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FLIGHT TEST > Oral/Flight Test (Cessna 172N) > Flashcards

Oral/Flight Test (Cessna 172N) Flashcards

1
Q

How long is the C of A valid and what invalidates it?

A

Valid indefinitely so long as the following aren’t broken:

G - Gross weight, exceeding
L - Limitations, exceeding what’s in POH section 2
E - Equipment, POH required items broken
A - Airworthiness Directives, failing to comply
M - Maintenance inspections, failing to follow
S - Snags, not signed off by AME (2 signatures)

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2
Q

How long is the C of R valid and when must it be changed?

A

Valid indefinitely provided the following don’t occur:

D - Destroyed
E - Exported
A - Address change
D - Decommissioned 
S - Sold
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3
Q

What documents must be carried on board the aircraft for all flights?

A 
A - Airworthiness certificate
R - Registration certificate
R - Radio operator license
O - pilot Operating handbook
W - Weight and balance
J - Journey log
L - Licenses for crew
I - Insurance
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4
Q

In the POH Equipment List (Section 6), how are items listed?

A

Items are grouped with a prefixed letter for descriptive grouping, followed by a part number and suffix letter describing requirements:
R - Required items for FAA (C of A) certification (like an engine)
S - Standard equipment items (wheel covers)
O - Optional equipment replacing required or standard items (so instead of an Airspeed indicator you have a True Airspeed Indicator, etc.)
A - Additional equipment (headrests, 2nd altimeters, etc.)

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5
Q

What crew licenses must be carried on board?

A
  • Current license
  • Medical
  • Radio operator license
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6
Q

How does one maintain a current license?

A

Within 24 months of license issue pilot must undergo one of the following:

  • Flight review
  • TC safety seminar
  • TC self-study test
  • Pass a written or flight test for other rating/license
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7
Q

If a licensed pilot has not flown for 5 years what can they do to regain their currency?

A

Pilot must take:

  • Flight review
  • P-Star test
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8
Q

To carry passengers what must a pilot do?

A

5 takeoffs and landings within 6 months, if this is done during the day can only carry passengers during the day.

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9
Q

When does night begin?

A

At civilian reported sunset.

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10
Q

What is the medical validity period for a CAT III medical?

A

5 years under 40, 2 years over 40.

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11
Q

How long is the radio operator license valid?

A

Valid indefinitely.

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12
Q

How long is insurance valid?

A

Typically one year, review insurance certificate to verify date of expiration.

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13
Q

What’s the difference between a snag and defect?

A

A snag is an issue with a required item as listed by the POH, a defect is an issue with a non-required item and can be deferred.

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14
Q

What inspection cycle is the aircraft on?

A

Progressive care system, inspections are at set times and there is a minus or plus 10 hour window from those times for inspection.

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15
Q

How many signatures are required when a snag is signed off on by an AME?

A

2.

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16
Q

If there is a defect, can you fly?

A

Yes, so long as an AME or senior instructor can sign a deferral for the defect.

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17
Q

How often must the ELT be checked and compass swung?

A

Yearly, last check/swing will be noted in Journey Log.

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18
Q

What is Vx?

A

Best angle of climb, 60 knots.

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19
Q

What is Vy?

A

Best rate of climb, 70 knots.

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20
Q

What is Vs?

A

Stall speed, flaps up, 50 knots.

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21
Q

What is Vso?

A

Stall speed, flaps down, 44 knots.

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22
Q

What is Va?

A

Maneuvering speed:

  • 99 knots at 2400lbs
  • 90knots at 2000lbs
  • 82 knots at 1600lbs
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23
Q

Vglide?

A

Gliding speed:

  • 65 knots flaps up
  • 60 knots flaps down
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24
Q

Vref?

A

Landing reference speeds:

  • 60 to 70 knots flaps up
  • 55 to 65 knots flaps 40 degrees
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25
Q

Are winds from the METAR/TAF reported in degrees true or magnetic?

