled with 360 cu. in. of displacement

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15
Q

what are the 4 strokes of an engine in each cylinder

A

intake, compression, power, and exhaust

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16
Q

describe the intake phase in a cylinder

A

the piston starts downward travel, causing intake valve to open and fuel-air mixture to be drawn into the cylinder

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17
Q

describe the compression phase in a cylinder

A

intake valve closes, piston starts to move back up to top

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18
Q

describe the power phase in a cylinder

A

the fuel-air mixture is ignited which causes tremendous pressure increase and forces cylinder downward creating power to turn the crankshaft

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19
Q

describe the exhaust phase in a cylinder

A

purges cylinder of burned gases and begins when exhaust valve opens and piston moves toward cylinder head again

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20
Q

what does the carburetor do

A

process of mixing fuel and air in correct porportions

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21
Q

how does carb heat system work

A

controlled by pilot to let unfiltered, heated air from a shroud around the exhaust riser or muffler

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22
Q

what change occurs to the fuel/air mixture when applying carb heat

A

less air is involved because the air is warmer and less dense, causing the mixture to richen since fuel flow stays the same

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23
Q

what does the throttle do

A

allows the pilot to manually control the amount of fuel/air charge entering the cylinders

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24
Q

what does the mixture control do

A

controls the fuel-to-air ratio

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25
describe a fuel-injection system
injects fuel directly into the cylinders just ahead of the intake valve
26
what does the engine-driven fuel pump do
provides fuel under pressure from the fuel take to the fuel/air control unit
27
what is the fuel/air control unit
meters fuel based on the mixture control setting and sends it to the fuel manifold valve
28
what does the fuel manifold valve do
distributes fuel to the individual fuel discharge nozzles
29
purpose of discharge nozzles in a fuel injected system
in each cylinder head, these inject the fuel/air mixture at the precise time for each cylinder directly into the cylinder intake port
30
auxiliary fuel pump in a fuel injected system purpose
provides fuel under pressure to fuel/air control unit for engine starting and/or emergency use
31
fuel pressure/flow indicators
measures metered fuel pressure/flow
32
what type of ignition system does the C-172S have
the engine ignition has 2 engine driven magnetos and 2 spark plugs per cylinder
33
is the ignition system in a 172 independent from the electrical system and why/why not
yes because the magnetos are engine-driven self-contained units that supply electrical current without an external source of current once the engine is started
34
what are the 2 main advantages of a dual ignition system
1. increased safety - incase 1 fails, there's a backup 2. more complete and even combustion of the mixture and improved engine performance
35
what is the purpose of fuel tank vents
it allows the air to enter the fuel tank in order to not create a vacuum as fuel is burned
36
what type of fuel does the C-172S require
either Grade 100 or 100LL
37
what color is grade 100 fuel
green
38
what color is grade 100LL fuel
blue
39
can you put any other type of fuel into the engine other than what is needed by the C-172S
no
40
function of the manual primer and how does it operate
provide assistance in starting the engine. it draws fuel from fuel strainer and injects it directly into cylinder intake ports
41
what is the electrical system in the C-172S
Abelt-driven, 28 volt, 60 ampere alternator
42
how are the circuits protected within the aircraft
by circuit breakers, fuses, or both
43
what does the ammeter indicate
the flow of current in amps from the alternator to the battery or from battery to the electrical system
44
function of the voltage regulator
a device which monitors system voltage, detects changes, and makes the required adjustment in the output of the alternator
45
why is the generator/alternator voltage output slightly higher than the battery voltage
the difference keeps the battery charged
46
how does aircraft cabin heat work
fresh air, heated by exhaust shroud, is directed to the cabin through a series of ducts
47
how does the pilot control temp in the cabin
by mixing outside air with cabin heat
48
5 basic functions of the aircraft engine oil
lubricate, cools, removes (heat), seals, and cleans
49
how does an aircraft deicing system work
boots on the leading edge of the wings inflate and deflate
50
what is detonation
an uncontrolled, explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture in the cylinder
51
what are the effects of detonation
excessive temperatures and pressure that can lead to the failure of the piston, cylinder, or valves
52
what is detonation characterized by
high cylinder head temperatures
