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A-10 > Ops Limits > Flashcards

Ops Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Continuous RPM for APU

A

100 +/- 3

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2
Q

Continuous EGT for APU

A

200-715 *C

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3
Q

APU Starting EGT Limit

A

Below 60% RPM, the EGT can peak as high as 980 for 2 seconds

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4
Q

APU starting an engine EGT limit

A

When starting an engine, the APU EGT can peak as high as 760*C for 2 seconds

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5
Q

Unsuccessful APU start limits

A
  • RPM doesn’t exceed 60% within 30 seconds

- EGT doesn’t decrease to normal limits once RPM past 60%

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6
Q

APU cooldown after unsuccessful start

A

Wait 1 minute between attempts. Maximum 3 attempts, then wait 20 minutes to cool down

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7
Q

APU cooldown after successful (air) start

A

wait 2 minutes after APU shutdown

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8
Q

APU cooldown after successful (ground) start

A

Wait 10 minutes after initiation of successful start attempts (switch placed in start)

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9
Q

How long after engine start or motoring (loaded) must the APU run unloaded for prior to shutdown?

A

2 minutes

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10
Q

APU will start up to ____’ (in most cases ____’)

A

15,000’, in most cases 20,000’

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11
Q

APU will power enough bleed air to start engines as high as ____’ (in most cases ____’)

A

10,000’, in most cases 15,000’

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12
Q

APU overspeed protection provided at ___ +/- ___%

A

110 +/- 3%

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13
Q

Do not operate the APU for more than ___ minutes with APU Generator OFF

A

5

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14
Q

The APU will operate for approx ____ seconds during negative G conditions

A

10

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15
Q

The APU overtemp shutdown is disabled during ground engine start cycle plus ___ seconds

A

4

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16
Q

Engine ITT normal range

A

275-865 *C

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17
Q

Engine ITT malfunction if stabilized above ___. Up to ___ allowable for ___ seconds during starting or acceleration

A

865, 900 allowable for 12 seconds

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18
Q

Engine Hot light comes on at ___

A

880 *C

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19
Q

Max IDLE ITT is ___

A

675 *C

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20
Q

Engine Core RPM normal range

A

56-100%

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21
Q

Engine Core RPM ___-___ allowable for ___ seconds. Never over ___

A

100-102 allowable for 3 seconds. Never over 102%

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22
Q

Engine Fan RPM normal range

A

22-98%

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23
Q

Engine Fan RPM ___-___ steady state indicates malfunction

A

98-100%

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24
Q

Write up engine if fan speed is __% low

A

2%

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25
Q

Abort takeoff if fan speed is __% low

A

3%

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26
Q

Engine Fuel Flow normal range

A

150-4100 lbs/hr

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27
Q

Engine oil pressure max allowable range if -30*C or below

A

95-100 PSI

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28
Q

Engine oil pressure normal range (IDLE-MAX)

A

55-95 PSI

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29
Q

Engine oil pressure acceptable range (IDLE-85%)

A

40-55 PSI

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30
Q

Engine oil pressure range core RPM-IDLE (EMERGENCY ONLY)

A

30-40 PSI

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31
Q

Engine oil pressure DO NOT OPERATE BELOW

A

30 PSI

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32
Q
  1. Engine oil pressure fluctuations steady state

2. Engine oil intermittent fluctuations allowable ___ for ___ seconds

A
  1. +/- 5 PSI

2. +/- 10 PSI for 2 seconds

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33
Q

Engine oil pressure may peg at ___ after ground or Airstart. It should normalize after a max of ___ minutes

A

100 PSI, back to normal in 2 1/2 minutes

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34
Q

ATS limited to ___ minutes of motoring with ___ minutes rest

A

2 minutes running with 5 minutes rest

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35
Q

Engine light-off must occur within ___ seconds. If not, throttle off THROTTLE-OFF, dry motor for ___ seconds and wait ___ minute before reattempt

A

light-off in 20 seconds
dry motor for 30 seconds
wait 1 minute

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36
Q

Engine should accelerate to min idle within ___ after light-off

A

60 seconds

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37
Q

ATS can make any number of consecutive starts after ___ seconds rest

A

60 seconds

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38
Q

Assisted airstarts require up to ___ seconds from initiation of APU start cycle to usable engine power