A

If you read it, it’s true. If you hear it, it’s magnetic.

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26
Q

How do you calculate crosswind limitations?

A
  • Get the magnetic heading of runway and winds and find the difference between the two to ascertain angle of wind off runway
  • Take 15 knots, the Cessna 172N’s tested cross-wind for average pilot ability
  • Using a cross-wind grid, plot 15 knots on the X-axis and intersect it with the angle of the winds off the runway
  • Taking this intersect point, the speed slope that runs through this point is your maximum cross-wind speed for that angle of wind across the runway
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27
Q

How do you find crosswind and headwind?

A
  • Get the magnetic heading of runway and winds and find the difference between the two to ascertain angle of wind off runway
  • Follow the slope that corresponds to wind speed and intersect it with the angle of difference calculated above
  • The X-axis of this point corresponds to cross-wind speed, the Y-axis of this point corresponds to head-wind speed
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28
Q

What is the Maximum Certified Takeoff Weight (MCTOW)?

A

Maximum weight whereby the aircraft can take effective flight from the ground:

  • 2300lbs for Normal Category
  • 2000lbs for Utility Category
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29
Q

How will an aft Center of Gravity affect the aircraft?

A

Improve cruise performance but present more dangerous stall characteristics. The elevator acts opposite the force of lift to balance the inbuilt forward center of gravity of the aircraft, moving the center of gravity rearward quires less down force from the elevator.

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30
Q

How will a forward Center of Gravity affect the aircraft?

A

Would reduce cruise performance but provide safer stall recovery characteristics.

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31
Q

What is the difference between Normal and Utility Categories?

A

Utility category allows for more complex maneuvers. These maneuvers must not be attempted in the Normal category per the POH, to do so would invalidate the CofA and also incur an excessive load factor on the aircraft.

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32
Q

What are the weight limitations of the baggage compartment?

A
  • 120lbs maximum forward of latch
  • 50lbs maximum rear of latch
  • 120lbs maximum combined (50lbs rear, max 70lbs forward)
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33
Q

What is ICAO standard temperature at 4000ft ASL?

A

7 degrees Celsius, ensure to account for this fact on cruise performance and rate of climb performance charts.

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34
Q

What would you do for an engine failure on the takeoff roll?

A
  • Throttle hard
  • Brake heavily
  • Flaps up
  • Mixture idle-cutoff
  • Ignition off
  • Master off
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35
Q

What would you do if you had an engine failure immediately after take off?

A
  • 65kt airspeed
  • Mixture idle-cutoff
  • Fuel selector valve off
  • Ignition off
  • Wing flaps as required
  • Master off
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36
Q

What would you do if you had an engine failure during the flight?

A

Initiate forced landing procedure:

  • A, Aviate, 65kt glide in a Cessna 172N
  • B, Best field, COWLS check (Civilization, Obstacles, Wind, Length, Surface)
  • C, Cause check, mixture rich, fuel selector both, carb heat on, magnetos both, alternator on, primer in and locked
  • D, Distress call, mayday call and 7700 on the transponder
  • E, Emergency briefing, inform passengers to secure any lose items, move seat back, keep calm, etc.
  • F, Final shutdown, mixture idle, fuel selector valve off, magnetos off, set flaps for landing, master off
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37
Q

What would you do if you had an engine fire during startup?

A
  • Continue cranking the engine
  • If engine stars, run engine at 1700RPM for a few minutes and shutdown; should engine fail to start:
  • Fully open throttle
  • Mixture idle-cut off
  • Continue cranking
  • Ready fire extinguisher
  • Master off
  • Ignition switch off (stop cranking)
  • Fuel selector valve off
  • Evacuate and attempt to extinguish fire
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38
Q

What would you do if you had an engine fire during flight?