53
what are common causes for detonation
using lower fuel grade than needed, operating with extremely high manifold pressure with low RPM, engine at high power setting with excessively lean mixture, or extended ground/steep climbs where cylinder cooling is reduced
54
how do you stop detonation
make sure mixture is enriched and its the right fuel being used, lower pitch angle to get air into the cowling
55
what is preignition
when fuel/air mixture ignites prior to engines normal ignition event resulting in reduced engine power and high operating temps
56
what do you do to stop preignition
anything to cool the engine
57
what does it mean when if you switch the mag from both to right and there is no RPM drop
the left P-lead is not grounding
58
what action should be done if ammeter indicates a continuous discharge in flight
the alternator has quit. you should turn off the alternator and pull the circuit breaker and turn off all electrical equipment that is nonessential to flight
59
what does it mean if your oil pressure is low but temp is normal
it could be many things, most being low amount of oil. it could also be a clogged oil pressure relief valve or an oil pressure gauge malfunction
60
what should you do following a partial loss of power in flight
check fuel in each tank, check fuel selected valve and shutoff valve position, check mixture control, check operation of mags
61
what should you do in an engine fire
idle the mixture, shutoff fuel flow, turn master off, set cabin heat and air vents to off, establish airspeed of 100knots and execute forced landing checklist
62
what instruments run off of the pitot/static system
altimeter, VSI, airspeed indicator
63
how does an altimeter work
an aneroid barometer that measures absolute pressure of the air and displays it in terms of feet above a selected pressure level
64
what is absolute altitude
vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain
65
what is indicated altitude
the altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting
66
what is pressure altitude
the altitude when altimeter is adjusted to 29.92
67
what is true altitude
the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level
68
what is density altitude
pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temp variations
69
how does the airspeed indicator operate
it measures the difference between ram pressure from the pitot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source
70
what is the limitation of the airspeed indicator
it is subject to improper flow of air in the pitot/static system
71
what is position error of the airspeed indicator
static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow disturbs the port preventing actual atmospheric pressure
72
what is the density error of the airspeed indicator
changes in altitude and temp aren't compensated by the instrument
73
what is the compressibility error of the airspeed indicator
caused by packing or air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in a higher than normal indication
74
what is indicated airspeed
speed of airplane as observed on the airspeed indicator, without corrections
75
what is calibrated airspeed
airspeed reading corrected for position and instrument errors.
76
when does calibrated airspeed equal true air speed
at sea level in standard atmospheric conditions
77
what is equivalent airspeed
airspeed indicator reading corrected for position, or instrument error, and for adiabatic compressible flow from the particular altitude
78
what is true airspeed
it is calibrated airspeed corrected for altitude and nonstandard pressure
79
what does Va stand for
maximum speed at which the structural designs limit load can be imposed
80
what does VLO stand for (v-speed)
maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear
81
what does Vx stand for
best angle of climb over a certain amount of distance
82
what does Vy stand for
best rate of climb over a given period of time
83
what does Vso stand for
stall speed landing configuration
84
what does Vfe stand for
maximum flap extension speed
85
what does Vs1 stand for
stall speed clean or specified configuration
86
what does Vno stand for
maximum structural cruising speed
87
what does Vne stand for
never exceed speed
88
how does the vertical speed indicator work
a pressure differential instrument that uses an aneroid. as aircraft ascends, the static pressure becomes lower and the pressure inside the case compresses the aneroid
89
what are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator
not accurate until aircraft is stabilized
90
what instruments contain gyroscopes
the turn coordinator, the heading indicator (directional gyro), and the attitude indicator (artificial horizon)
91
what are the 2 main fundamental properties for a gyroscope
rigidity in space and precession
92
what is rigidity in space in reference to a gyroscope
the gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning
93
what is precession relating to a gyroscope
the tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force
94
how does the vacuum system operate
an engine-driven vacuum pump provides suction which pulls air from the instrument case
95
how does the attitude indicator work
the gyro is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity

Troy PPL (7 decks)

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