A

110

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39
Q

__% RPM needed for crossbleed starts. __% of thrust lost during crossbleed starts

A

85% minimum. Loss of 4% thrust

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40
Q

For assisted airstarts, MOTOR until ITT below ___C. Above 15,000’ cool engine until below ___C

A

150C, 100C above 15,000’

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41
Q

On shutdown, hold throttle against aft stop until fuel drain or __ RPM and __ ITT

A

5% RPM and 200*C EGT

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42
Q

Engines must idle ___ minutes before shutdown

A

5 minutes

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43
Q

Engine start light should go out within ___ seconds of RPM passing __%

A

10 seconds after passing 60%

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44
Q

IDLE to MAX takes approx __ seconds

A

10

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45
Q

Hydraulics normal range

A

2800-3350 PSI

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46
Q

X-winds based on available hydraulic systems

  1. both working
  2. one working
  3. man rev
  4. single engine man rev
A
  1. 35 kts
  2. 30 kts
  3. 20 kts
  4. 10 kts
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47
Q

Landing gear max airspeed

A

200 kts

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48
Q

With gear handle up, the horn comes on approx ___ kts and ___’ MSL if throttle is retarded below halfway between IDLE and MAX

A

160kts and 10,000’ MSL

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49
Q

Gear normally retracts/extends in __ seconds

A

6

50
Q

Emergency gear extension of gear takes max __ seconds

A

30

51
Q

After aux gear extend with good hydraulics, allow 15 seconds between stowing aux gear handle and resetting CB

A

15

52
Q

How many applications (minimum) do you have using emergency brake accumulator

A

5 applications

53
Q

The anti-skid system prevents braking until wheels have spun up to __ kts. Protection will be provided down to __ kts

A

spun up to 25 kts, will work down to 10 kts

54
Q

“Q” sensor retracts flaps between ___ and ___ when accelerating

A

185-210 kts

55
Q

“Q” sensor re-extends flaps to selected position at ___ kts when decelerating

A

190 kts

56
Q

Max flap down speed

A

200 kts

57
Q

Emergency retract will allow flaps to float up ___ from 20* and ___ from 7*

A

<15* from 20

0* from 7

58
Q

Speed brake max on ground and in air

A

100% on ground, 80% in air

59
Q

Normal landing Speed Brake setting

A

40%

60
Q

__ seconds from full close to open and vice versa

A

3 seconds

61
Q

Rudder limit below ___ kts, +/- __ degrees travel

A

240 kts, 25* travel

62
Q

Rudder limit above ___ kts, +/- __ degrees travel

A

240 kts, 8* travel

63
Q

Rudders are aerodynamically effective at __ kts or more

A

50 kts

64
Q

Man Rev can take __ seconds until complete hydraulic bleed-off

A

10 seconds

65
Q

Man Rev can take up to __ seconds for aileron tab shift

A

4 seconds

66
Q

Man Rev can take up to __ seconds for aileron float-up

A

4 seconds

67
Q

Man Rev can take up to __ seconds to get into Man Rev during transition

A

14 seconds

68
Q

Nosewheel steering max degree of travel

A

55*

69
Q

A-10 can make a 180 degree turn on a __-ft wide runway

A

50 feet wide

70
Q

With slats extended, drag increases by ___ units

A

2.02

71
Q

Rudder trim: +/- __ degrees above ___ kts, and +/- __ degrees below

A

8* above 240 and 10 degrees below

72
Q

Cockpit pressurization schedule

A

begins at 10,000’, maintains 10,000’ until 18,000’. 60% pressure above 18,000’

73
Q

When using man temp control, it takes ___ seconds to go from min to max

A

13 seconds

74
Q

Windshield hot light illuminates when windscreen reaches ___ degrees

A

150*C

75
Q

Pitot heat can be on no longer than __ minutes on ground

A

6

76
Q

Tank unequal light comes on ___

A

750 +/- 250 lbs

77
Q

Left/Right main fuel low caution light comes on ___

A

500 lbs

78
Q

Tank gate transfers at ____ lbs or above in level flight

A

1300 lbs

79
Q

Main tanks suction feed up to ____’ (most cases ____’)

A

10,000’, most cases 20,000’

80
Q

External tanks cycle fuel into internal tanks when they drop ___ lbs or __ minutes