A
  • Mixture idle-cut off
  • Fuel selector valve off
  • Master off
  • Cabin heat and air off
  • Airspeed 100KIAS or greater to achieve an incombustable mixture
  • Execute forced landing
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39
Q

What would you do if you had an electrical fire during flight?

A
  • Master off
  • All other electrical switches off
  • Cabin air/head/vents off and closed
  • Fire extinguisher activate
  • Ventilate cabin
  • Master on
  • Check circuit breakers, do not reset if tripped
  • Engage electrical switches one by one checking circuit breakers each time
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40
Q

What would you do if you had a cabin fire in flight?

A
  • Master off
  • Cabin air/head/vents off and closed
  • Activate fire extinguisher
  • Ventilate cabin
  • Land as soon as possible
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41
Q

What would you do if you had a wing fire during flight?

A
  • Nav lights off
  • Pitot heat off
  • Strobe light off
  • Perform sideslip towards the fire to keep the fire away from fuel tanks and cabin
  • Land as soon as possible using flaps only as required for final approach and touchdown
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42
Q

What would you do if you had a com failure in flight?

A
  • Cockpit check, headset connections, radio volume, frequency, try alternate radio
  • Transponder to 7600
  • Continue broadcasting intentions, radio may be able to still transmit
  • Follow uncontrolled airport procedure
  • Watch for light signals if controlled airport
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43
Q

What would you do if you inadvertently flew into icing conditions?

A
  • Turn pitot heat on
  • Turn back and/or change altitude to obtain and outside air temperature that is less conducive to icing
  • Open throttle to increase engine speed and minimize ice build up on prop
  • Watch for signs of carb ice and apply carb ice as needed
  • Keep a higher airspeed to ice build up will increase stall speed
  • Leave flaps retracted at all stages of flight
  • Find nearest airport to set down at
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44
Q

What would you do with a flat main?

A
  • Fly a normal approach

- Land on the good tire first, keeping aircraft off the flat as long as possible

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45
Q

What would you do if you suspected a static source blockage?

A
  • Engage alternate static source valve

- Consult POH Section. 5

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46
Q

What would you do if the ammeter shows excessive rate of charge?

A
  • Master Off
  • Master On
  • If rate of charge still shows high, terminate flight ASAP
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47
Q

What would you do if the ammeter shows discharge during flight?

A
  • Alternator off
  • Shutdown non-essential flight equipment
  • Terminate flight ASAP
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48
Q

What would you do if you had a vacuum system failure?

A

Continue VFR flight as normal as this would affect only the Attitude Indicator and Heading Indicator (not required instruments). If in clouds, rely on turn-coordinator as it’s DC powered, holding a standard rate one turn for 1 minute will cause a course change of 180 degrees.

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49
Q

What is the emergency decent procedure through clouds?

A
  • Full rich mixture
  • Use full carb. heat
  • Reduce power to 500 to 800ft/min decent
  • Set decent speed for 70-80 knots
  • Use rudder only to maintain a straight course
  • Once clear of cloud resume normal flight
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50
Q

What is the lost procedure?

A

C - Climb, climb higher to obtain a better view to ascertain surroundings
C - Conserve Fuel, slow down, lean for best economy
C - Circle of uncertainty, determine last known point and draw a radius from this point based on time and speed
C - Confess, admit you’re lost
C - Communicate, find nearest ATC and ask for RADAR navigation or a VDF steer (direction finder based the locates your radio transmissions)

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51
Q

What are control zone VFR weather requirements?

A
  • 3SM visibility
  • 1 mile horizontal separation from clouds
  • 500ft vertical separation from clouds and ground
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52
Q

Where can VFR limits be found?

A

In the AIM.

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53
Q

What are uncontrolled airspace VFR limits above 1000ft AGL?

A
  • 1SM visibility
  • 2000ft horizontal separation from cloud
  • 500ft vertical separation from cloud
54
Q

What are uncontrolled airspace VFR limits below 1000ft AGL?

A
  • 2SM visibility

- Keep clear of clouds

55
Q

What are SVFR limits and how do you get it?

A

SVFR is requested from ATC, weather limits are:

  • 1SM visibility
  • Keep clear of clouds
56
Q

What does IMSAFE stand for?

A 
I - Illness
M - Medication
S - Stress
A - Alcohol, last 24 hours
F - Fatigue
E - Eat
57
Q

Are GFA altitudes in ASL or AGL?

A

ASL, unless otherwise indicated by AGL, ABV GRND or CIG (Ceiling).

58
Q

On a GFA what does a dotted green area, solid green area, dotted orange area indicate?

A
  • Dotted green, showery precipitation
  • Solid green, non-showery, consistent precipitation
  • Dotted orange, obscured vision (fog)
59
Q

What does WS RWY18 mean?

A

Wind shear encountered on runway 18.

60
Q

Define sky conditions.

A
  • CLR: Clear
  • FEW: Few, 2/8 of the sky covered
  • SCT: Scattered, 3/8 to 4/8 of the sky covered
  • BKN: Broken, 5/8 or more of the sky is covered
  • OVC: Overcast, 8/8 of the sky is covered
61
Q

What does R29L/4000FT/U indicate?

A

Runway 29 left has a visual range of 4000ft with upward, improving change.

62
Q

What does 04010G25KT indicate?

A

Wind blowing 040 degrees true at 10 knots with 25 knot gusts (degrees magnetic if noted in ATIS or by controller).

63
Q

What does VV010 indicate?

A

Vertical visibility of 1000ft.

64
Q

The FD reads at 24000ft: 306845 what does this indicate?

A

Winds are at 300 true, 68 knots, air temperature -45C.

65
Q

What are SIGMET’s (WS)?

A

SIGnificant METeorological advisories, issued by FSS.

66
Q

What are AIRMET’s (WA)?

A

AIRmen’s METeorological advisory. A less severe notification than SIGMET’s, issued by FSS.

67
Q

What are PIREP’s?

A

PIlot REPort’s, report’s by pilots in flight of any unusual weather.

68
Q

What do the following on a TAF indicate: FROM, BECMG, TEMPO, PROB?

A
  • FROM, indicates a rapid permanent change to forecast
  • BECMG, indicates a gradual permanent change in conditions
  • TEMPO, temporary fluctuation in forecast
  • PROB, probability of hazard conditions occurring
69
Q

On the GFA Icing/Turbulence chart, altitudes are indicated how?

A

With a base and top in ASL.

70
Q

On the GFA Icing/Turbulence chart, what are freezing level isotherms?

A

Dashed lines with a number corresponding to a 2500ft ASL interval (500 = 5000ft ASL), at this altitude temperature is at 0 degrees Celsius.

71
Q

What is the NAV departure/arrival procedure for CYBW (CFS)?

A

Departures are directed by ATC, expect departures via Lochend Lake, Elbow Springs, Roundabout, Petrocan, Cochrane Lake. Arrivals from North, West and South are to report at 6000ft ASL prior to entering Class C airspace.

72
Q

When are GFA’s issued and when are they valid till?

A

Issued every 6 hours, and valid for the next 6 hours.

73
Q

What is uncontrolled airport procedure?

A
  • Overfly 500ft above circuit altitude to obtain necessary information for landing (windsock, traffic, etc.)
  • Descend to circuit altitude on the upwind side (inactive side) ONLY
  • Cross the runway at circuit altitude to join mid-downwind of active runway
74
Q

How do you lean for best economy cruise?

A

Found by leaning the mixture to a point a little after where the tachometer indicates max RPM for the set power setting but before there is a noticeable drop in RPM.

75
Q

How do you lean the mixture for best power?

A

Leaning the mixture to a point where the tachometer indicates max RPM for a set power setting then 2 more turns to enrich.

76
Q

In the northern hemisphere, which way does the Coriolis effect act?

A

Counter-clockwise.