A

400 lbs or 10 minutes

81
Q

Fuel Test totalizer and pointers

A

6000 +/- 400 lbs

3000 +/- 300 lbs

82
Q

Trapped wing fuel may gravity feed when mains get below ___ lbs

A

600 lbs

83
Q

Airspeed limits with aft CF shift and tanks unequal light
___ at sea level
___ at _____
___ at _____

A

315 at sea level
240 KIAS at 15,000’
156 KIAS at 35,000’

84
Q

Canopy must be closed and locked when total headwind exceeds

A

50 kts

85
Q

Max symmetrical “G”

A

7.33 to -3.00

86
Q

Max gross weight

A

51,000 lbs

87
Q

Max airspeed

A

400 KIAS or .75 Mach, whichever is lower

88
Q

Zero or negative ‘G’ flight no longer than ___

A

10 seconds

89
Q

Altimeter max difference between ELECT and PNEU modes and field elevation

A

+/- 75 feet

90
Q

Standby attitude indicator good for __* for __ min after power loss

A

+/- 6 degrees for 9 minutes

91
Q

Battery life good for __ minutes DC only and __ minutes if inverter powered

A

30 minutes DC only, 18 minutes w/ inverter

92
Q

Reset generator a max of __ times

A

3 times

93
Q

Normal Final Approach Speed

A

130 + 2xGas

94
Q

No-Flap Final Approach Speed

A

140 + 2xGas

95
Q

SE Final Approach Speed

A

150 + 1xGas

96
Q

Min Run subtract __ kts from normal computed approach speed

A

10 kts

97
Q

Final Turn Speed

A

145 + 2xGas

98
Q

Touchdown Speed

A

10 kts less than normal/no-flap speeds

99
Q

add __ kts to final for cross winds in excess of __ kts

A

10 kts for x-winds 20 kts and above

100
Q

Add __ the gust factor to a max of __ for final and touchdown speeds

A

1/2, 10 max

101
Q

Max Range AOA

A

15.6

102
Q

Max Endurance AOA

A

17.5

103
Q

Allowable sink rate for landing at 33,200 gross weight and 51,000 lbs

A

600 ft/min, 354 ft/min

104
Q

GCAS voice-warning occurs at __ AGL under level flight

A

90 feet AGL

105
Q

Engine post-shutdown fire: ITT above __ with RPM below __

A

540*C with RPM below 5%

106
Q

With left-engine failure, residual hydraulics will raise gear if handle raised in __ seconds

A

5

107
Q

Best SERC rule of thumb:
Climb at __ kts above T/O speed gear down, __ kts above with gear up, __ kts above if both gear and flaps up. If SERC is T/O, add __ for gear/flaps and __ for both retracted

A

10, 20, 30, 10, 20

108
Q

Emergency Jettison will jettison all stores in __ second(s)

A

1

109
Q

Recommended emergency jettison speed is ___ KIAS or less

A

250

110
Q

Windmill Airstart requires ____-____ feet and in most cases ___ kts or more required

A

6000-8000’, 300 kts

111
Q

Total loss of oil pressure means engine seizure in __-__ minutes

A

1-3 minutes

112
Q

SE man rev min control speed

A

130 kts

113
Q

During go-around from SE approach, best SERC (gear down, flaps 0) is at __ kts less than SE approach speed. Best SERC climb speed increases __ kts when gear retracted

A

10 kts less

increases 10 kts

114
Q

An erect spin can be confirmed with the needle fully deflected, airspeed at or below ___ KIAS and an AOA consistently above __ unites and usually pegged

A

120 KIAS and 25 AOA

115
Q

With loss of one hydraulic system, rudder pedal pressure and yaw trim, damping, and auto turn coordination authority are reduced by __%

A

50%

116
Q

Post stall gyrations require from less than ____ ft to as much as ____ ft altitude for recovery

A

1,000’ - 8,000’

117
Q

Spin recoveries require from ____-____ ft altitude for incipient, half-turn spins and ____ ft for 3-turn developed spins

A

4,000-6,000 ft

10,000 ft

118
Q

Min aerodynamic SE ground control speed is ___ Kts

A

70 KIAS

119
Q

Controlled ejection altitude

A

2,000 ft AGL

120
Q

Uncontrolled ejection altitude

A

4,000 ft AGL

121
Q

With right engine failure (as opposed to left), rudder force required to maintain controlled flight can be as much as ___ lbs higher

A

100 lbs

A-10 (6 decks)

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