77
Q

On a GFA Forecast chart, the lines running across the map are what?

A

Isobar lines joining areas of equal pressure, when nearer together expect stronger winds.

78
Q

On the GFA how is convective cloud (clouds made by convection, hot air rising) density denoted?

A

ISOLD, SCT, NMRS

79
Q

On the GFA how is non-convective cloud, low ceiling, icing, etc. density denoted?

A

LCL, PTCHY, XTNSV

80
Q

What instruments are checked when taxiing?

A

When turning check:

  • TC left/right, ball opposite
  • HI increasing/decreasing
  • Compass swinging
  • VSI, Altimeter, level
  • ASI, 0
81
Q

What is the soft field, no obstacle, take off procedure?

A
  • Flaps 10 degrees
  • Request rolling start
  • Hold full back pressure
  • Don’t use brakes
  • Full throttle
  • Hold nosewheel off ground
  • Enter ground effect
  • Climb at 65 knots
  • Raise flaps once at safe altitude
  • Climb at 70 knots
82
Q

What is the go-around/balked landing technique?

A
  • Throttle full
  • Carb heat off
  • Flaps 20 degrees
  • Climb 55 knots
  • Flaps 10 degrees
  • Retract at safe altitude
83
Q

What is the diversion procedure?

A

D - Draw, locate your diversion point and SHP, drawing a line between the two
D - Distance, use your thumb to calculate distance, thumb with is 5NM on a VNC
D - Direction, use a pen and a nearby compass rose (which is in magnetic) to determine heading
T - Time, take 2/3rds of the distance to get your time en-route from SHP to diversion
A - Altitude, ensure your altitude is sufficient to clear obstacles en-route (check MEF)
F - Fuel, make sure you enough fuel for the diversion
G- Gyro, set your gyros, make a cruise check

84
Q

What is the climb procedure?

A
  • Attitude
  • Carb heat off
  • Mixture rich
  • Throttle full
  • Trim
85
Q

What is the decent procedure?

A
  • Carb heat on
  • Mixture rich
  • Throttle reduce
  • Attitude
  • Trim
86
Q

What must be checked before upper-air work?

A

H - Height, well over 2000ft AGL
A - Area, not above a densely populated area
S - Secure, seat belts, loose items, secure
E - Engine, oil pressure/temperate green, amp at ‘0’
L - Lookout, do a 360 degree lookout for other aircraft

87
Q

What is the short field, no obstacle, landing procedure?

A
  • Full flaps
  • 60kt approach
  • On touchdown, full back pressure, retract flaps, brake heavily
88
Q

What is the short-field takeoff with obstacle procedure?

A
  • Request short delay
  • Hold brakes
  • Full throttle
  • Rotate 52kt
  • Climb 60kt
  • Once clear, set 70kt
89
Q

What is the circuit procedure?

A
  • After takeoff climb 500ft AGL
  • Turn crosswind
  • At 1000ft AGL turn downwind
  • Commence pre-landing checklist, radio call, passenger brief
  • Once 45 degrees from runway threshold, turn base
  • Once in base lower flaps, set 60-70 knots
  • Turn final to align with runway center line
90
Q

How do you do a true airspeed check?

A
  • Set altimeter to 29.92, note altitude
  • Check outside air temperature
  • Using E6B, align altitude with temperature
  • Get CAS (IAS+1 below 108kt, IAS+2 above 108kt)
  • Find CAS on inside ring, TAS will be indicated on the outside ring
91
Q

What is the navigation procedure over a SHP/Checkpoint?

A

T - Time, note current time
H - Heading, note heading to hold current track
E - ETA, ground speed check over checkpoints, true airspeed check over SHP, get new ETA
R - Radios, make position call on en-route frequency, update FIC using nearest RCO
E - Engine, check engine gauges, carb heat

92
Q

What is the precautionary approach procedure?

A
  • High pass, downwind of field, 1000ft AGL (1500ft AGL if uncontrolled aerodrome), COWLS check
  • Setup for low pass, 70kt at 10 degrees flap
  • Low Pass, upwind of field, 500ft AGL, count number of seconds (1 second = 100ft length at 60kt)
  • Overshoot
  • Return to circuit pattern for field
  • Passenger brief
  • PANPAN call
  • Land
93
Q

How do you enter a steep turn?

A
  • 360 degree traffic check
  • Bank, 45 degrees
  • Stay coordinated
  • Back pressure, hold nose attitude
  • Boost, increase RPM to hold airspeed
94
Q

How do you exit a steep turn?

A
  • Start rolling level 20 degrees before desired heading (half of bank angle)
  • Stay coordinated
  • Reduce power to cruise
  • Set cruise attitude
95
Q

How do you recover from a spiral dive?

A
  • Power idle
  • Roll wings level
  • Neutral elevator until level
  • Ease out of dive
  • Enter a normal climb once airspeed starts to decrease
96
Q

How do you enter slow flight?

A
  • HASEL check
  • Gradually reduce power
  • Increase attitude to maintain altitude
  • Once nearing a stall, add a little power to maintain altitude
  • Use rudder to control direction
97
Q

What must be checked before slow-flight, stalls and spins?

A

H - Height, >2500ft AGL
A - Area, unpopulated, no traffic
S - Secure, seat belts fastened, lose items secure, doors secure
E - Engine, mixture rich, fuel both, carb heat on, circuit breakers, mags both, primer locked, instruments green
L - Lookout, do a 180 degree turn to lookout for other aircraft

98
Q

How do you exit slow flight?

A
  • Full power
  • Carb heat off
  • Lower nose smoothly to maintain altitude
  • Raise flaps in stages
  • Set cruise
99
Q

How do you enter a practice stall?

A
  • HASEL check
  • Carb heat on
  • Mixture rich
  • Gradually reduce power
  • Increase attitude to maintain altitude
  • When nearing a stall, yank elevator back
  • Apply opposite rudder for wing drop
100
Q

How do you recover from a stall?

A
  • Lower nose
  • Throttle full
  • Carb heat off
  • Wings level
  • Retract flaps in stages
  • Climb
101
Q

How do you recover from a nose high unusual attitude?

A
  • Note decreasing airspeed, means the nose is high
  • Add power
  • Lower nose
  • Level wings
  • Cause check, flaps, trim, etc.
  • Return to cruise
102
Q

How do you recover from a nose low unusual attitude?

A
  • Note increasing airspeed, means nose is low
  • Reduce power
  • Level wings
  • Raise nose
  • Add power to climb
  • Cause check, flaps, trim, etc.
  • Return to cruise
103
Q

What is the soft field, no obstacle, landing procedure?

A
  • Full flaps
  • 60kt approach
  • Add 50RPM right before touchdown
  • Full back pressure on touchdown
  • Keep nosewheel up
  • Keep off brakes
104
Q

What type of engine does your aircraft have?

A

A single normally aspirated, air-cooled, horizontally opposing 4 cylinder engine outputting 160BHP at 2700RPM.

105
Q

What type of fuel and oil does your aircraft use?

A

100 low-lead (blue) or 100 (green), oil is MIL-L-6082.

106
Q

If the fuel vent became blocked, what could happen?

A

Fuel starvation could occur leading to engine failure.

107
Q

How does weight affect stall speed?

A

An increase in weight increases stall speed. A higher AoA is required to maintain level flight with more weight putting the aircraft nearer the critical AoA.

108
Q

In a climbing turn which wing will stall first?

A

Higher wing will stall first as the aileron deflection used in the turn will increase the wings AoA.

109
Q

In a descending turn which wing will stall first?

A

Lower wing will stall first as it is traveling slower than the higher, outside, wing.

110
Q

During run-up you discover the oil pressure gauge is inoperative, can the flight be continued?

A

The flight cannot continue per day VFR requirements.

111
Q

Describe the aircraft’s electrical system.

A

Energy supplied by a 14 volt DC system, powered by an engine-driven 60-amp alternator. Battery is a 12 volt 25 amp hour. Power is supplied through a split bus bar, one bus connecting electronic systems (radio, transponder, etc.) and the other having general electronics (lights, flap motors, etc.).

112
Q

Describe the aircraft’s fuel system.

A

Two fuel tanks, sharing one vent, that converge through a fuel selector valve. From the valve the fuel runs through a fuel strainer after which the line splits, one runs to the engine primer, the other to the carburetor.

113
Q

Describe the braking system.

A

Both wheels have a single-disk hydraulically actuated brake, the brakes are activated by a dedicated master cylinder for each brake. The master cylinders are engaged by using the left and/or right brake pedals.

114
Q

What happens to the alternator when the over-voltage light illuminates?

A

The over-voltage sensor has been tripped thus removing field current from the alternator effectively running all electrical systems off battery power.

115
Q

What is the difference between the magneto and alternator?

A

The magnetos power the spark plugs, the alternator powers the electronics. Both are run off the engine crankshaft.

116
Q

What is the difference between a forward slip and a side slip?

A

A forward slip, the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is not aligned with runway center line. A side slip, the longitudinal axis of the aircraft aligned with the runway center line.

117
Q

In a side slip does the ASI over-read or under-read?

A

Depends on which side of the aircraft the pitot tube is, regardless, the ASI loses accuracy and a slightly higher approach speed should be used to prevent an inadvertent stall.

118
Q

Define Basic Empty Weight

A
  • Weight of Standard Airplane
  • Full Oil
  • Unusable Fuel
  • Optional Equipment
119
Q

What are the minimum instrumentation required for day VFR flight?

A 
M - Manifold/Tachometer
O - Oil Temperature Gauge
O - Oil Pressure Gauge
F - Fuel Gauge
A - Airspeed Indicator
C - Compass
T - Timepiece
A - Altimeter
R - Radio (VHF, Transponder, ELT)
120
Q

Where does Class A airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Between FL180 to FL600 (18000ft to 60000ft), Mode C transponder and IFR clearance are required.

121
Q

Where does Class B airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Between 12500ft ASL and FL1800, Mode C transponder and IFR clearance are required. Class B Airspace only exists above Class E Airspace.

122
Q

Where does Class C airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Usually a control zone for a large airport, it extends 10NM around the airport and up to 12500ft above aerodrome elevation (AAE). A Mode C transponder and ATC clearance is required.

123
Q

Where does Class D airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Usually a control zone for a small airport, it extends 3 to 5 NM around the airport and up to 3000ft AAE; ATC contact is required.

124
Q

Where does Class F airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Restricted airspace, it can be either Restricted (R) or Advisory (A). For entering Class F Restricted a pilot needs prior permission, for entering Class F Advisory a pilot may freely enter but is discouraged from doing so.

125
Q

Where does Class G airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Undesignated airspace, no requirements exist for this airspace type.

126
Q

Where does Class E airspace exist and what are the requirements?

A

Used for low-level flight routes up to 12500ft ASL (where Class B begins), control zones for very small airports may also be Class E. There are no requirements for Class E airspace and it only exists below Class B airspace.

127
Q

What is the difference between controlled and uncontrolled airspace?

A

Controlled airspace is airspace where ATC is available, uncontrolled airspace has no ATC.

128
Q

How do you enter a side slip?

A
  • Power as required
  • Bank into wind
  • Apply full opposite rudder
  • Adjust bank to control turn
129
Q

How do you enter a forward slip?

A
  • Power idle
  • Bank aircraft into wind
  • Use full opposite rudder
  • Lower nose to descent attitude
130
Q

How do you recover from a slip?

A

-Level wings, reduce rudder pressure simultaneously

FLIGHT TEST (9 decks)

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